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Anne Year 10 Chemistry exam quiz

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How would you describe the movement of particles in a solid?

a)

Stationary

b)

Vibrate around a fixed position

c)

Move quickly in random directions

d)

Able to flow

2.

How would you describe the movement of particles in a gas?

a)

Move randomly in all directions

b)

Stationary

c)

Vibrate around a fixed position

d)

Can flow

3.

How would you describe the motion of particles in a liquid?

a)

Stationary

b)

Vibrate around a fixed postion

c)

Able to flow and move over one another

d)

Moves quickly in random directions

4.

Which of these particle diagrams represents a solid?

a)
b)
c)
5.

Which of these particle diagrams represents a liquid?

a)
b)
c)
6.

Which of these particle diagrams represents a gas?

a)
b)
c)
7.
Particles (molecules) in a ______________________ have more energy than the other states of matter.
a)
gas
b)
solid
c)
liquid
8.
What term describes a solid changing to a gas?
a)
Deposition
b)
Sublimation
c)
Evaporation
d)
Freezing
9.

Definite shape and definite volume

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

10.

Has a definite volume but not a definite shape

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

11.

The state of matter that has no definite size or shape is

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

12.

In which state of matter are the particles farthest away from each other

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

Can't tell

13.

The temperature at which a solid becomes a liquid is called it's ______?

a)

boiling point

b)

melting point

c)

condensation

d)

sublimation

14.

Which is NOT a part of the kinetic theory?

a)

everything is made of tiny particles

b)

when particles collide with something, they exert a force

c)

the particles in a substance are always moving

d)

a substances melting point is the same as it's freezing point

15.
A substance that contains only one type of atom is a(n)
a)
compound
b)
element
c)

mixture

16.
Which type(s) of substances are considered pure substances?
a)
Elements only
b)
Compounds only
c)
Mixtures only
d)
Elements and compounds
17.
Which type of substance cannot be broken down into simpler substances?
a)
Element
b)
Compound
c)
Mixture
18.
Which of the following best describes a compound?
a)
A pure substance made up of one type of atom.
b)
A pure substance made up of two or more atoms chemically combined.
c)
A substance made up of two or more pure substances physically combined. 
d)
A substance made up of three atoms.
19.
a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Mixture

20.
a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Mixture

21.
a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Mixture

22.
a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Mixture

23.
a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Mixture

24.
a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Mixture

25.
a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Mixture

26.
a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Mixture

27.
a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Mixture

28.

The nucleus of an atom

a)

is positively charged

b)

is negatively charged

c)

has no charged particles

d)

has both positively and negatively charged particles

29.

Electrons are particles which

a)

have a positive charge

b)

have a negative charge

c)

have no charge

d)

can have either a positive or a negative charge

30.

An atom is neutral because

a)

the positive charge of the nucleus is equal to the sum of the negative charges of the electrons

b)

the negative charge of the nucleus is equal to the sum of the positive charges of the electrons

c)

it does not contain any charged particles

31.

What two particles are found in the nucleus?

a)

proton and neutron

b)

neutron and electron

c)

proton and electron

32.

Which particle is neutral?

a)

neutron

b)

proton

c)

electron

33.

if carbon has 12 protons, how many electrons does it have?

a)

6

b)

12

c)

11

d)

none

34.

Which particle has a relative mass of 1 but no charge?

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

d)

Megatron

35.

What is the charge on an electron?

a)

+1

b)

0

c)

-1

d)

-2

36.

What is the atomic number?

a)

Number of protons

b)

Number of electrons

c)

Number of neutrons

37.

What is the relative mass of an electron?

a)

1

b)

-1

c)

1/2000

38.

If the atomic number is 7 and the mass number 17 how many protons does the atom have?

a)

17

b)

7

c)

10

d)

0

39.

The mass number is the number of what?

a)

Atoms

b)

Protons

c)

Protons + Neutrons

d)

Neutrons + Electrons

40.

How do find the number of neutrons?

a)

Atomic number

b)

Mass number

c)

Mass number - Atomic number

d)

Atomic number - Mass number

41.

What sub-atomic particle is labelled A?

a)

Neutron

b)

Electron

c)

Ion

d)

Atom

42.

What sub-atomic particle is labelled B?

a)

Neutron

b)

Electron

c)

Ion

d)

Atom

43.

How many neutrons does a lithium atom have?

a)

7

b)

3

c)

4

d)

10

44.

What is the relative atomic mass of lithium?

a)

7

b)

3

c)

4

d)

10

45.

What is the atomic number of lithium?

a)

7

b)

3

c)

4

d)

10

46.

How many neutrons are in magnesium?

a)

12

b)

24

c)

25

d)

36

47.

The mass number is always larger than the atomic number (exept for Hydrogen).

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

48.

The Periodic Table is organized by increasing

a)

charges

b)

atomic number

c)

mass number

d)

electronegativity

49.

The horizontal rows of the Periodic Table are called ______________.

a)

Periods

b)

Groups

c)

Families

d)

Halogens

50.

Metals are found on the ______________ side of the periodic table.

a)

nonmetals

b)

left

c)

right

d)

metals

51.

There are two primary isotopes found in any sample of copper: copper-63 and copper-65. The isotope 65Cu composes 69.2% of the sample and 63Cu comprises the other 30.8%. Based on this data, what is the atomic mass of copper?

a)

29 amu

b)

63.546 amu

c)

64.4 amu

d)

63.6 amu

52.

Which diagram represents the electronic structure for Sodium?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

53.

What will be the electronic configuration of boron.

Hint: it is in period 2 and group 3.

a)

2, 8

b)

2, 3

c)

3, 2

d)

3, 3

54.

An atom that gains or loses an electron becomes

a)

an isotope

b)

a new element

c)

an ion

d)

a molecule

55.

An atom that gains or loses an electron becomes

a)

an isotope

b)

a new element

c)

an ion

d)

a molecule

56.

Ionic bonds happen when valence electrons are

a)

shared

b)

too heavy

c)

transferred

57.

Valence electrons are

a)

neutral (no charge)

b)

found in the outer most energy level of the atom

c)

equal to the number of protons

58.

Which type of bond occurs between non metals?

a)

covalent bonds

b)

ionic bonds

c)

metallic bonds

d)

all types of bonds

59.

How many valence electrons does Oxygen have?

a)

0

b)

16

c)

6

d)

8

60.

How many different elements are in the C6H12O6

a)

3

b)

6

c)

12

d)

24

61.

How many total atoms are in C6H1206

a)

3

b)

6

c)

12

d)

24

62.

What type of bond forms CaF2

a)

covalent bond

b)

ionic bond

c)

metallic bond

d)

all answers are correct

63.

What is the charge of an aluminum ion that has 13 protons and 10 electrons?

a)

3+

b)

3 -

c)

no charge

64.

Is this equation balanced? C3H8 + 5O2 = 4H2O + 3CO2

a)

yes

b)

no

65.

How many oxygen atoms on each side of C3H8 + 5O2 = 4H2O + 3CO2

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

10

66.

After a chemical reaction occurs, atoms are not created nor destroyed,

a)

just rearranged into a new substance

b)

just changed into different elements

c)

just turned into unstable elements

67.

Most elements bond to create compounds because

a)

their outer electron level is full

b)

they are unstable

c)

they are positively charged

68.

Compounds that share specific valence electrons are formed by

a)

covalent bonds

b)

ionic bonds

c)

metallic bonds

d)

all types of bonds

69.
Name this compound:   MgS
a)
Sulfur Magnesium
b)
Magnesium Sulfate
c)
Magnesium Sulfur
d)
Magnesium Sulfide
70.
Predict the bond that will form between Be and F.
a)
Ionic
b)
Covalent
71.
What is the number of valence electrons for Beryillum?
a)
1
b)
4
c)
2
d)
7
72.
Predict the bond that will form between Se and Cl
a)
Ionic
b)
Covalent
73.
Why do Hydrogen and Helium only need two valence electrons?
a)
The first electron shell can only hold two electrons.
b)
They are both metals.
c)
They both begin with H.
d)
They are both gases.
74.
Write the formula when Al and O bond?
a)
Al3O2
b)
AlO
c)
Al2O3
d)
O2Al3
75.
Which of these is NOT an alloy?
a)
bronze
b)
copper
c)
brass
d)
stainless steel
76.

Which of the following is an alloy?

a)

stainless steel

b)

chromium

c)

nickel

d)

lead

77.

Which statement best described the structure of a metal?

a)

A lattice of positive metal atoms surrounded by delocalised electrons.

b)

A lattice of positive metal ions surrounded by delocalised electrons.

c)

A lattice of metal atoms in neat rows.

d)

A lattice of metal ions.

78.

What are delocalised electrons?

a)

Electrons that are transferred from one atom to another

b)

Electrons that are fixed in place

c)

Electrons that are free to move throughout the metal lattice

d)

Electrons that are shared between two atoms

79.

What is an alloy?

a)

A type of ionic compound

b)

A pure metal

c)

A mixture of metals

d)

A non-metallic compound

80.

Steel generally speaking is made of

a)

iron and carbon

b)

copper and iron

c)

tin and carbon

d)

aluminum and nickel

81.

Why are alloyed metals usually stronger?

a)

They have atoms of different metals in them, which makes it easier for the layer to move past each other...less likely to break

b)

They have atoms of different metals in them, which makes it harder for the layer to move past each other...less likely to break

82.
What gas is always produced when a metal reacts with water?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Carbon Dioxide
c)
Hydrogen
d)
Carbon Monoxide
83.
When sodium reacts with hydrochloric acid, what is the name of the salt formed?
a)
Sodium Hydride
b)
Sodium Chloride
c)
Sodium Hydrochloric
d)
Sodium Chlorine
84.
When potassium reacts with sulphuric acid, what is the name of the salt produced?
a)
Potassium Sulphide
b)
Potassium Sulphur
c)
Potassium Sulphuric
d)
Potassium Sulphate
85.

When a metal salt reacts with a more reactive metal, what sort of reaction occurs?

a)

Displacement

b)

Neutralisation

c)

Combustion

d)

No Reaction

86.
When magnesium reacts with copper sulphate, there are two products. What are they?
a)
Magnesium  and Copper
b)
Magnesium Sulphate and Copper
c)
Magnesium Sulphate and Copper Sulphate
d)
Magnesium and Copper Sulphate
87.

Which metal is more reactive than calcium?

a)

magnesium

b)

potassium

c)

silver

d)

aluminum

88.

What will be the result of the following:

Li + NaF ->

a)

Li will replace F

b)

Na will replace Li

c)

Li will replace Na

d)

no reaction will occur

89.
calcium + zinc nitrate goes to
a)
Calcium + zinc nitrate 
b)
Zinc + calcium nitrate
c)
there will be no reaction
d)
Zinc + calcium chloride
90.

Choose the least reactive metal

a)

calcium

b)

magnesium

c)

iron

d)

copper

91.

Choose the most reactive metal

a)

calcium

b)

magnesium

c)

iron

d)

copper

92.

What is this piece of apparatus called

a)

Pipette

b)

Burette

c)

Janette

d)

Cuvette

93.

What is the reading on this burette?

a)

24.0cm3

b)

25.8cm3

c)

24.2cm3

d)

23.9cm3

94.

Calculate the average volume of acid needed for this neutralisation

a)

15.2cm3

b)

15.0cm3

c)

35.5cm3

d)

30.1cm3

95.
Acid + Base ₋--> 
a)
salt + hydrogen
b)
salt + water
c)
salt + carbon dioxide + water
d)
salt
96.
What is the white tile for in titration?
a)
To help clearly see the colour change
b)
To protect the conical flask 
c)
To add extra height
d)
To assist the reaction
97.
What does pH measure?
a)
Amount of Oxygen Ions
b)
Amount of Hydrogen Ions
c)
The amount of salt in a solution
d)
The density
98.
Which is the stronger acid?
a)
pH 1
b)
pH 4
c)
pH 8
d)
pH 13
99.

Identify the correct formulae for the three common lab acids

a)

H2SO4, HNO2, HCl

b)

HCl, HNO3, H2SO3

c)

H2SO4, HCl, HNO3

d)

HNO3, HCl2, H2SO4

100.

An acid is a...

a)

proton donor

b)

electron donor

c)

electron acceptor

d)

proton acceptor

101.

Nitric acid produces .................... salts

a)

Chloride

b)

Nitrate

c)

Sulphate

d)

Carbonate

102.

Which statement is incorrect?

a)

An alkali releases H+ ions in aqueous solution

b)

An alkali is a water soluble base

c)

acid + alkali -> salt + water

d)

neutralisation is the reaction of H+ and OH- ions to form water

103.

A solution with more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions will be more ......

a)

alkaline

b)

neutral

c)

acidic

104.

A solution turns blue litmus paper red, what is the chemical?

a)

An acid

b)

An alkali

c)

Neutral

d)

Cannot tell

105.

What salt is made in the reaction between sodium and sulfuric acid?

a)

silver sulfate

b)

sodium nitrate

c)

sodium sulfate

d)

sodium chloride

106.

How can we test a gas to see if it is hydrogen?

a)

A lit splint will make a squeaky pop sound

b)

Limewater will turn cloudy

c)

Damp blue litmus paper will be bleached

d)

A glowing splint will relight

107.

Which of the following elements will form an anion?

a)

Tin

b)

Lead

c)

Chlorine

d)

Zinc

108.
Silver nitrate and Nitric acid were mixed with an unknown solution. A cream ppt formed. The formula of the ion present is
a)
I-
b)
Br+
c)
Br-
d)
Cl+
109.

To test for oxygen gas we use...

a)

a lit splint

b)

a glowing splint

c)

limewater

d)

red litmus paper

110.

Ammonia gas.......

a)

is acidic

b)

will turn damp blue litmus red then bleach it white

c)

is alkaline

d)

will turn damp red litmus blue

111.

Chlorine is a halogen. What group number is that?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

7

d)

0

112.

Limewater tests for carbon dioxide. What happens?

a)

goes blue

b)

explodes

c)

goes cloudy/milky

d)

turns red

113.

Describe the accurate result for a flame test on Lithium ion.

a)

Flame colour: Red

b)

Flame colour: Yellow

c)

Flame colour: Lilac

d)

Flame colour: Blue green

114.

Describe the accurate result for a flame test on sodium ion.

a)

Flame colour: Red

b)

Flame colour: Yellow

c)

Flame colour: Lilac

d)

Flame colour: Blue green

115.

Which result best describes flame test result on copper (II) ion?

a)

Flame colour: Yellow

b)

Flame colour: Red

c)

Flame colour: Lilac

d)

Flame colour: Blue green

116.
Silver nitrate and Nitric acid were mixed with an unknown solution. A yellow ppt formed. The formula of the ion present is
a)
I2
b)
I+
c)
I-
d)
Br-
117.
Test for bromide ions is....
a)
Add hydrochloric acid
b)
Add barium chloride
c)
Add nitric acid then silver nitrate
118.

Test for sulphate ions is...

a)

Add acid or barium chloride

b)

Add barium chloride or barium nitrate

c)

Add silver nitrate or barium nitrate

d)

Add barium chloride or silver nitrate

119.

Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a colourless solution. Bubbles appear immediately and this gas turns limewater cloudy. What ion was present in the solution?

a)

Carbonate

b)

Sulfate

c)

Nitrate

d)

Chloride

120.

Products will form faster if____________

a)

the particle size of the reactants are larger

b)

the temperature decreased

c)

concentration of the reactants are increased

d)

the reaction is not stirred

121.
Smaller particle size allows for a _________ surface area to be exposed for the reaction.
a)
larger
b)
smaller
122.
Smaller particle size allows for a _________ surface area to be exposed for the reaction.
a)
larger
b)
smaller
123.

What does the collision of reactant particles provide in a chemical reaction?

a)

The energy to cool the reactant molecules.

b)

The energy to dissolve the reactant molecules.

c)

The energy to break the bonds in the reactant molecules.

d)

The energy to freeze the reactant molecules.

124.

What does the collision of reactant particles provide in a chemical reaction?

a)

The energy to cool the reactant molecules.

b)

The energy to dissolve the reactant molecules.

c)

The energy to break the bonds in the reactant molecules.

d)

The energy to freeze the reactant molecules.

125.
How many carbon atoms are in propane
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
126.
If an alkane has 20 carbon atoms, how many hydrogen atoms will it have?
a)
20
b)
22
c)
40
d)
42
127.
Name this alkane
a)
Methane
b)
Ethane
c)
Propane
d)
Butane
128.
Name this alkane
a)
Methane
b)
Ethane
c)
Propane
d)
Butane
129.
The "ane" ending in "alkane" tells someone that they are dealing with _________-bonded carbons.
a)
single
b)
double
c)
triple
d)
quadruple
130.
General formula of Alkane is 
a)
CnH2n+2
b)
CnH2n
c)
CnH2n+1OH
d)
CnH2n+1COOH
131.
Hydrocarbons are compounds that contain
a)
Carbon, only
b)
Carbon and Hydrogen, only
c)
Carbon, Oxygen, and Hydrogen, only
d)
Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen, and Nitrogen, only
132.
Which one of the following is saturated?
a)
water
b)
C4H8
c)
C4H10
d)
C5H8
133.
At which pipe: M or N are hydrocarbons with lower boiling points collected?
a)
M
b)
N
134.

Fractional distillation separates crude oil based on the different __________ of the molecules in the mixture

a)

melting point

b)

boiling point

c)

freezing point

d)

chemical reactivity

135.

A fraction of crude oil is made up of:

a)

Hydrocarbons of similar chain lengths

b)

Numbers

c)

Large hydrocarbons

d)

Alkenes only

136.

What process happens at each level in the fractionating column?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Condensation

c)

Combustion

137.

What process happens as the crude oil enters the fractionating column?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Condensation

c)

Combustion

138.

Where do short chain hydrocarbons collect?

a)

At the top

b)

In the middle

c)

At the bottom

139.

Where do long chain hydrocarbons collect?

a)

At the top

b)

In the middle

c)

At the bottom

140.
The longer the hydrocarbon, the ________ the flammability?
a)
Lower
b)
Higher
141.
The longer the hydrocarbon, the _________ the viscosity?
a)
Lower
b)
Higher
142.
What is kerosene used for?
a)
Fuel for ships
b)
Fuel for lorries
c)
Fuel for airplanes
d)
Making roads
143.

Used in gas cooker

a)

kerosene

b)

fuel oil

c)

bitumen

d)

refinery gas

144.

The most viscous fraction in the fractional distillation of crude oil

a)

kerosene

b)

fuel oil

c)

bitumen

d)

refinery gas

145.

The most flammable fraction

a)

kerosene

b)

fuel oil

c)

bitumen

d)

refinery gas

146.

Fuel for ships

a)

fuel oil

b)

petroleum

c)

diesel

d)

bitumen

147.

Fuel for lorries

a)

fuel oil

b)

petroleum

c)

diesel

d)

bitumen

148.

For surfacing roads

a)

bitumen

b)

refinery gas

c)

petroleum

d)

diesel

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