Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Physics Multiple Choice Worksheet

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The nucleus of an atom is charged

a)

negatively.

b)

positively.

c)

both of these

d)

none of the above

2.

The electric charge of all electrons

a)

vary from ion to ion.

b)

are identical.

c)

vary from atom to atom.

3.

Compared to the mass of a proton, the mass of an electron is

a)

very much less.

b)

greater.

c)

identical.

4.

The vast numbers of electrons in a coin don't fly off the surface because

a)

they are attracted by an equal number of protons.

b)

they are strongly bonded to their atoms.

c)

mutual repulsion is incomplete.

d)

all of the above

5.

Which force binds atoms together to form molecules?

a)

electric

b)

gravitational

c)

centripetal

d)

nuclear

e)

none of the above

6.

In an electrically neutral atom the number of protons in the nucleus is equal to the number of

a)

electrons that surround the nucleus.

b)

neutrons in the nucleus.

c)

both of these

d)

none of the above

7.

If you strip electrons from an atom, the atom becomes a

a)

positive ion.

b)

different element.

c)

negative ion.

8.

To say that electric charge is conserved is to say that electric charge

a)

is a whole-number multiple of the charge of one electron.

b)

occurs in an infinite variety of quantities.

c)

will interact with neighboring electric charges.

d)

can neither be created nor destroyed.

9.

A difference between electric and gravitational forces is that electric forces include

a)

the inverse-square law.

b)

repulsive interactions.

c)

infinite range.

d)

separation distance.

e)

none of the above

10.

When the distance between two charges is halved, the electric force between the charges

a)

doubles.

b)

is reduced by one-quarter.

c)

quadruples.

d)

is half.

e)

none of the above

11.

Two charged particles 1 m apart exert a 1-N force on each other. If the magnitude of each charge is doubled, the force on each particle will be

a)

8 N.

b)

4 N.

c)

2 N.

d)

1 N.

e)

none of the above

12.

Two charged particles 1 m apart exert a 1-N force on each other. If the particles are instead 0.25-m apart, the force on each particle will be

a)

1.0 N.

b)

2.0 N.

c)

16.0 N.

d)

4.0 N.

e)

8.0 N.

13.

To say that an object is electrically polarized is to say

a)

its charges have been rearranged.

b)

it is to some degree magnetic.

c)

it is electrically charged.

d)

it is only partially conducting.

e)

its internal electric field is zero. sand

14.

A balloon will stick to a wooden wall if the balloon is charged

a)

negatively.

b)

positively.

c)

either of these

d)

none of the above

15.

A negatively-charged balloon touching a wooden wall

a)

polarizes molecules in the wall.

b)

pushes negative charge in the wall away from it.

c)

pulls positive charge on the wall surface toward it.

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

16.

Electric field lines about a point charge extend

a)

outward when the charge is positive.

b)

outward when the charge is negative.

c)

in circles.

17.

A proton and an electron placed in an electric field experience the same force. Which undergoes the greater acceleration?

a)

electron

b)

proton

c)

both equally

d)

none of the above

18.

Electric charge distributes itself on conducting surfaces

a)

with greater concentration on flat parts.

b)

such that the electric field inside is zero.

c)

both of the above

d)

none of the above

19.

Electric potential is measured in units of

a)

volts.

b)

amperes.

c)

watts.

d)

joules.

e)

any or all of these

20.

If you do 10 J of work to push 1 coulomb of charge into an electric field, its voltage with respect to its starting position is

a)

10 V.

b)

less than 10 V.

c)

more than 10 V.

d)

none of the above

21.

When a battery does 24 J of work on 10 C of charge, the voltage it supplies is

a)

2.4 V.

b)

24 V.

c)

240 V.

d)

4.2 V.

e)

none of the above

22.

Just as water flows from high to low pressure, electric charge flows from

a)

high resistance to low resistance.

b)

high charge concentration to low charge concentration.

c)

high to low voltage.

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

23.

The flow of charge in a circuit depends on

a)

adequate resistance.

b)

adequate chemical action.

c)

a potential difference.

d)

all of the above

24.

The amount of energy given to each coulomb of charge flowing through a 12-V battery is

a)

12 J.

b)

12 V.

c)

12 A.

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

25.

The electric current in a copper wire is normally composed of

a)

electrons.

b)

ions.

c)

protons.

d)

all of the above

26.

An ampere is a unit of electric

a)

pressure.

b)

resistance.

c)

current.

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

27.

A coulomb of charge flowing in a bulb filament powered by a 6-volt battery is provided with

a)

6 watts.

b)

6 amperes.

c)

6 newtons.

d)

6 joules.

e)

6 ohms.

28.

Direct current is normally produced by a

a)

generator.

b)

battery.

c)

both of these

d)

neither of these

29.

Alternating current is normally produced by a

a)

battery.

b)

generator.

c)

both of these

d)

neither of these

30.

Electrical resistance is normally measured in

a)

volts.

b)

newtons.

c)

joules.

d)

amperes.

e)

ohms

31.

The electric resistance of a superconductor is

a)

usually lower than ordinary resistors.

b)

infinite.

c)

zero.

d)

none of the above

32.

Current in a conductor can be increased by

a)

reducing its resistance.

b)

increasing the voltage across it.

c)

both of these

d)

neither of these

33.

The current through a 10-ohm resistor connected to a 120-V power supply is

a)

10 A.

b)

120 A.

c)

1 A.

d)

12 A.

e)

none of the above

34.

The voltage across a 10-ohm resistor carrying a current of 5 A is

a)

20 V.

b)

10 V.

c)

5 V.

d)

more than 20 V.

e)

2 V.

35.

The value of a resistor that carries 2 A when connected to 10 V is

a)

5 ohms.

b)

more than 20 ohms.

c)

10 ohms.

d)

20 ohms.

e)

2 ohms.

36.

The purpose of the third prong on a common electric plug of an appliance is

a)

to handle three-phase electricity.

b)

to connect the appliance to zero ground potential.

c)

a substitute for a safety fuse.

d)

to provide an alternate live wire.

e)

all of the above

37.

If you plug a 110-V electric toaster into a 220-V outlet, current in the toaster will be about

a)

twice what it should be.

b)

more than twice what it should be.

c)

half what is should be.

d)

the same as if it were plugged into a 110-V outlet.

38.

The current through two identical light bulbs connected in series is 0.25 A. The voltage across both bulbs is 110 V. The resistance of a single light bulb is

a)

22 ohms.

b)

440 ohms.

c)

44 ohms.

d)

220 ohms.

e)

none of the above

39.

Compared to the amount of current that flows from a battery and into a circuit, the amount of current that returns to the battery is

a)

the same.

b)

less.

c)

greater.

d)

dependent on the internal resistance of the battery.

40.

A pair of 1-ohm resistors connected in series has a combined resistance of

a)

2 ohms.

b)

1/2 ohm.

c)

1 ohm.

d)

none of the above

41.

A pair of 1-ohm resistors connected in parallel has a combined resistance of

a)

1/2 ohm.

b)

1 ohm.

c)

2 ohms.

d)

none of the above

42.

The electric power of a lamp that carries 2 A at 120 V is

a)

240 W.

b)

60 W.

c)

2 W.

d)

1/6 W.

e)

20 W.

43.

What is the power rating of a device that draws 0.8 A when connected to 120 V?

a)

60 W

b)

15 W

c)

120 W

d)

96 W

e)

12 W

44.

What is the resistance of a 120-W incandescent lamp connected to a 120-V power supply?

a)

144 ohms

b)

60 ohms

c)

100 ohms

d)

1 ohm

e)

120 ohms

45.

If you break a bar magnet in half you'll

a)

have four magnets.

b)

have two magnets.

c)

destroy its magnetic properties.

d)

none of the above

46.

Compared with the huge force that attracts an iron tack to a strong magnet, the force that the tack exerts on the magnet is

a)

relatively small.

b)

equally huge.

c)

not enough information

47.

The ultimate source of all magnetism is

a)

moving electric charge.

b)

tiny domains of aligned atoms.

c)

ferromagnetic materials.

d)

tiny bits of iron.

48.

Every spinning electron is

a)

a tiny magnet.

b)

electrically charged.

c)

both of these

d)

none of the above

49.

Surrounding every moving electron is

a)

an electric field.

b)

a magnetic field.

c)

both of these

d)

neither of these

50.

Wood does not have magnetic properties because it contains no

a)

moving electrons.

b)

magnetic domains.

c)

iron or other metals.

d)

none of the above

51.

A magnet will become weaker if it is

a)

dropped on a hard surface.

b)

held in a hot flame.

c)

either

d)

neither

52.

When a bar magnet is broken in half, the strength of the four new poles relative to pole strength before breaking is

a)

somewhat more.

b)

half.

c)

less than half.

d)

the same.

53.

Magnetic field lines about a current-carrying wire

a)

extend radially from the wire.

b)

circle the wire in closed loops.

c)

both of these

d)

none of the above

54.

When a current-carrying wire is bent into a loop, its magnetic field inside the loop

a)

becomes concentrated.

b)

weakens.

c)

cancels.

d)

none of the above

55.

The lift experienced by Maglev trains is due to magnetic

a)

dipoles.

b)

repulsion.

c)

attraction.

56.

Maximum magnetic force occurs when electrons move

a)

in the same direction as the magnetic field.

b)

opposite to the magnetic field direction.

c)

at non-right angles to the magnetic field direction.

d)

perpendicular to the magnetic field direction.

e)

none of the above

57.

When an electron passes through the magnetic field of a horseshoe magnet, the electron's

a)

direction of motion is changed.

b)

speed is increased.

c)

both of these

d)

none of the above

58.

In which of these locations is cosmic ray intensity greatest?

a)

Singapore

b)

Toronto

c)

Mexico City

d)

all about the same

59.

Voltage can be induced in a wire by

a)

moving the wire near a magnet.

b)

changing the current in a nearby wire.

c)

moving a magnet near the wire.

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

60.

When a bar magnet is thrust into a coil of wire, the coil

a)

attracts the magnet as it enters.

b)

repels the magnet as it enters.

c)

both of these

d)

none of the above

61.

If you drop a bar magnet in a vertical copper pipe it will fall slowly because

a)

it induces a magnetic field in the pipe that resists motion of the magnet.

b)

of air resistance.

c)

the copper is a good conductor of both electricity and magnetism.

d)

of electron repulsion.

62.

Which of these statements is true?

a)

a battery produces ac and a generator produces dc

b)

a battery produces dc and a generator produces ac

c)

a battery and a generator produce dc

d)

a battery and a generator produce ac

63.

A topic that most underlies electrical studies and all of physics is

a)

the conservation of momentum.

b)

Newton's laws of motion.

c)

the conservation of energy.

64.

The rate at which a transformer transfers energy is called

a)

transformer efficiency.

b)

electromagnetic induction.

c)

power.

65.

Compared with the power input to an ideal transformer, the power output is

a)

less.

b)

greater.

c)

either greater or less.

d)

the same.

66.

The principal difference between a step-up and step-down transformer is

a)

different ratios of turns for each set of loops or coils.

b)

different geometries.

c)

step-up transformers can handle more current.

d)

none of the above

67.

The voltage across the input terminals of a transformer is 110 V. The primary coil has 50 loops and the secondary coil has 100 loops. The output is

a)

220 V.

b)

25 V.

c)

110 V.

d)

55 V.

e)

none of the above

68.

A certain transformer doubles input voltage. If the primary coil has 10 A of current, then the current in the secondary coil is

a)

10 A.

b)

2 A.

c)

25 A.

d)

5 A.

e)

none of the above

69.

A transformer for a laptop computer converts a 120-V input to a 24-V output. Compared with the number of turns on the primary coil, the secondary has

a)

5 times as many turns.

b)

the same number of turns.

c)

1/5 as many turns.

d)

none of the above

70.

Electric and magnetic fields combine to produce

a)

sound.

b)

light.

c)

both of these

d)

none of the above

71.

When we consider how frequently an oscillating system vibrates we're talking about

a)

wavelength.

b)

amplitude.

c)

frequency.

d)

period.

72.

When we consider the time for an oscillating system to make a vibration we're talking about

a)

amplitude.

b)

period.

c)

wavelength.

d)

frequency.

73.

When we consider the distance a pendulum swings to and fro we're talking about the pendulum's

a)

period.

b)

amplitude.

c)

frequency.

d)

wavelength.

74.

If you double the frequency of a vibrating object, its period

a)

is halved.

b)

doubles.

c)

is one-quarter.

75.

The period of the second hand on a clock is

a)

3600 s.

b)

12 h.

c)

1 s.

d)

60 s.

e)

1/60 s.

76.

What moves from place to place in wave motion is

a)

momentum.

b)

energy.

c)

pressure.

d)

matter.

77.

A wave oscillates up and down twice in 1 s. If the wave travels an average distance of 6 m in 1 s, its wavelength is

a)

6 m.

b)

0.5 m.

c)

1 m.

d)

3 m.

e)

2 m.

78.

A floating leaf oscillates up and down twice in 1 s as a water wave of wavelength 10 m passes by. What is the wave's speed?

a)

more than 40 m/s

b)

2 m/s

c)

40 m/s

d)

20 m/s

e)

10 m/s

79.

A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose crests are 40 m apart and with wave speed 10 m/s. These waves reach the boat once every

a)

400 s.

b)

30 s.

c)

0.25 s.

d)

4 s.

80.

The compressions and rarefactions in a longitudinal wave travel in

a)

opposite directions.

b)

the same direction.

c)

neither of these

81.

Which of the following is not a transverse wave?

a)

sound

b)

radio

c)

light

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

82.

Compressions and rarefactions are characteristic of

a)

longitudinal waves.

b)

transverse waves.

c)

both of these

d)

none of the above

83.

Sound travels faster when the air is

a)

warm.

b)

cold.

c)

neither of these

84.

When sound travels faster higher in the air than it does closer to the ground, sound bends

a)

upward.

b)

downward.

c)

neither of these

85.

A bass fiddle is louder than a harp because of its

a)

lower pitch.

b)

sounding board.

c)

thicker strings.

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

86.

Wave interference occurs for waves of

a)

water.

b)

sound.

c)

light.

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

87.

Standing waves of sound are employed in a

a)

flute.

b)

clarinet.

c)

guitar.

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

88.

The number of nodes in a standing wave of two wavelengths, not including the endpoints, is

a)

2.

b)

6.

c)

4.

d)

3.

e)

5.

89.

Identical waves superimposed out of phase produce a wave of decreased

a)

frequency.

b)

wavelength.

c)

amplitude.

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

90.

Two tuning forks produce sounds of wavelengths 3.4 m and 3.3 m. Assuming the speed of sound is 340 m/s, the beat frequency produced is

a)

4.0 Hz.

b)

0.1 Hz.

c)

1.0 Hz.

d)

3.0 Hz.

e)

2.0 Hz.

91.

Two tuning forks produce sounds of wavelengths 3.4 m and 3.3 m. Assuming the speed of sound is 340 m/s, the beat frequency produced is

a)

2.0 Hz.

b)

0.1 Hz.

c)

3.0 Hz.

d)

4.0 Hz.

e)

1.0 Hz.

92.

Which doesn't belong to the same family?

a)

infrasonic waves

b)

ultrasonic waves

c)

shock waves

d)

longitudinal waves

e)

radio waves

93.

Compared to noise, musical sounds commonly have

a)

periodic tones.

b)

musical notes.

c)

both of these

d)

neither of these

94.

A shock wave is produced when the speed of an object

a)

exceeds the speed of sound in air.

b)

greatly increases in amplitude.

c)

matches the speed of sound in air.

d)

none of the above

95.

Musical tones are characterized by

a)

partial tones

b)

quality.

c)

harmonics.

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above