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bio lab mid term review

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why are certain techniques used in experiments?

a)

To ensure accuracy and reliability

b)

To make experiments more expensive

c)

To confuse the results

d)

To reduce the number of variables

2.

Why did experiment three use the pGlo plasmid specifically?

a)

Because it allows for antibiotic resistance selection.

b)

Because it contains the gene for green fluorescent protein (GFP).

c)

Because it is the only plasmid available in the lab.

d)

Because it increases the rate of bacterial growth.

3.

Why is reverse transcription and cDNA better than just using raw mRNA?

a)

Because cDNA is more stable and can be easily amplified by PCR.

b)

Because mRNA is more stable than cDNA.

c)

Because cDNA cannot be used for cloning.

d)

Because reverse transcription destroys the genetic information.

4.

What is the purpose of PCR and what can PCR results tell us?

a)

To amplify DNA and detect the presence or absence of specific genetic material

b)

To sequence proteins in a sample

c)

To measure the pH of a solution

d)

To observe cell division under a microscope

5.

Why is [insert] technique used for this experiment? Why are we diluting to a certain amount?

a)

To ensure accurate results and maintain consistency

b)

To speed up the experiment

c)

To use less equipment

d)

To avoid using chemicals

6.

What is concentration?

a)

A measurement of an amount of mass in an amount of volume

b)

A measurement of temperature

c)

A measurement of pressure

d)

A measurement of time

7.

Which of the following is an example of a Mass/Volume unit?

a)

g/L

b)

mol/L

c)

mM

d)

%

8.

Molarity is denoted by which symbol?

a)

m

b)

M

c)

X

d)

%

9.

mM stands for ________ (millimole/liter).

a)

millimolarity

b)

micromolarity

c)

macromolarity

d)

minormolarity

10.

μM stands for ________.

a)

micromolarity

b)

millimolarity

c)

macromolarity

d)

nanomolarity

11.

What does 'X'-fold mean in the context of concentration?

a)

A type of temperature measurement

b)

A type of working or stock solution (e.g., 2X MyTAQ stock, 1X working solution, 10X stock solution)

c)

A type of pressure measurement

d)

A type of time measurement

12.

2% concentration is equal to what decimal value?

a)

0.2

b)

0.02

c)

2.0

d)

0.002

13.

What is the symbol for the SI prefix 'micro'?

a)

μ

b)

m

c)

u

d)

mc

14.

What is the value of the SI prefix 'nano'?

a)

0.000 000 001

b)

0.000 001

c)

0.001

d)

0.01

15.

What is the SI prefix for 10310^{-3} ?

a)

milli

b)

micro

c)

nano

d)

centi

16.

Given 10 mL, convert to L. (Show your answer in L)

a)

0.01 L

b)

0.1 L

c)

1 L

d)

0.001 L

17.

Given 50 mL, convert to L. (Show your answer in L)

a)

0.05 L

b)

0.5 L

c)

5 L

d)

0.005 L

18.

What is the formula for dilution problems?

4 lines
19.

C1 in the dilution formula stands for:

a)

Final concentration of the solution

b)

Initial concentration of the solution you’re trying to dilute

c)

Final volume of the diluted solution

d)

Initial volume of solution you’re trying to dilute

20.

V1 in the dilution formula stands for:

a)

Initial volume of solution you’re trying to dilute

b)

Final volume of the diluted solution

c)

Initial concentration of the solution

d)

Final concentration of the solution

21.

C2 in the dilution formula stands for:

a)

Final concentration of the solution you were trying to dilute

b)

Initial concentration of the solution

c)

Final volume of the diluted solution

d)

Initial volume of solution you’re trying to dilute

22.

V2 in the dilution formula stands for:

a)

Final volume of the diluted solution

b)

Initial volume of solution you’re trying to dilute

c)

Initial concentration of the solution

d)

Final concentration of the solution

23.

What is an example of a complex dilution mentioned in the 'Experiment 0 Lecture: Complex Dilutions' slide?

a)

Simple water dilution

b)

PCR Tables

c)

Serial dilution

d)

Buffer preparation

24.

According to the 'Experiment 0 Lecture: Complex Dilutions' slide, what are you determining when preparing a master mix for PCR?

a)

The temperature of the reaction

b)

The amount of many ingredients (H2O, 2X MyTAQ, primers) to put into an overall volume

c)

The color of the solution

d)

The type of DNA used

25.

What is the volume range of the P2 micropipette?

a)

0.5 μL - 2 μL

b)

2 μL - 20 μL

c)

20 μL - 200 μL

d)

200 μL - 1000 μL

26.

What is the volume range of the P20 micropipette?

a)

0.5 μL - 2 μL

b)

2 μL - 20 μL

c)

20 μL - 200 μL

d)

200 μL - 1000 μL

27.

What is the volume range of the P200 micropipette?

a)

0.5 μL - 2 μL

b)

2 μL - 20 μL

c)

20 μL - 200 μL

d)

200 μL - 1000 μL

28.

What is the volume range of the P1000 micropipette?

a)

0.5 μL - 2 μL

b)

2 μL - 20 μL

c)

20 μL - 200 μL

d)

200 μL - 1000 μL

29.

What was one of the purposes of Experiment 0? Diluted ___ dyes to 1X.

a)

10X

b)

5X

c)

100X

d)

50X

30.

What was another purpose of Experiment 0? Fill in the blank: Made complex solutions of dyes with your (a)   dilutions.

31.

Which of the following was practiced to solve the purpose of Experiment 0?

a)

Micropipetting

b)

Chromatography

c)

Centrifugation

d)

Gel electrophoresis

32.

Which skill was practiced in Experiment 0? Practice calculating ___?

a)

dilutions

b)

temperatures

c)

pressures

d)

volumes

33.

Which skill was practiced in Experiment 0? Practice making ___?

a)

solutions

b)

mixtures

c)

compounds

d)

reactions

34.

DNA is ________ information.

a)

genetic

b)

chemical

c)

historical

d)

magnetic

35.

What does PCR stand for?

a)

Polymerase Chain Reaction

b)

Protein Chain Reaction

c)

Polymerase Code Reaction

d)

Protein Code Reaction

36.

The process that allows us to isolate and amplify specific sections of DNA is called ________.

a)

Polymerase Chain Reaction

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

DNA Sequencing

d)

Southern Blotting

37.

What does 'amplify' mean in the context of PCR?

a)

To make a lot of copies of a specific sequence/gene/code

b)

To destroy DNA

c)

To sequence DNA

d)

To mutate DNA

38.

A piece of DNA that is the product of an amplification procedure (such as PCR) is called an ________.

a)

amplicon

b)

exon

c)

plasmid

d)

intron

39.

Which of the following temperatures is used for the denaturing step in PCR?

a)

55°C

b)

65°C

c)

72°C

d)

95°C

40.

During the annealing step of PCR, what attaches to the sequence complementary to them in the single strand?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Primers

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Ligase

41.

The extension step in PCR occurs at _________.

a)

72°C

b)

37°C

c)

95°C

d)

50°C

42.

What is a primer in the context of PCR?

4 lines
43.

During the denaturing step of PCR, double stranded DNA separates into single strands.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Which step involves the attachment of primers to single stranded DNA?

a)

Step 3 in the diagram (cool, primers anneal 55-65°C)

b)

Step 1 in the diagram (denature, 94-98°C)

c)

Step 2 in the diagram (extend, 72°C)

d)

Step 4 in the diagram (final elongation, 70-74°C)

45.

According to the figure legend in 'Experiment 1 (PCR): Polymerase Chain Reaction', what does a long rectangle represent in the diagram?

a)

A protein

b)

A DNA strand

c)

An RNA strand

d)

A nucleotide

46.

In the figure for 'Experiment 1 (PCR): Polymerase Chain Reaction', what do two long rectangles close together indicate?

a)

Single-stranded DNA

b)

Double-stranded DNA

c)

RNA-DNA hybrid

d)

Protein complex

47.

Which step in the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) involves heating to 95°C?

a)

Add oligonucleotide primers

b)

Heat to separate strands

c)

Cool; primers anneal

d)

DNA synthesis

48.

In the PCR process, primers anneal to the DNA strands at a temperature of ________.

a)

55–65°C

b)

90–95°C

c)

20–25°C

d)

75–80°C

49.

After 25 cycles of PCR, the target sequence has been amplified about ______-fold.

a)

10610^6

b)

10210^2

c)

10310^3

d)

10410^4

50.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the 2x MyTAQ Master Mix used in PCR?

a)

TAQ polymerase

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Buffer

d)

Glucose

51.

What is the function of a primer in PCR?

a)

A primer is a short, single-stranded DNA sequence that primes the single-stranded DNA, so the DNA polymerase (TAQ) knows where to bind and start extending.

b)

A primer is an enzyme that breaks down DNA during PCR.

c)

A primer is a long, double-stranded RNA molecule that inhibits DNA synthesis.

d)

A primer is a protein that signals the end of DNA replication.

52.

ddH2O (double distilled water) is used in PCR to ensure that:

a)

The reaction is heated

b)

The water is pure enough not to degrade any of the other materials used in PCR

c)

The DNA is colored

d)

The buffer is acidic

53.

Which of the following materials is required for PCR?

a)

2x MyTAQ

b)

Primer

c)

ddH2O

d)

All of the above

54.

Which types of DNA samples can be used in PCR reactions?

a)

gDNA only

b)

cDNA only

c)

Both gDNA and cDNA

d)

Neither gDNA nor cDNA

55.

In Experiment 1, which type of DNA is used?

a)

All gDNA

b)

All cDNA

c)

Both gDNA and cDNA

d)

No DNA

56.

In Experiment 2, which types of DNA are used?

a)

Only gDNA

b)

Only cDNA

c)

Both gDNA and cDNA

d)

No DNA

57.

What can determining band length in PCR help you find?

a)

It can help compare two sequences together to find polymorphisms.

b)

It can determine the exact nucleotide sequence of DNA.

c)

It can identify the presence of all proteins in a sample.

d)

It can measure the concentration of RNA in a cell.

58.

If using both gDNA and cDNA in PCR, what can you determine about the gDNA?

4 lines
59.

What is the purpose of a negative control in a PCR experiment?

a)

To make sure the master mix is not contaminated with DNA.

b)

To increase the yield of PCR product.

c)

To ensure the primers are specific to the target DNA.

d)

To enhance the efficiency of the DNA polymerase.

60.

Remember, PCR is an exponential procedure. What type of increase does the amount of DNA undergo as you go through more cycles of PCR?

a)

Linear

b)

Exponential

c)

Logarithmic

d)

Constant

61.

If you start with 2 strands of DNA in PCR, after 15 cycles you'll end up with ______ strands.

a)

32768

b)

1024

c)

16384

d)

65536

62.

If you start with 2 nanograms of DNA in PCR, after 15 cycles you'll end up with (a)   ng.

63.

What is the definition of Polymorphism? Polymorphism is defined as ""

a)

two or more variant forms of a specific DNA sequence

b)

the process of cell division in prokaryotes

c)

the movement of genes between populations

d)

the synthesis of proteins from amino acids

64.

What does 'Poly' mean in the context of Polymorphism?

a)

Many

b)

One

c)

Few

d)

None

65.

What does 'Morphism' mean in the context of Polymorphism?

a)

Form

b)

Shape

c)

Type

d)

Function

66.

Which of the following is NOT a type of polymorphism?

a)

SNPs

b)

Indels

c)

Transposable Elements

d)

Chromosomes

67.

Which of the following are subtypes of SNPs?

a)

Sense/Missense/Nonsense SNPs

b)

Indels

c)

Transposable Elements

d)

Chromosomes

68.

What does SNP stand for in genetics?

a)

Single Nucleotide Polymorphism

b)

Simple Nucleotide Protein

c)

Single Nucleus Polypeptide

d)

Sequence Nucleotide Pair

69.

A change in a nucleotide base in a DNA sequence is called a _________.

a)

Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP)

b)

Gene Duplication

c)

Chromosomal Translocation

d)

Frameshift Mutation

70.

Which of the following is true about SNPs?

a)

They always lead to a deletion in the DNA sequence

b)

They do not lead to a deletion or change in DNA band length

c)

They always cause a gap in MUSCL alignment

d)

They are not caused by errors during DNA replication

71.

At which positions are SNPs present?

4 lines
72.

At which positions is a SNP (Single Nucleotide Polymorphism) present in all four strains?

a)

Positions 1, 2, and 3

b)

Positions 3, 10, and 11

c)

Positions 5, 6, and 7

d)

Positions 8, 9, and 10

73.

A SNP is a position in a DNA sequence where ________ nucleotide(s) differ(s) between strains.

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

74.

Refer to the example DNA sequences below: CTGAGTGGACCAGTG (Strain 1) CTAAGTGGACAATG (Strain 2) CTTAGTGGATAATG (Strain 3) CTCAGTGGACAATG (Strain 4) True or False: The nucleotide at position 3 is the same in all four strains.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

What does SNP stand for in genetics?

a)

Single Nucleotide Polymorphism

b)

Simple Nuclear Protein

c)

Small Nucleic Particle

d)

Sodium Nitrite Phosphate

76.

SNP refers more to the _______ of the polymorphism, than to a specific nucleotide that has been changed.

a)

location

b)

sequence

c)

function

d)

expression

77.

Given the following DNA sequences, which of the following lists the positions and nucleotides that are different between Strain 1 and Strain 2? Strain 1: ATGTTACATTACGCGCCACAC Strain 2: ATGTAACATTCGCGCCACAG

a)

Positions 5 (T/A), 11 (A/C), 21 (C/G)

b)

Positions 5 (T/A), 11 (A/T), 21 (C/G)

c)

Positions 5 (T/A), 11 (A/C), 21 (C/A)

d)

Positions 5 (T/A), 11 (A/T), 21 (C/A)

78.

What does SNP stand for in genetics?

a)

Single Nucleotide Polymorphism

b)

Simple Nucleotide Pair

c)

Single Nucleus Protein

d)

Sequence Nucleotide Polarity

79.

What can changes to codon sequences lead to in a protein?

a)

Changes to codon sequences can change the amino acid chain that makes up a protein.

b)

Changes to codon sequences can increase the number of ribosomes in a cell.

c)

Changes to codon sequences can cause the protein to dissolve in water.

d)

Changes to codon sequences can make the protein glow under UV light.

80.

Mutations caused by SNPs can affect gene expression greatly, or not at all.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

DNA sequences are composed of ________.

a)

nucleotides

b)

amino acids

c)

fatty acids

d)

monosaccharides

82.

Proteins are composed of ________.

a)

amino acids

b)

fatty acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

monosaccharides

83.

What is a codon?

4 lines
84.

Mutations caused by SNPs are classified in two ways. What are they?

4 lines
85.

This codon table is how you can tell if a mutation in a codon will lead to a change in amino acid. Note: Because these codons are written in terms of RNA, uracil (U) takes the place of thymine (T). Which amino acid does the codon AUG code for?

a)

Methionine (Met)

b)

Leucine (Leu)

c)

Valine (Val)

d)

Serine (Ser)

86.

The codon UUU codes for _____?

a)

Phenylalanine (Phe)

b)

Leucine (Leu)

c)

Valine (Val)

d)

Methionine (Met)

87.

What is a synonymous mutation?

a)

A SNP mutation that changes the amino acid coded for in the codon

b)

A SNP mutation that doesn’t change the amino acid coded for in the codon

c)

A mutation that deletes a codon

d)

A mutation that duplicates a codon

88.

A synonymous mutation results in ________ gene function and an ________ protein.

4 lines
89.

Which of the following is an example of a synonymous mutation?

a)

UUU → UUC; both code for phenylalanine

b)

UUU (phenylalanine) → UUA (leucine)

c)

UAC (tyrosine) → UAA (STOP)

d)

UUA (leucine) → UUU (phenylalanine)

90.

What is a nonsynonymous mutation?

a)

A SNP mutation that does not change the amino acid sequence

b)

A SNP mutation that DOES change the amino acid sequence

c)

A mutation that deletes a codon

d)

A mutation that duplicates a codon

91.

A nonsynonymous mutation results in ________ gene function and a ________ protein.

a)

altered; changed

b)

unchanged; identical

c)

lost; missing

d)

enhanced; same

92.

Which of the following is a type of nonsynonymous mutation that results in a STOP codon?

a)

Missense mutation

b)

Nonsense mutation

c)

Silent mutation

d)

Frameshift mutation

93.

What is a sense mutation? A sense mutation is a mutation that DOESN'T change the ________ a codon codes for.

a)

amino acid

b)

nucleotide

c)

gene

d)

chromosome

94.

Which of the following best describes the effect of a sense mutation on the resulting protein?

a)

It causes a harmful change

b)

It does nothing to affect the structure of the resulting protein

c)

It always causes a stop codon

d)

It deletes an amino acid