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**ACR-101 Final Review

Total questions: 176

Worksheet time: 2hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

At standard conditions on the Celsius scale, water will boil at ____.

a)

212°C

b)

32°C

c)

100°C

d)

0°C

2.

The laws of thermodynamics can help us to understand what heat is all about.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

PSIG indicates ____.

a)

pounds per square inch gauge pressure

b)

pounds per square inch gravity pressure

c)

pounds per square inch of gravity

d)

pounds per square inch of pressure absolute

4.

The Fahrenheit scale is used in the English measurement system by the United States.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

The temperature on the Celsius scale where all molecular activity stops is ____.

a)

-293°C

b)

-273°C

c)

-459.6°C

d)

-460°C

6.

Atmospheric pressure in inches of mercury (in. Hg) decreases

_______ in. per 1000 feet increase in elevation.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

7.

Earth’s atmosphere exerts a weight or pressure of

_____ psi at sea level.

a)

14.696

b)

15

c)

15.696

d)

14

8.

A Bourdon tube is often found in a(n) ____.

a)

mercury thermometer

b)

mercury barometer

c)

pressure gauge

d)

aneroid barometer

9.

The standard atmospheric pressure at sea level is ____.

a)

29.92 in. Hg

b)

29.83 in. Hg

c)

29.71 in. Hg

d)

29.60 in. Hg

10.

How many Btus are required to change five pounds of ice at 20°F to steam at 220°F?

a)

6,520 Btu

b)

1,304 Btu

c)

2,608 Btu

d)

3,912 Btu

11.

Raising the vapor temperature above the boiling point is called

a)

Superheating

b)

Subcooling

c)

Supercooling

d)

Subheating

12.

A gauge that reads pressures above and below atmospheric pressure is known as

_________ gauge.

a)

Compound

b)

Analog

c)

Digital

d)

Micrometer

13.

The difference in the volume of two substances will determine the heat transfer rate between the substances.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Temperature can be thought of as ____.

a)

the weight of the total mass of the material

b)

a description of the level of heat

c)

the density of the material

d)

the amount of heat in a material

15.

The Celsius equivalent of 80°F is ____

a)

26.7°C

b)

27.5°C

c)

25.5°C

d)

26.3°C

16.

The Celsius absolute scale is called the

a)

Kelvin

b)

Fahrenheit

c)

Rankine

d)

Réaumur

17.

Which of the following represents a different temperature than the other three?

a)

59°F

b)

475°K

c)

15°C

d)

519°R

18.

Heat that changes the temperature of a substance is called

_________ heat.

a)

sensible

b)

latent

c)

specific

d)

absolute

19.

PSIA at sea level under standard conditions is

a)

14.696

b)

14

c)

15.696

d)

15

20.

Match the pressures in psia to the correct equivalent. (Use 15 as the conversion between psia and psig.)

a)

0 psia

1.

30 in. Hg vacuum

b)

10 psia

2.

10 in. Hg vacuum

c)

8 psia

3.

14 in. Hg vacuum

d)

20 psia

4.

5 psig

e)

25 psia

5.

10 psig

21.

Pure water boils at a temperature of 212°F at which of the following standard conditions?

a)

13.696 psia

b)

12.696 psia

c)

14.696 psia

d)

15.696 psia

22.

The difference in the level of heat between two substances will determine the heat transfer rate between the substances.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

As the temperature of a material increases, the molecules in the material ____.

a)

stop moving

b)

slow down

c)

travel in more of a parallel direction

d)

travel faster

24.

The Fahrenheit absolute scale is called the

______ scale.

a)

Rankine

b)

Kelvin

c)

Réaumur

d)

Celsius

25.

Water boils at 212°C.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Match the temperature in degrees Fahrenheit with the correct equivalent Celsius temperature.

a)

176°F

1.

80°C

b)

95°F

2.

35°C

c)

14°F

3.

-10°C

d)

122°F

4.

50°C

e)

59°F

5.

15°C

27.

In heat _____ or hidden heat, heat is known to be added, but no temperature rise is noticed.

a)

latent

b)

sensible

c)

absolute

d)

no answer is correct

28.

Of the following choices, the warmest temperature is ____.

a)

303°K

b)

501°R

c)

77°F

d)

20°C

29.

Water at 0°F has no heat energy or molecular activity.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Temperature difference does not affect heat transfer rate.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

When water at 212°F boils, it is only absorbing latent heat.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

How many Btus must be removed from one pound of water at 200°F for it to end up as ice at 30°F?

a)

313 Btu

b)

526 Btu

c)

828 Btu

d)

144 Btu

33.

Both sensible heat and latent heat transfers can be read with a thermometer.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

In order for water at 60°F to boil, it must absorb both sensible and latent heat.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

The amount of heat needed to change the temperature of a substance will vary with the type of substance. This heat quality is called the ____ of the substance.

a)

specific heat

b)

latent heat

c)

relative heat

d)

sensible heat

36.

Match the temperature in degrees Celsius with the correct equivalent Fahrenheit temperature.

a)

10°C

1.

50°F

b)

100°C

2.

212°F

c)

-45°C

3.

-49°F

d)

25°C

4.

77°F

e)

0°C

5.

32°F

37.

How many Btus are required to change one pound of ice at 20°F to steam at 220°F?

a)

6,520 Btu

b)

3,912 Btu

c)

1,304 Btu

d)

2,608 Btu

38.

The two common temperature scales used by air conditioning and refrigeration technicians are called

_______ and _______ .

a)

Fahrenheit, Kelvin

b)

Fahrenheit, Celsius

c)

Celsius, Rankine

d)

Kelvin, Rankine

39.

The temperature on the Fahrenheit scale where all molecular biology activity stops is ____.

a)

-462.95°F

b)

-460°F

c)

-0°F

d)

-450°F

40.

A solid material exerts a pressure or force ____.

a)

downward only

b)

outward and downward

c)

in all directions

d)

outward only

41.

A liquid material exerts a pressure or force ____.

a)

outward and downward

b)

outward only

c)

in all directions

d)

downward only

42.

A vapor material exerts a pressure or force ____.

a)

outward only

b)

in all directions

c)

downward only

d)

outward and downward

43.

If the temperature remains constant and the volume that a gas occupies increases, the pressure will ____.

a)

increase

b)

remain the same

c)

cannot be determined from the information given

d)

decrease

44.

The volume of gas varies inversely with the absolute pressure, provided the temperature remains constant. This is called ____.

a)

Boyle's Law

b)

Tom's Law

c)

Charles' Law

d)

Dalton's Law

45.

At a constant pressure, the volume of a gas varies as to the absolute temperature and at a constant volume the pressure of the gas varies directly with the absolute temperature. This is known as ____.

a)

Charles' Law

b)

Boyle's Law

c)

Tom's Law

d)

Dalton's Law

46.

The total pressure of a confined mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures of each of the gases in the mixture. This is known as ____.

a)

Boyle's Law

b)

Dalton's Law

c)

Tom's Law

d)

Charles' Law

47.

The unit used to measure electrical power is the ____.

a)

ohm

b)

ampere

c)

volt

d)

watt

48.

One watt of electrical energy is equal to ____.

a)

3.413 Btu/h

b)

3.3146 Btu/h

c)

3.1416 Btu/h

d)

3.3416 Btu/h

49.

How many watts of electrical power are equal to 1 horsepower?

a)

746

b)

33000.

c)

15000.

d)

660.

50.

Specific volume is the term used to indicate the space a weight of gas will occupy.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

As heat is applied to a closed container containing a gas, the pressure inside the container will decrease.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

An example of a fossil fuel is hydrogen.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

A law of conservation of energy states that energy is neither created nor destroyed.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Heat is a form of energy because of the motion of molecules.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

What happens when room temperature soda is poured into a glass of ice?

a)

The ice melts because the soda is colder than the ice.

b)

The ice gets colder.

c)

The ice melts because it is absorbing heat from the soda.

d)

The ice melts because it is giving up the "cold" to the soda.

56.

Ice melts in iceboxes because _____.

a)

heat enters when the door is opened

b)

heat flows through the insulated walls

c)

All answers are correct

d)

heat enters when warm food is placed in the icebox.

57.

High temperature refrigeration is that produced by _____.

a)

heat from a furnace

b)

the freezer section of a refrigerator

c)

an air-conditioning system

d)

the vegetable cooling system of a refrigerator

58.

Refrigeration can be described as:

a)

the process of introducing heat to a location where it is not wanted

b)

the process of removing heat from a place where it is not wanted to a place where it makes little or no difference

c)

the process of making products cold

d)

None of the above.

59.

The temperature inside the refrigerator fresh food section should be about:

a)

25°F

b)

30°F

c)

35°F

d)

40°F

60.

The relationship correlates the vapor pressure and the boiling point of water and is the basis for controlling the cooling system's temperature.

a)

temperature/pressure

b)

boiling/pressure

c)

boiling/vapor

d)

temperature/vapor

61.

The ___ are used to change the vapor to a liquid and the liquid form back into a vapor, the refrigeration cycle.

a)

condenser and evaporator

b)

condenser and compressor

c)

expansion device and evaporator

d)

compressor and expansion device

62.

The evaporator in a refrigeration system ___ .

a)

reduces the boiling point of the refrigerant

b)

absorbs heat from the product to be cooled

c)

condenses the refrigerant

d)

compresses the refrigerant vapor

63.

Reciprocating compressor have:

a)

a large fan compressor component

b)

a rotor to compress the refrigerant

c)

two scrolls that mesh together

d)

a piston and cylinder

64.

The condenser ___.

a)

All of the above.

b)

controls the refrigerant flow throughout the system

c)

rejects the heat from the refrigerant

d)

adds superheat to the refrigerant

65.

When a refrigerant enters the compressor, it is a ___, and when it leaves the compressor, it is a ___.

a)

low pressure low temperature superheated vapor, low pressure low temperature subcooled vapor

b)

low pressure low temperature subcooled liquid, high pressure high temperature superheated vapor

c)

high pressure superheated vapor, low pressure superheated vapor

d)

low pressure low temperature superheated vapor, high pressure high temperature superheated vapor

66.

The evaporator in a refrigeration system must be colder than the refrigerated space in order to absorb heat.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

The boiling point of a refrigerant should be low enough at atmospheric pressure to keep the system pressure above 0 psig when operating at low temperatures.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

The compressor in a refrigeration system:

a)

Both a and b.

b)

None of the above.

c)

raises the boiling point of the refrigerant

d)

pumps the refrigerant throughout the system

69.

Good ventilation is important when working around refrigeration equipment because modern refrigerants:

a)

are toxic and can poison you

b)

Both a and c.

c)

have an unpleasant odor

d)

are heavier than air and may displace the oxygen around you

70.

The only location where the refrigerant vapor is superheated is in the evaporator.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Only liquid refrigerant should enter the metering device.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The discharge gas from the compressor is a high pressure, high temperature, superheated vapor.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

The halide leak detector should be used in well ventilated areas as the resulting blue or green flame indicates that phosgene gas is being produced.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

An expansion valve is the pressure reducing device that controls the flow of liquid refrigerant into the evaporator.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Which of the following statements is correct when referring to large refrigerant or nitrogen tanks?

a)

All are correct.

b)

Safety goggles or glasses must be worn when moving the tank.

c)

Large tanks should not be carried; they should be secured to an approved cart.

d)

The protective cap must be on when the tank is not in use.

76.

An example of a pressure vessel is ___

a)

the compressor in a refrigeration unit

b)

a cylinder containing refrigerant

c)

a small ship containing refrigerant cylinders

d)

a portable dolly

77.

A fusible plug is a metal fitting that has a hole drilled through it and the hole is filled with ___

a)

a metal alloy that will burn when overheated

b)

copper fused with brass

c)

plastic

d)

material with a low melting point

78.

When transferring refrigerants from a cylinder to a refrigeration system or any other container, you should always wear ___

a)

heavy protective clothing

b)

rubber gloves

c)

industrial steel-toed shoes and an insulated cap

d)

goggles with side shields and gloves

79.

When it is necessary to perform electrical work in an area that has a damp or wet floor, which of the following can be done to minimize the chance of electrical shock?

a)

Place a rubber mat on the floor.

b)

All are correct

c)

Wear insulated boots and gloves.

d)

Use a wooden ladder.

80.

Electrical power should always be shut off at the ___ or entrance panel and locked out in an approved manner when installing equipment.

a)
distribution
b)

local

c)

equipment

d)

remote

81.

A double insulated drill ___

a)

has rechargeable batteries

b)

has two ground wires to insure proper grounding

c)

is used with a three- to two-prong adapter

d)

generally has a plastic case with the electrical connections and motor insulated within the tool

82.

In electrical circuits, the ___ wire protects the operator.

a)

neutral

b)

control

c)

live

d)

grounding

83.

Fires that involve ordinary materials such as paper, cardboard, and wood are classified as Type ______ fires.

a)

B

b)

C

c)

D

d)

A

84.

Fires that involve ordinary materials such as oil and gas are classified as Type ______ fires.

a)

B

b)

A

c)

D

d)

C

85.

Fires that involve electrical equipment are classified as Type ______ fires.

a)

C

b)

D

c)

B

d)

A

86.

Fire extinguishers that can be used on any type of fire, A, B, or C, generally contain a ______ to extinguish the fire.

a)

nitrogen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

dry chemical powder

d)

water

87.

When working in a machine room, safety glasses should not be worn because they can fog up and impede your eyesight.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

It is possible that your hand would suffer frostbite if it comes in contact with liquid R-22 when accidentally releasing refrigerant into the atmosphere (an illegal procedure).

a)

True

b)

False

89.

As long as the torch is kept moving below the level of the liquid refrigerant in the cylinder so as not to create a hotspot, it is OK to heat the cylinder in this manner.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

To insure proper operation of an oxygen cylinder regulator, make sure no oil residue is present.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Aluminum ladders are safe to use around electrical equipment as long as they have insulation pads on the bottom of the rungs.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

A necessary safety practice for a technician is to lockout the panel with a padlock and keep the key with you.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

If you are a refrigeration technician, a warm coat and gloves should be in your truck, even in the middle of the summer.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Punch, lever, and die are all types of _________.

a)

swaging tools

b)

threading tools

c)

riveting tools

d)

flaring tools

95.

A tap is used to cut external threads and a die is used to cut internal threads.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Tubing benders should be used for bending _________.

a)

soft and hard copper

b)

soft copper and aluminum

c)

aluminum and brass

d)

steel and soft copper

97.

The tool used to remove air and noncondenseable gases from a refrigeration system is __________.

a)

vacuum pump

b)

charging scale

c)

recovery machine

d)

electronic thermistor

98.

A ___________ is used to change pins in a charged system or to evacuate a system faster.

a)

Schrader core removal tool

b)

charging scale

c)

low loss fitting

d)

micron gauge

99.

A megohmmeter is used to test ______________.

a)

continuity in switches

b)

very high resistances

c)

voltage in a live circuit

d)

compressor current

100.

A test instrument that can measure things such as voltage, current, resistance, and microamps is called a ____________.

a)

megohmmeter

b)

multimeter

c)

ohmmeter

d)

ammeter

101.

A combustion analyzer can measure levels of _________ in flue gas.

a)

CO2, C3H8, and CO

b)

O2, CH4, O3, and CO

c)

O2, CO, NOx, and SO2

d)

CO, CH4, and O3

102.

A digital vacuum gauge measures a vacuum in microns and may have other scales as well.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

An electronic leak detector can be used to locate leaks in a system that is charged with _____________, depending on the model.

a)

CFCs, HCFCs, or HFCs

b)

CFCs only

c)

HFCs only

d)

HCFCs only

104.

Two types of screwdriver bits are Toggle and Torx.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

A wiring and crimping tool is used to

a)

crimp tubing.

b)

assemble tubing.

c)

cut and strip wire.

d)

install wire staples.

106.

Socket with ratchet handle, open end, box end, combination, adjustable, and open end are all types of:

a)

Wrenches

b)

Set screw tips

c)

Fasteners

d)

Screwdrivers

107.

A flaring tool is used to

a)

cut copper tubing.

b)

flare a sheet metal joint.

c)

put a flare on the end of copper tubing.

d)

provide a yoke for bending brazing filler metal.

108.

Two types of refrigerant leak detectors are ultrasonic and electronic.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

A vacuum pump is used to

a)

remove contaminants from a refrigeration system.

b)

vacuum dust before installing the refrigeration system compressor.

c)

vacuum the area before using an air-acetylene unit.

d)

prepare an area for taking a temperature reading.

110.

An air-acetylene kit is used for leak checking refrigerant lines.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

A type of fastener used to provide secure anchoring in building block, plaster over lath, and hollow tiles is a:

a)

toggle bolt

b)

threaded rod

c)

machine screw

d)

set screw

112.

Wood screws generally have:

a)

a flat head

b)

a round head

c)

an oval head

d)

any of the above

113.

______ is used to secure objects to a shaft.

a)

a lag shield anchor

b)

pipe clamp

c)

cotter pin

d)

powder-actuated tool (PAT)

114.

A hardened steel wire bent into a "U" with an angled point on both ends that is driven into wood is called a:

a)

pipe hook

b)

hairpin

c)

hose clamp

d)

retaining ring

115.

Stranded wire should not be directly connected under a screw terminal because the strands of wire may separate and cause a poor connection.

a)

True

b)

False

116.

Ring tongue, spade tongue, pigtail, and hook tongue are all types of _______.

a)

solderless terminals

b)

set screws

c)

hose clamps

d)

machine screws

117.

Fasteners that are used to hold a component either onto a shaft or inside of some type of housing and can be either internal or external are called _______.

a)

hose clamps

b)

powder loads

c)

snap-rings

d)

pipe straps

118.

Screw-on wire connectors are also referred to as solderless terminals and are used to join two or more wires.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

Threaded rod can be attached to steel I-beams using a _______.

a)

pipe strap

b)

hose clamp

c)

toggle bolt

d)

beam clamp

120.

Flat, round, pan, fillister, and oval are all types of _______.

a)

tapping screws

b)

set screws

c)

machine screws

d)

concrete screws

121.

For fastening two pieces of rough lumber together, the nail used would be a _______.

a)

common nail

b)

roofing nail

c)

masonry nail

d)

finishing nail

122.

For recessing the nail for filling and finishing the wood surface, the nail used would be a ____.

a)

finishing nail

b)

roofing nail

c)

common nail

d)

masonry nail

123.

For fastening a pipe strap to a cement wall, the nail used would be a ____.

a)

roofing nail

b)

common nail

c)

finishing nail

d)

masonry nail

124.

To fasten a duct hanger strap to a floor joist, the nail used would be a ____.

a)

roofing nail

b)

common nail

c)

finishing nail

d)

masonry nail

125.

An outward clinch tacker is used to ____.

a)

install a pipe rivet

b)

bend wire on a pipe hook

c)

spread the ends of a staple outward

d)

drive a roofing nail

126.

Pins or blind rivets are assembled on a pin often called a(n) ____.

a)

clinch

b)

anchor

c)

mandrel

d)

nozzle

127.

The hole drilled in sheet metal for a tapping screw should be the approximate size of the ____.

a)

thread root diameter

b)

thread diameter

c)

head diameter

d)

shank diameter

128.

In the machine screw dimension "5/16 - 18 UNC-2," the 5/16 indicates the ____.

a)

outside thread diameter

b)

number of threads

c)

head diameter

d)

length

129.

In the tapping screw dimension "6-20 x 1/2 type AB, slotted hex," the term 20 indicates the ____.

a)

number of threads per inch

b)

length

c)

head diameter

d)

thread diameter

130.

To secure a flexible duct onto a duct collar, the best fastener would be a(n) ____.

a)

nylon strap

b)

iron wire

c)

sheet metal screw

d)

duct tape

131.

Nails are sometimes coated with zinc to protect them from corrosion.

a)

True

b)

False

132.

A pin rivet must be installed in a properly sized, pre-drilled hole.

a)

True

b)

False

133.

A wall anchor is a one-time fastener.

a)

True

b)

False

134.

A toggle bolt is a one-time fastener.

a)

True

b)

False

135.

A pipe strap is a very versatile fastener as one size fits all sizes of pipe.

a)

True

b)

False

136.

Perforated strap is a very versatile fastener as it can be used on all sizes of pipe.

a)

True

b)

False

137.

Changing an instrument's output or reading to correspond to a standard reading is called ________.

a)

referencing

b)

balancing

c)

detection

d)

calibration

138.

Temperature-measuring instruments measure the temperature of _________.

a)

vapors only

b)

vapors and solids only

c)

vapors, solids, and liquids

d)

solids and liquids only

139.

For an accurate reading, the thermometer must be __________.

a)

exposed to ambient air conditions for a specified period of time before use

b)

calibrated before every use

c)

checked against a pressure/temperature chart for accuracy

d)

in contact with the medium long enough for the sensor to become the same temperature as the medium being tested

140.

Thermometer accuracy is more important in lower temperature ranges where small temperature differences can translate into larger percentage errors.

a)

True

b)

False

141.

______________ can be used as reference to check the accuracy of a gauge manifold.

a)

Atmospheric pressure at sea level

b)

Crushed ice and water

c)

A tank of virgin refrigerant and a temperature/pressure chart

d)

A calibrated thermometer

142.

When checking an ohmmeter for accuracy, resistors with a _______% tolerance are usually acceptable for the needs of an HVAC/R technician.

a)

6 to 8

b)

1

c)

10 to 15

d)

2 to 5

143.

Ohm's Law will hold for DC-powered circuits that are used to operate inductive loads.

a)

True

b)

False

144.

The red fluid used with some flue-gas analysis instruments is _____________.

a)

sodium chloride

b)

potassium hydroxide

c)

mercury

d)

sodium hydroxide

145.

The two most common flue-gas analysis kits are the ___________ kits.

a)

electronic and combustion

b)

draft and temperature

c)

draft and electronic

d)

electronic and wet

146.

When checking the accuracy of a pressure-measuring instrument, it must be checked both above and below atmospheric pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

147.

All instruments can be calibrated

a)

True

b)

False

148.

Common reference points used to check the accuracy of temperature-measuring instruments are boiling water (212°), water and crushed ice (32°), and:


a)

R-22 at 70 psig (41°)

b)

Body temperature (98.6°)

c)

Tap water (40° - 60°)

d)

R-12 at atmospheric pressure (-22°)

149.

To check the temperature leads of an electronic thermometer for low temperatures, they should be stirred in a container of crushed ice, water, and a tablespoon of salt.

a)

True

b)

False

150.

Temperature-measuring instruments may be designed to measure the temperature of solids, liquids, and vapors.

a)

True

b)

False

151.

Pressure test instruments measure pressures only above atmospheric pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

152.

A pressure gauge can be checked by connecting it to a cylinder of refrigerant with a known temperature and comparing the pressure reading with that on a temperature/pressure relationship chart.

a)

True

b)

False

153.

What type of charge does an electron have?

a)

Negative.

b)

Positive.

c)

Negative-positive.

d)

Neutral.

154.

If five electrons combine with three protons, the net charge will be ____.

a)

negative

b)

neutral

c)

zero

d)

positive

155.

What part of an atom moves from one atom to another?

a)

Electron.

b)

Proton.

c)

Molecule.

d)

Neutron.

156.

Typical insulators are ____.

a)

aluminum, nickel, magnesium

b)

glass, rubber, plastic

c)

steel, bronze, brass

d)

copper, silver, gold

157.

The ampere is ____.

a)

the unit of measure for resistance

b)

the unit of measure for capacitance

c)

a measure of the quantity of electrons flowing past a point in the electrical circuit in a given time

d)

the difference in potential between two charges

158.

If two light bulbs are wired in series and one bulb burns out, the other bulb will ____.

a)

go out

b)

stay on, but it will be dimmer

c)

stay on

d)

stay on, but it will be brighter

159.

What happens to the current in a circuit if the resistance is increased?

a)

This cannot be determined.

b)

The current decreases.

c)

The current remains the same.

d)

The current increases.

160.

An element in an electric heating unit is connected to a 232-V power supply. The current flow through the element is 19 A. What is the resistance of the element?

a)
12.2 Ω
b)

14 Ω

c)

10 Ω

d)

8 Ω

161.

As loads are added in a parallel circuit, the total resistance of the circuit _____.

a)

will increase

b)

will remain the same

c)

will decrease

d)

cannot be determined

162.

To find the watts of electrical power in an electrical circuit, you multiply _____ together.

a)

ohms and amperes

b)

volts and amperes

c)

volts, amperes, and ohms

d)

ohms and volts

163.

If a conductor carrying electrical current is formed into a coil, the magnetic field around the wire will _____.

a)

remain the same

b)

increase

c)

cancel out

d)

decrease

164.

Ohmmeters are to be used only on circuits that are de-energized.

a)

True

b)

False

165.

In a circuit with two or more resistances in series, the total resistance in the circuit is the sum of the resistances.

a)

True

b)

False

166.

In a circuit with two or more resistances in parallel, is the total resistance in the circuit the sum of the resistances?

a)

True

b)

False

167.

When calculating the total resistance of a parallel circuit, will the result always be lower than the lowest resistance?

a)

True

b)

False

168.

Is one kilowatt of electrical energy equal to 1,000,000 watts?

a)

True

b)

False

169.

If a conductor carrying electrical current is formed into a coil, will the strength of the magnetic field generated by the wire increase?

a)

True

b)

False

170.

Is the unit of measurement for the charge a capacitor can store called a Joule?

a)

True

b)

False

171.

As the diameter of a wire increases, does its resistance also increase?

a)

True

b)

False

172.

Are copper wire sizes measured in circular mils?

a)

True

b)

False

173.

Label the refrigeration cycle:

174.

Label the refrigeration cycle:

175.

Where Does Superheat Occur

a)

Condenser

b)

Evaporator

c)

Metering Device

d)

Compressor

176.

Where Does Subcool occur

a)

Condenser

b)

Evaporator

c)

Metering Device

d)

Compressor