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MRSC5038 - WEEK 4 Fluoroscopy

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following procedures is NOT typically performed using fixed fluoroscopy X-ray equipment?

a)

Barium Enemas

b)

Barium Swallows

c)

Lumbar Punctures

d)

Eye Examinations

2.

What do the terms "undercouch" and "overcouch" refer to in the context of X-ray equipment?

a)

The type of patient bed used

b)

The location of the X-ray tube

c)

The size of the X-ray machine

d)

The duration of the procedure

3.

Which medical fields commonly use fluoroscopy X-ray equipment with iodine contrast agents?

a)

Dermatology, Ophthalmology, Neurology

b)

Cardiology, Vascular, Neuro-vascular

c)

Gastroenterology, Endocrinology, Rheumatology

d)

Pediatrics, Geriatrics, Psychiatry

4.

At what frame rate are images typically displayed in fluoroscopy?

a)

30 frames per second

b)

60 frames per second

c)

15 frames per second

d)

24 frames per second

5.

Why are images displayed at 30 frames per second in fluoroscopy?

a)

The human eye perceives this as continuous motion

b)

It is the maximum capacity of the monitor

c)

It reduces radiation exposure

d)

It enhances image resolution

6.

What is the range of "beam-on" time for fluoroscopy?

a)

A few seconds to a few hours

b)

A few minutes to a few hours

c)

A few seconds to a few minutes

d)

A few minutes to a few days

7.

How many images would a procedure with a "beam-on time" of 10 minutes at 30 f/s produce?

a)

18,000 images

b)

1,800 images

c)

180,000 images

d)

1,080 images

8.

Why must fluoroscopic systems produce each image with a lower dose than radiography?

a)

To reduce the cost of imaging

b)

To keep patient and operator radiation dose ALARA

c)

To increase the speed of imaging

d)

To improve image quality

9.

What are the two types of current image receptors?

a)

Image intensifier (II) and Direct DR Detector

b)

Image intensifier (II) and Indirect DR Detector

c)

Direct DR Detector and Indirect DR Detector

d)

Image intensifier (II) and Film-based Detector

10.

What is the primary function of an Image Intensifier (II)?

a)

To reduce the size of X-ray images

b)

To amplify low signal levels obtained at low X-ray doses

c)

To change the color of X-ray images

d)

To increase the speed of X-ray processing

11.

What shape is the image receptor of an Image Intensifier (II)?

a)

Square

b)

Triangular

c)

Circular

d)

Rectangular

12.

What is the typical input diameter of a mobile Image Intensifier (II)?

a)

15 cm

b)

25 cm

c)

35 cm

d)

45 cm

13.

For what type of studies is a fixed Image Intensifier (II) with a 40 cm input diameter typically used?

a)

Cardiac studies

b)

GI studies

c)

Neurological studies

d)

Orthopedic studies

14.

What is the function of the input phosphor in an image intensifier?

a)

Converts electrons into visible light

b)

Converts X-rays to light photons

c)

Focuses and accelerates electrons

d)

Converts light photons to electrons

15.

Which component of the image intensifier converts light photons to electrons?

a)

Input phosphor

b)

Photocathode

c)

Electronic lenses

d)

Output phosphor

16.

What role do electronic lenses play in an image intensifier?

a)

Convert X-rays to light photons

b)

Convert electrons into visible light

c)

Focus and accelerate electrons towards the output layer

d)

Convert light photons to electrons

17.

Electronic lenses: focus and accelerate electrons towards output layer. These are the processes that achieve (a)  

18.

How are electrons converted into visible light in an image intensifier?

a)

By the input phosphor

b)

By the photocathode

c)

By the electronic lenses

d)

By the output phosphor

19.

What components make up the input layer of an image intensifier?

a)

Input phosphor and photocathode

b)

Output phosphor and anode

c)

Focusing electrodes and vacuum

d)

X-rays and electrons

20.

What is the primary function of the input phosphor in the input layer?

a)

Absorbs light photons and converts them into electrons

b)

Absorbs X-ray photons and converts them into light

c)

Absorbs electrons and converts them into X-ray photons

d)

Absorbs light and converts it into sound

21.

Which material is used in the input layer for its column-like structure and good spatial resolution?

a)

Sodium chloride (NaCl)

b)

Calcium carbonate (CaCO3)

c)

Caesium iodide (CsI)

d)

Potassium iodide (KI)

22.

What is the role of the photocathode in the input layer?

a)

Converts electrons into X-ray photons

b)

Absorbs light photons and converts them into electrons

c)

Absorbs X-ray photons and converts them into light

d)

Converts sound waves into light photons

23.

What is the purpose of applying 25-35 kV in an image intensifier?

a)

To decelerate electrons

b)

To focus X-rays

c)

To accelerate electrons

d)

To cool the system

24.

What are the two ways in which electron focusing causes intensification?

a)

Electronic gain and magnification gain

b)

Electronic gain and minification gain

c)

Minification gain and light gain

d)

Light gain and magnification gain

25.

What is intensification more commonly known as?

a)

Light gain

b)

Power gain

c)

Brightness gain

d)

Energy gain

26.

How is brightness gain calculated?

a)

Electronic gain + Minification gain

b)

Electronic gain - Minification gain

c)

Electronic gain x Minification gain

d)

Electronic gain / Minification gain

27.

What is the range of voltage through which electrons from the photocathode are accelerated?

a)

10 to 20 kV

b)

25 to 35 kV

c)

40 to 50 kV

d)

5 to 15 kV

28.

What is the effect of the applied voltage on the electrons from the photocathode?

a)

It decreases their kinetic energy.

b)

It causes electronic gain.

c)

It stops their movement.

d)

It reduces their speed.

29.

By what factor does the electron energy increase due to electronic gain?

a)

10

b)

25

c)

50

d)

100

30.

What is the role of focusing electrodes in minification gain?

a)

To disperse the electron beam

b)

To focus the electron beam from the large input layer onto the smaller output layer

c)

To increase the size of the output layer

d)

To invert the electron beam

31.

How is the spatial pattern of electrons maintained at the output layer?

a)

Enlarged and upright

b)

Minified and inverted

c)

Minified and upright

d)

Enlarged and inverted

32.

What is minification gain?

a)

The process of enlarging an image

b)

The image is much smaller at the output phosphor than at the input phosphor

c)

The process of reducing energy concentration

d)

The image is much larger at the output phosphor than at the input phosphor

33.

What effect does minification gain have on energy?

a)

It disperses energy over a large area

b)

It reduces energy concentration

c)

It intensifies energy by concentrating it on a small area

d)

It has no effect on energy

34.

What is the formula for calculating minification gain?

a)

(dO/dI)2(d_O / d_I)^2

b)

(dI/dO)2(d_I / d_O)^2

c)

d_I * d_O

d)

d_O - d_I

35.

In the context of minification gain, what does 'd' represent?

a)

Density

b)

Diameter

c)

Distance

d)

Depth

36.

Image Intensifier (II) Summary of Process

a)

Input phosphor (CsI): converts the X-rays to light photons

b)

Photocathode: converts light photons to electrons

c)

Electronic lenses: focus and accelerate electrons towards output layer (minification and electronic gain)

d)

Output phosphor: converts electrons into visible light

1)
2)
3)
4)
37.

What is the primary use of INDIRECT DR Detectors in medical imaging?

a)

As an alternative to MRI

b)

As an alternative to the II in fluoroscopy

c)

As an alternative to CT scans

d)

As an alternative to ultrasound

38.

In INDIRECT DR detectors for fluoroscopy:

Del size is usually (a)   than radiography

39.

Why is the del size in fluoroscopy usually larger than in radiography?

a)

To achieve a reasonable data transfer rate for real-time imaging

b)

To reduce the cost of equipment

c)

To increase the resolution of images

d)

To decrease the power consumption

40.

What are the advantages of indirect DR detectors over the II?

a)

Lower dose

b)

Higher dynamic range

c)

Less bulky

d)

Lower dynamic range

41.

What does film saturation result in?

a)

Blackened image

b)

Very bright image

c)

Blurred image

d)

Colorful image

42.

What does II saturation result in?

a)

Blackened image

b)

Very bright image

c)

Blurred image

d)

Colorful image

43.

What happens to IIs at high radiation levels?

a)

They display all high radiation levels at maximum density.

b)

They saturate and display all low radiation levels at the same minimum density.

c)

They become transparent.

d)

They reflect radiation.

44.

What effect does a higher X-ray dose have when passing through low-attenuation anatomy?

a)

It causes the system to become more detailed.

b)

It causes the system to saturate.

c)

It reduces the image brightness.

d)

It enhances color contrast.

45.

What is the effect of bright areas of saturation in a display on visualizing surrounding structures?

a)

It enhances the visibility of structures

b)

It makes it difficult to visualize surrounding structures

c)

It has no effect on visualization

d)

It improves the contrast of the image

46.

What is an example of glare in medical imaging?

a)

Dark lung field in II image

b)

Bright lung field in II image

c)

Clear lung field in DR image

d)

Blurred lung field in DR image

47.

The next few are the socrative questions

a)

Select me

b)

Don't select me

48.

The image intensifier (II) is a rectangular image receptor

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Which of the following accurately shows the energy sequence within the II?

a)

Light to X‐rays to electrons to light

b)

X‐rays to electrons to light

c)

Electrons to light to electrons

d)

X‐rays to light to electrons to light

50.

The formula for minification gain is:

a)

minification gain = input phosphor diameter / output phosphor diameter

b)

minification gain = output phosphor diameter / input phosphor diameter

c)

minification gain = (input phosphor diameter / output phosphor diameter)2

d)

minification gain = (output phosphor diameter / input phosphor diameter)2

51.

The input phosphor of an II is made of CsI. This material is also used in:

a)

Direct DR detectors

b)

Contrast agents

c)

CR plates

d)

Indirect DR detectors

52.

Magnification of the fluoroscopic image results in improved:

a)

SNR

b)

spatial resolution

c)

contrast

d)

brightness

53.

ABC stands for

a)

Automatic Beam Control

b)

Automatic Beam Contrast

c)

Automatic Brightness Control

d)

Automatic Brightness and Contrast

54.

For an II, the image is much larger at the output phosphor than it is at the input phosphor

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Bones appear black on a fluoroscopy image

a)

True

b)

False

56.

An II has a wider dynamic range than a DR detector

a)

True

b)

False

57.

If the patient entrance skin dose rate is 30 mGy/min, how long would it take to reach the threshold dose for epilation?

a)

10 minutes

b)

100 minutes

c)

1 day

d)

1 week

58.

In interventional radiology, estimation of patient peak skin dose from the displayed CAK requires knowledge of all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Backscatter factor

b)

Overlap of X‐ray fields

c)

Screening time

d)

X‐ray Source to Skin Distance

59.

Which of the following statements about radiation‐induced skin damage (deterministic effects) is FALSE?

a)

The severity of the effect increases with dose

b)

One example is erythema

c)

They occur many years after exposure

d)

They are not observed below a threshold dose of about 2 Gy

60.

The maximum field of view on an II is 40 cm. Magnification is used and a FOV of 20 cm is selected to improve spatial resolution. How will patient dose change if the equipment is used under ABC? Be as quantitative as possible (i.e. do a calculation!).

a)

Dose will increase by a factor of 8x

b)

Dose will increase by a factor of 2x

c)

Dose will increase by a factor of 4x

d)

Dose will increase by a factor of 16x

61.

The maximum field of view on a DR detector is 40 cm. Magnification is used and a FOV of 20 cm is selected. How will the spatial resolution change?

a)

It will decrease because fewer pixels are used

b)

It will remain the same because detector size is unchanged

c)

It will improve due to increased pixel density over the smaller FOV

d)

It will worsen due to increased geometric unsharpness

62.

Categorise the characteristics

Categorize the following

Beam is on at low mA all the time during screening

Only an option on mobile units

Generator delivers pulses at high mA at a pulse rate of 3-30 pulses per second

Pulses delivered at a short pulse width

Only mode for fixed units, but can also be used on mobile

Continuous Fluoroscopy
Pulsed Fluoroscopy
63.

What does temporal resolution refer to in the context of continuous fluoroscopy?

a)

The ability to detect stationary objects

b)


The ability to detect moving objects

c)

The ability to enhance image contrast

d)

The ability to increase image brightness

64.

________ fluoroscopy has better temporal resolution than the other (i.e. little to no motion blur)

a)

Continuous

b)

Pulsed

65.

Longer exposure times will reduce blurring from patient motion in the image

a)

True

b)

False

66.

In pulsed fluoroscopy, each pulse is 3-10ms. This is known as the _____ _____

(a)  

67.

In pulsed fluoroscopy, what is adjusted to provide the same X-ray exposure rate as continuous fluoroscopy?

a)

Pulse width

b)

Number of pulses

c)


mA (milliamperes)

d)


X-ray generator type

68.

Assuming all other parameters are the same, changing from 30 pulse/second (p/s) to 15 p/s means the patient dose is halved.
It is therefore safe to assume that the lower the pulse rate, the lower the patient dose.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

What happens if the pulse rate is very low in imaging?

a)

The images become clearer

b)

The display becomes "jerky"

c)


The images become faster

d)

The display becomes smoother

70.

What happens to the displayed image when the monitor frame rate is 30 f/s and the X-ray pulse rate is 15 p/s?

a)

The image flickers on and off in synchronization with the X-ray pulse

b)


The image is displayed continuously at the refresh rate of the monitor

c)

The image is not displayed at all

d)


The image is displayed only when the X-ray pulse is active

71.

____ rate is a measure of how many exposures per second are being made by the x-ray unit.

____ rate is a measure of how many images are displayed per second on the monitor

(a)  

72.

If the monitor frame rate is 30 f/s and the pulse rate is 10 p/s, how many times is each x-ray image displayed?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

73.

Categorise each under the correct stage

Categorize the following

To assist with positioning

Fairly noisy images

Low patient dose-rate is important because of time

Used to capture diagnostic-quality images

Patient dose-rate is about 20x higher in acquisition mode

Better image quality is required

Fluoroscopic mode
Acquisition
74.

What is the primary purpose of using Automatic Exposure Control in fluoroscopy?

a)

To manually select exposure factors

b)


To terminate the exposure

c)

To maintain image quality

d)

To increase patient exposure

75.

How does the ABC maintain a constant image brightness in fluoroscopy?

a)


By adjusting the room lighting

b)

By altering the image resolution

c)


By modulating kV and mA

d)

By modulating the pulse width and rate

76.

What happens to kV and mA in low dose mode?

a)

Both kV and mA decrease

b)

kV decreases and mA increases

c)


kV increases and mA decreases

d)

Both kV and mA increase

77.

In high contrast mode, how are kV and mA adjusted?

a)

Low kV and high mA

b)

High kV and low mA

c)

Both kV and mA are high

d)

Both kV and mA are low

78.

What is the limitation of the ABC in distinguishing objects?

a)


It cannot distinguish a patient from lead shielding.

b)

It cannot detect any objects.

c)


It can only detect metal objects.

d)


It can distinguish all objects accurately.

79.

How does the ABC respond to the reduction in brightness caused by lead gloves?

a)

It reduces the radiation output

b)

It boosts the radiation output.

c)

It turns off automatically

d)

It does not respond at all.

80.

Which of the following factors affects spatial resolution in X-ray imaging?

a)

Focal spot size of x-ray tube

b)

Patient positioning

c)

Properties of the image receptor

d)

Speed of the x-ray machine

81.

What is an additional factor in fluoroscopy that affects magnification?

a)

Electronic magnification

b)

Optical magnification

c)

Thermal magnification

d)

Aliasing magnification

82.

What determines the largest field of view in magnification?

a)

The physical size of the II or DR Detector

b)


The colour of the image

c)

The type of lens used

d)

The distance from the object

83.

A smaller FOV without magnification can be achieved by bringing in the lead shutters. What is a consequence of doing this?

a)

Spatial resolution improves

b)

Contrast resolution improves

c)

Spatial resolution decreases

d)

Spatial resolution remains the same

84.

Read this & understand pls
In Magnification Mode (B), a higher voltage is applied resulting in a more focussed input electron beam. This causes magnification due to divergence of the output electron beam.

Result? Magnified view of a smaller area of anatomy; better spatial resolution

85.

What happens to the minification gain in magnification mode?

a)


It increases

b)


It decreases

c)


It remains the same

d)

It doubles

86.

To Recap:

In magnification mode:

  • - The collimators adjust to the smaller FOV

  • - The data from the smaller FOV are displayed across the entire monitor, thereby achieving (a)   magnification

87.

What effect does binning dels have on spatial resolution?

a)


Improves spatial resolution

b)

Has no effect on spatial resolution

c)

Results in poorer spatial resolution

d)


Doubles the spatial resolution

88.

Binned dels have a greater area, meaning they capture more x-ray photons. This also means that for the same patient dose, the image would have better (a)  

89.

Mag mode = smaller FOV = better spatial resolution but higher patient dose

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Transient erythema: Threshold dose =​ (a)   mGy, Time to appear =​ (b)  

Temporary epilation: Threshold dose = ​ ​ (c)   , Time to appear =​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
2000mGy
24hrs
3000mGy
Few weeks
A few months
5000mGy
1000mGy
30mins
91.

The legal limit for maximum patient ESD rate

a)

150mGy/min

b)

100mGy/min

c)

20mGy/min

d)

1000mGy/min

92.

We use DAP as the starting point to calculate Effective Dose

a)

True

b)

False

93.

What is one use of Cumulative Air Kerma (CAK)?

a)

To indicate potential skin injury

b)

To determine Effective Dose

c)

To measure total body dose

d)

To average the absorbed dose

94.

CAK is used as a starting point to calculate patient ____ ____ ____

(a)  

95.

Dosimeter- Absorbed Dose vs KERMA

Categorize the following

Input dose from x-ray tube + backscatter dose from patient

Input dose from x-ray tube + free air (i.e. no backscatter)

Absorbed Dose
KERMA
96.

Air kerma is higher than absorbed dose, because it does not include backscatter

a)

True

b)

False

97.

CAK is

a)

total air kerma

b)

air kerma per projection

98.

What does the Interventional Reference Point (IRP) represent in terms of patient measurement?

a)

The distance from the source to the imaging table

b)


The source to skin distance for an average-sized patient

c)

The distance from the source to the floor

d)


The distance from the source to the ceiling

99.

Why might a patient not exhibit skin effects if CAK is received over multiple projections?

a)


The projections are too weak

b)


The projections are too fast

c)

The projections are not overlapping

d)

The projections are too slow

100.

Peak Skin Dose = Cumulative Air Kerma, corrected by:

a)

Backscatter factor (~1.4) [convert air kerma to dose]

b)

Overlapping projections

c)

Attenuation by table and mattress

d)

Inverse square law [location of actual focus to skin distance compared to IRP]