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Clinical Psychology Review

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which feature best distinguishes Bipolar I from Bipolar II?

a)

Presence of hypomanic episodes only

b)

Presence of full manic episodes

c)

Presence of major depressive episodes only

d)

Absence of any mood episodes

2.

A hypomanic episode differs from a manic episode in that it:

a)

Lasts longer than one week

b)

Causes severe impairment in functioning

c)

Does not require hospitalization

d)

Always includes psychotic features

3.

In Bipolar II disorder, the most impairing phase is typically:

a)

Hypomania

b)

Mania

c)

Depression

d)

Psychosis

4.

Which symptom would most likely be observed in a manic episode?

a)

Low mood

b)

Fatigue

c)

Inflated self-esteem or grandiosity

d)

Slowed thinking

5.

Which of the following is not characteristic of Bipolar II disorder?

a)

Presence of hypomanic episodes

b)

Major depressive episodes

c)

Full manic episodes

d)

Episodes lasting at least two weeks

6.

The term 'rapid cycling' in bipolar disorder means:

a)

The individual experiences daily mood swings

b)

Four or more mood episodes in a year

c)

Switching moods multiple times a day

d)

Alternating between mania and psychosis

7.

Covert sensitization involves:

a)

Pairing an unwanted behaviour with an unpleasant imagined consequence

b)

Gradually exposing the client to real feared stimuli

c)

Using medication to suppress anxiety

d)

Pairing relaxation with feared stimuli

8.

In imaginal desensitization, the client:

a)

Visualizes the feared situation while remaining relaxed

b)

Is exposed to real-life triggers

c)

Experiences an electric shock to discourage a behaviour

d)

Is given medication during the procedure

9.

The goal of covert sensitization is to:

a)

Strengthen positive associations

b)

Create aversion to maladaptive behaviour

c)

Increase tolerance to anxiety

d)

Desensitize to fear responses

10.

Imaginal desensitization is often used when:

a)

Real-life exposure is impossible or unsafe

b)

The phobia is mild

c)

The patient refuses to use imagery

d)

The patient prefers medication

11.

During covert sensitization, what typically follows the undesired thought in the client’s imagination?

a)

Relaxation exercise

b)

Positive imagery

c)

A negative consequence or aversive scene

d)

Real-life rehearsal

12.

Both covert sensitization and imaginal desensitization rely on:

a)

Classical conditioning

b)

Operant reinforcement

c)

Psychoanalysis

d)

Group therapy

13.

The first stage of CBT typically involves:

a)

Challenging core beliefs

b)

Building a therapeutic relationship and psychoeducation

c)

Practising exposure

d)

Assigning behavioural experiments

14.

The term 'cognitive restructuring' refers to:

a)

Recording automatic thoughts

b)

Avoiding triggers

c)

Using medication to stabilise mood

d)

Increasing relaxation responses

15.

Which of the following is not a common element of CBT sessions?

a)

Setting homework

b)

Identifying cognitive distortions

c)

Free association

d)

Behavioural activation

16.

What technique helps clients test their irrational beliefs in real situations?

a)

Behavioural experiments

b)

Role play

c)

Aversion therapy

d)

Mindfulness meditation

17.

What is the primary focus of CBT?

a)

Changing unconscious drives

b)

Altering thought patterns and behaviours

c)

Recalling repressed memories

d)

Analysing childhood trauma

18.

In Sensky et al. (2000), CBT for schizophrenia targeted:

a)

Negative symptoms and unhelpful beliefs

b)

Delusions using ECT

c)

Medication management

d)

Family therapy strategies

19.

The PG-YBOCS is used to assess:

a)

Gambling severity

b)

Depression

c)

Phobic avoidance

d)

Psychotic symptoms

20.

What type of data does the PG-YBOCS provide?

a)

Nominal

b)

Ordinal

c)

Interval

d)

Categorical

21.

A high PG-YBOCS score indicates:

a)

Low gambling urges

b)

Severe gambling-related obsessions and compulsions

c)

Reduced risk of relapse

d)

Improved impulse control

22.

Which aspect is not measured by the PG-YBOCS?

a)

Time spent gambling

b)

Interference with daily life

c)

Suicidal ideation

d)

Urges to gamble

23.

The PG-YBOCS is administered through:

a)

A self-report questionnaire

b)

A clinician-administered interview

c)

An online survey

d)

Behavioural observation

24.

The BIPI primarily measures:

a)

Compulsive gambling

b)

Phobic reactions

c)

Manic symptoms

d)

Depressive beliefs

25.

Which of the following is a strength of the BIPI?

a)

It relies on self-rating scales

b)

It allows detailed exploration of fear triggers

c)

It focuses only on cognitive symptoms

d)

It is an observational method

26.

What type of reliability is most relevant to the BIPI?

a)

Inter-rater reliability

b)

Split-half reliability

c)

Temporal stability

d)

Face validity

27.

Which of the following is not assessed in the BIPI?

a)

Physiological symptoms

b)

Avoidance behaviour

c)

Psychotic delusions

d)

Cognitive responses

28.

The GAD-7 is used to assess:

a)

Severity of anxiety symptoms

b)

Cognitive distortions

c)

Panic attacks only

d)

Psychotic features

29.

What score range on the GAD-7 typically indicates moderate anxiety?

a)

0–4

b)

5–9

c)

10–14

d)

15–21

30.

A limitation of the GAD-7 is that it:

a)

Is too long for clinical use

b)

Cannot be used with adolescents

c)

Relies on self-report, which may reduce validity

d)

Measures depression rather than anxiety

31.

An automatic process which develops as a result of early life experiences through the development of schemas.

a)

Cognitive restructuring

b)

Cognitive distortions

c)

Cognitive dissonance

d)

Cognitive processing

32.

A pattern of thought which organises categories of information and the relationships among them.

a)

Schemas

b)

Heuristics

c)

Scripts

d)

Mental sets

33.

Drawing conclusions without sufficient evidence.

a)

Arbitrary inference

b)

Overgeneralisation

c)

Selective abstraction

d)

Personalisation

34.

Selecting only favourable evidence that supports one’s belief and ignoring contrary information.

a)

Selective thinking

b)

Confirmation bias

c)

Cognitive distortion

d)

Faulty attribution

35.

Applying one experience and generalising it to all future experiences.

a)

Overgeneralisation

b)

Selective abstraction

c)

Personalisation

d)

Minimisation

36.

Thinking the worst of a situation or expecting the most negative outcome.

a)

Catastrophising

b)

Magnification

c)

Rationalisation

d)

Dichotomous thinking

37.

Making an issue about one’s own faults rather than general circumstances.

a)

Personalisation

b)

Selective abstraction

c)

Catastrophising

d)

Minimisation

38.

Researcher who proposed that people may develop depression through learned helplessness.

a)

Seligman (1988)

b)

Beck (1967)

c)

Ellis (1962)

d)

Rosenhan (1973)

39.

The theory that people may stop trying to escape negative situations if they believe their actions make no difference.

a)

Learned helplessness

b)

Attribution theory

c)

Cognitive triad

d)

Locus of control

40.

The cognitive process by which an individual explains the causes of behaviour and events.

a)

Attribution

b)

Rationalisation

c)

Interpretation

d)

Evaluation

41.

The aim of Seligman’s (1988) study was to find out how well __________ could predict depressive symptoms.

4 lines
42.

Unipolar and bipolar participants in Seligman’s (1988) study showed more pessimistic attributional styles than the control group.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

A standardised self-report questionnaire used to assess symptoms of depression.

a)

Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)

b)

Hamilton Anxiety Scale

c)

Yale-Brown Obsessive Scale

d)

Rosenhan Rating Scale

44.

MAOIs (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors) are a type of:

a)

Antidepressant

b)

Antipsychotic

c)

Mood stabiliser

d)

Benzodiazepine

45.

Antidepressant that blocks the enzyme monoamine oxidase, allowing neurotransmitters to remain longer in the synapse and continue acting on the postsynaptic neuron.

a)

MAOI

b)

SSRI

c)

SNRI

d)

Tricyclic

46.

Antidepressant that prevents the reuptake of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron, increasing serotonin activity at the postsynaptic neuron.

a)

SSRI

b)

MAOI

c)

Tricyclic

d)

SNRI

47.

Which therapy is based on the idea that it is our beliefs about events, not the events themselves, that cause emotional distress?

a)

Beck Depression Inventory

b)

Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

c)

Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy (REBT)

d)

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)

48.

In Ellis’s ABC model, what does ‘A’ stand for?

a)

Affective response

b)

Activating event

c)

Automatic thought

d)

Attitude adjustment

49.

Which of the following involves changing key irrational attitudes and beliefs through the ABC technique?

a)

Beck’s cognitive triad

b)

REBT

c)

Electroconvulsive Therapy

d)

Behavioural activation

50.

Which study conducted a meta-analysis of 70 REBT studies and found significant improvement compared to control groups?

a)

Lyon and Woods (1991)

b)

Beck and Freeman (1990)

c)

Ellis and Dryden (1987)

d)

Freud and Jung (1910)

51.

What term describes an environmental or mood cue that activates the memory of a behaviour linked with strong emotions?

a)

Trigger event

b)

Positive reinforcement

c)

Mood induction

d)

Relapse factor

52.

What concept explains why individuals with ICDs continue the behaviour even when aware it is harmful?

a)

Reduced dopamine

b)

Lack of insight

c)

Overcompensation

d)

Cognitive dissonance

53.

Which of the following is a strength of the Feeling-State Theory (FST)?

a)

Recognises both positive and negative emotions in ICDs

b)

Ignores emotional differences between disorders

c)

Focuses only on behavioural conditioning

d)

Overlooks biological explanations

54.

Which statement reflects a strength of the FST?

a)

It explains why people persist with ICDs despite knowing the harm

b)

It ignores emotional and cognitive factors

c)

It applies only to kleptomania

d)

It lacks testable evidence

55.

Which is a weakness of the FST?

a)

Overly holistic

b)

Too deterministic

c)

Fails to account for individual differences

d)

Neglects biological mechanisms

56.

Which statement represents a weakness of the FST?

a)

Treats all ICDs as stemming from the same emotion–behaviour link

b)

Recognises the diversity of emotional responses

c)

Integrates biological and social factors

d)

Acknowledges positive emotional triggers

57.

What does the K-SAS measure?

a)

Impulses, thoughts, and behaviours linked to stealing

b)

Aggressive outbursts and anger management

c)

Levels of serotonin in compulsive individuals

d)

Frequency of depressive episodes

58.

What is the scoring system used in the K-SAS?

a)

Each item rated 0–4, with higher scores showing greater severity

b)

Each item rated 1–10 based on intensity

c)

Self-reported categories of ‘mild’, ‘moderate’, or ‘severe’

d)

Researcher-observed behavioural checklists

59.

Which statement describes a strength of the K-SAS?

a)

Demonstrates strong test–retest reliability

b)

Includes only behavioural measures

c)

Relies heavily on open-ended data

d)

Is only useful for group comparisons

60.

Which finding supports the validity of the K-SAS?

a)

It correlates well with the CGI scale

b)

It uses ambiguous response options

c)

It lacks concurrent measures

d)

It cannot differentiate between ICDs

61.

What is a weakness of the K-SAS?

a)

Participants may not recall behaviour accurately

b)

It provides both qualitative and quantitative data

c)

The measure is too open-ended

d)

Responses are always verified by clinicians

62.

Which of the following is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

Hallucination

b)

Avolition

c)

Flat affect

d)

Poverty of speech

63.

Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

Avolition

b)

Hallucination

c)

Grandiose delusion

d)

Disorganised speech

64.

What type of delusion involves exaggerated self-importance or power?

a)

Grandiose delusion

b)

Persecutory delusion

c)

Delusion of reference

d)

Somatic delusion

65.

What were the aims of Freeman et al. (2003)?

a)

To investigate persecutory ideation in VR environments

b)

To test the effectiveness of CBT in psychosis

c)

To compare dopamine levels between groups

d)

To assess gender differences in VR navigation

66.

What was one of the hypotheses of Freeman et al.?

a)

A small number of participants with no history of mental illness would experience persecutory ideation in VR

b)

Only those with diagnosed schizophrenia would show paranoia

c)

VR exposure would reduce anxiety

d)

All participants would experience delusions

67.

What was the sample used in Freeman et al. (2003)?

a)

12 males and 12 females

b)

8 males and 8 females

c)

20 males and 4 females

d)

24 males only

68.

What conclusion did Freeman et al. reach?

a)

VR can be used to safely study persecutory ideation in a controlled environment

b)

Only individuals with schizophrenia experience paranoia

c)

VR increases delusional thinking in all participants

d)

Environmental factors have no role in paranoia

69.

Applying one experience and generalising it to all future experiences.

a)

Overgeneralisation

b)

Selective abstraction

c)

Personalisation

d)

Minimisation

70.

Thinking the worst of a situation or expecting the most negative outcome.

a)

Catastrophising

b)

Magnification

c)

Rationalisation

d)

Dichotomous thinking

71.

Making an issue about one’s own faults rather than general circumstances.

a)

Personalisation

b)

Selective abstraction

c)

Catastrophising

d)

Minimisation

72.

Researcher who proposed that people may develop depression through learned helplessness.

a)

Seligman (1988)

b)

Beck (1967)

c)

Ellis (1962)

d)

Rosenhan (1973)

73.

The theory that people may stop trying to escape negative situations if they believe their actions make no difference.

a)

Learned helplessness

b)

Attribution theory

c)

Cognitive triad

d)

Locus of control

74.

If a person learns that their behaviour makes no difference to an aversive environment, they may stop trying to escape, even when escape becomes possible.

a)

Seligman theory

b)

Seligman aim

c)

Seligman results

d)

Beck’s model

75.

In the 1960s, dogs subjected to inescapable electric shocks later failed to escape when it was possible.

a)

Seligman procedure

b)

Seligman background

c)

Seligman aim

d)

Seligman sample

76.

The cognitive process by which an individual explains the causes of behaviour and events.

a)

Attribution

b)

Rationalisation

c)

Interpretation

d)

Evaluation

77.

The aim of Seligman’s (1988) study was to find out how well __________ could predict depressive symptoms.

4 lines
78.

Each participant in Seligman’s (1988) study completed an Attributional Style Questionnaire.

a)

Seligman procedure

b)

Seligman results

c)

Beck’s procedure

d)

Attributional measure

79.

Unipolar and bipolar participants in Seligman’s (1988) study showed more pessimistic attributional styles than the control group.

a)

Seligman results

b)

Seligman procedure

c)

Beck’s findings

d)

Cognitive triad outcomes

80.

A standardised self-report questionnaire used to assess symptoms of depression.

a)

Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)

b)

Hamilton Anxiety Scale

c)

Yale-Brown Obsessive Scale

d)

Rosenhan Rating Scale

81.

MAOIs (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors) are a type of:

a)

Antidepressant

b)

Antipsychotic

c)

Mood stabiliser

d)

Benzodiazepine

82.

Antidepressant that blocks the enzyme monoamine oxidase, allowing neurotransmitters to remain longer in the synapse and continue acting on the postsynaptic neuron.

a)

MAOI

b)

SSRI

c)

SNRI

d)

Tricyclic

83.

Antidepressant that prevents the reuptake of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron, increasing serotonin activity at the postsynaptic neuron.

a)

SSRI

b)

MAOI

c)

Tricyclic

d)

SNRI

84.

Which therapy is based on the idea that it is our beliefs about events, not the events themselves, that cause emotional distress?

a)

Beck Depression Inventory

b)

Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

c)

Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy (REBT)

d)

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)

85.

In Ellis’s ABC model, what does ‘A’ stand for?

a)

Affective response

b)

Activating event

c)

Automatic thought

d)

Attitude adjustment

86.

Which of the following involves changing key irrational attitudes and beliefs through the ABC technique?

a)

Beck’s cognitive triad

b)

REBT

c)

Electroconvulsive Therapy

d)

Behavioural activation

87.

Which study conducted a meta-analysis of 70 REBT studies and found significant improvement compared to control groups?

a)

Lyon and Woods (1991)

b)

Beck and Freeman (1990)

c)

Ellis and Dryden (1987)

d)

Freud and Jung (1910)

88.

What term describes an environmental or mood cue that activates the memory of a behaviour linked with strong emotions?

a)

Trigger event

b)

Positive reinforcement

c)

Mood induction

d)

Relapse factor

89.

What concept explains why individuals with ICDs continue the behaviour even when aware it is harmful?

a)

Reduced dopamine

b)

Lack of insight

c)

Overcompensation

d)

Cognitive dissonance

90.

Which of the following is a strength of the Feeling-State Theory (FST)?

a)

Recognises both positive and negative emotions in ICDs

b)

Ignores emotional differences between disorders

c)

Focuses only on behavioural conditioning

d)

Overlooks biological explanations

91.

Which statement reflects a strength of the FST?

a)

It explains why people persist with ICDs despite knowing the harm

b)

It ignores emotional and cognitive factors

c)

It applies only to kleptomania

d)

It lacks testable evidence

92.

Which is a weakness of the FST?

a)

Overly holistic

b)

Too deterministic

c)

Fails to account for individual differences

d)

Neglects biological mechanisms

93.

Which statement represents a weakness of the FST?

a)

Treats all ICDs as stemming from the same emotion–behaviour link

b)

Recognises the diversity of emotional responses

c)

Integrates biological and social factors

d)

Acknowledges positive emotional triggers

94.

What does the K-SAS measure?

a)

Impulses, thoughts, and behaviours linked to stealing

b)

Aggressive outbursts and anger management

c)

Levels of serotonin in compulsive individuals

d)

Frequency of depressive episodes

95.

What is the scoring system used in the K-SAS?

a)

Each item rated 0–4, with higher scores showing greater severity

b)

Each item rated 1–10 based on intensity

c)

Self-reported categories of ‘mild’, ‘moderate’, or ‘severe’

d)

Researcher-observed behavioural checklists

96.

Which statement describes a strength of the K-SAS?

a)

Demonstrates strong test–retest reliability

b)

Includes only behavioural measures

c)

Relies heavily on open-ended data

d)

Is only useful for group comparisons

97.

Which finding supports the validity of the K-SAS?

a)

It correlates well with the CGI scale

b)

It uses ambiguous response options

c)

It lacks concurrent measures

d)

It cannot differentiate between ICDs

98.

What is a weakness of the K-SAS?

a)

Participants may not recall behaviour accurately

b)

It provides both qualitative and quantitative data

c)

The measure is too open-ended

d)

Responses are always verified by clinicians

99.

Another weakness of the K-SAS is that:

a)

Some questions are vague and open to interpretation

b)

It gives detailed personal narratives

c)

It eliminates subjective bias completely

d)

It includes too many biological items

100.

The K-SAS has limited insight because:

a)

It only provides numerical scores without explaining causes

b)

It asks participants to write reflective responses

c)

It combines physiological and behavioural data

d)

It uses interviews for data collection

101.

What is schizophrenia?

a)

A psychotic disorder involving distortions in thoughts, perceptions, and emotions

b)

A type of mood disorder

c)

A personality disorder

d)

A purely behavioural condition

102.

Which of the following is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

Hallucination

b)

Avolition

c)

Flat affect

d)

Poverty of speech

103.

Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

Avolition

b)

Hallucination

c)

Grandiose delusion

d)

Disorganised speech

104.

What type of delusion involves exaggerated self-importance or power?

a)

Grandiose delusion

b)

Persecutory delusion

c)

Delusion of reference

d)

Somatic delusion

105.

What were the aims of Freeman et al. (2003)?

a)

To investigate persecutory ideation in VR environments

b)

To test the effectiveness of CBT in psychosis

c)

To compare dopamine levels between groups

d)

To assess gender differences in VR navigation

106.

What was one of the hypotheses of Freeman et al.?

a)

A small number of participants with no history of mental illness would experience persecutory ideation in VR

b)

Only those with diagnosed schizophrenia would show paranoia

c)

VR exposure would reduce anxiety

d)

All participants would experience delusions

107.

What was the sample used in Freeman et al. (2003)?

a)

12 males and 12 females

b)

8 males and 8 females

c)

20 males and 4 females

d)

24 males only

108.

What conclusion did Freeman et al. reach?

a)

VR can be used to safely study persecutory ideation in a controlled environment

b)

Only individuals with schizophrenia experience paranoia

c)

VR increases delusional thinking in all participants

d)

Environmental factors have no role in paranoia

109.

What is a chemical messenger that carries signals between neurons across a synapse?

a)

Hormone

b)

Neurotransmitter

c)

Enzyme

d)

Inhibitor

110.

Which of the following is an example of a neurotransmitter?

a)

Insulin

b)

Serotonin

c)

Cortisol

d)

Melatonin

111.

What is the small gap between two neurons where neurotransmitters travel?

a)

Axon

b)

Synapse

c)

Dendrite

d)

Receptor

112.

What acts like a "lock" for a neurotransmitter "key"?

a)

Myelin sheath

b)

Synapse

c)

Receptor

d)

Axon terminal

113.

What is the role of an inhibitor?

a)

Speeds up neurotransmitter activity

b)

Blocks or slows down neurotransmitter activity

c)

Creates new neurotransmitters

d)

Strengthens synapses

114.

Concordance rates are used to measure:

a)

How fast neurotransmitters work

b)

The probability that two people share a trait

c)

How much serotonin is in the brain

d)

The level of anxiety in individuals

115.

MZ twins share what percentage of their genes?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

116.

DZ twins share what percentage of their genes?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

117.

Why might anxiety have been adaptive in the past?

a)

It helped humans avoid social situations

b)

It increased alertness to danger

c)

It made people less likely to reproduce

d)

It reduced food intake

118.

Low mood (depression) may have once been adaptive because it:

a)

Reduced the need for sleep

b)

Prompted withdrawal from risky situations

c)

Increased aggression in groups

d)

Helped people ignore pain

119.

The id operates on which principle?

a)

Morality principle

b)

Reality principle

c)

Pleasure principle

d)

Defence principle

120.

Which part of the personality develops first?

a)

Superego

b)

Id

c)

Ego

d)

Conscious self

121.

The ego’s role is to:

a)

Demand instant gratification

b)

Reduce conflict between id and superego

c)

Store unconscious drives

d)

Enforce morality

122.

Around what age does the ego develop?

a)

Birth

b)

2 years

c)

5 years

d)

Adolescence

123.

The superego represents:

a)

Pleasure-seeking drives

b)

Internalised sense of right and wrong

c)

Reality-based thinking

d)

Defence mechanisms

124.

The superego develops at the end of which stage?

a)

Oral stage

b)

Anal stage

c)

Phallic stage

d)

Latency stage

125.

What principle is the superego based on?

a)

Pleasure

b)

Morality

c)

Reality

d)

Anxiety

126.

Freud described babies as:

a)

Bundles of superego

b)

Bundles of id

c)

Bundles of ego

d)

Bundles of instincts and morality

127.

Which defense mechanism helps the ego manage conflict between id and superego?

a)

Natural selection

b)

Repression

c)

CBT

d)

Neurotransmitter release

128.

What is the primary role of GABA in the brain?

a)

Speeds up nerve activity and decreases stress

b)

Calms neural activity, reducing anxiety

c)

Regulates sleep–wake cycles

d)

  1. Controls blood sugar levels

129.

Dopamine is strongly linked to which function?

a)

Mood regulation and motivation

b)

Sleep and circadian rhythms

c)

Stress hormone release

d)

Appetite and sleep

130.

Serotonin is mainly involved in:

a)

Reflexes and motor control

b)

Mood regulation and sleep

c)

Fight or flight response

d)

Pleasure and reward responses

131.

What type of study design was used by Grant et al. (2008)?

a)

Case study

b)

Longitudinal survey

c)

Randomised placebo-controlled trial

d)

Natural experiment

132.

What disorder was the study investigating?

a)

Alcohol dependence

b)

Pathological gambling

c)

Schizophrenia

d)

Bipolar disorder

133.

What is an opiate antagonist?

a)

A drug that increases dopamine release

b)

A drug that blocks opioid receptors

c)

A therapy used to reduce stress

d)

A placebo medication

134.

Which two drugs were investigated?

a)

Naloxone and Diazepam

b)

Nalmefene and Naltrexone

c)

Methadone and Heroin

d)

Sertraline and Fluoxetine

135.

How many participants were in the study?

a)

84

b)

128

c)

284

d)

350

136.

What was required for participants to be included in the study?

a)

DSM-IV diagnosis of pathological gambling

b)

Current drug dependence

c)

Diagnosis of schizophrenia

d)

No gambling history

137.

What percentage of participants were women?

a)

20%

b)

42%

c)

50%

d)

60%

138.

How many different conditions were there?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

10

139.

How long did the treatment last?

a)

4 weeks

b)

8 weeks

c)

16 weeks

d)

1 year

140.

What does PG-YBOCS stand for?

a)

Pathological Gambling Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale

b)

Pathological Gambling Youth Behavioural Outcomes Scale

c)

Patient Gambling Yearly Behavioural Outcomes Clinical Scale

d)

Pathological Gambling Yielded Biological Observations Clinical Study

141.

How was a "positive response" to treatment defined?

a)

20% reduction in PG-YBOCS

b)

35% reduction in PG-YBOCS

c)

50% reduction in PG-YBOCS

d)

75% reduction in PG-YBOCS

142.

How many control groups were used?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

143.

What was the dependent variable in this study?

a)

Family history of alcoholism

b)

Type of opiate antagonist

c)

PG-YBOCS score

d)

Dose of medication

144.

What prediction did the researchers make about family history?

a)

It would not affect treatment response

b)

A positive family history of alcoholism would improve treatment response

c)

A negative family history would improve response

d)

Family history was not measured

145.

Which group was more likely to respond to placebo treatment?

a)

Older participants

b)

Participants with a family history of gambling

c)

Younger participants

d)

Participants with higher PG-YBOCS scores

146.

What was the effect of age on placebo response?

a)

Every 10 years older = 10% more likely

b)

Every 10 years older = 20% less likely

c)

Every 10 years older = 30% less likely

d)

No effect of age

147.

Which participants responded best to high doses (100–150mg) of opiate antagonists?

a)

Those with lower PG-YBOCS scores

b)

Those with higher PG-YBOCS scores

c)

Younger participants

d)

Those without a family history

148.

How was family history measured?

a)

DNA testing

b)

Self-report questionnaires

c)

Semi-structured interviews

d)

Medical records only

149.

What was Hypothesis 2?

a)

Family history predicts better drug response

b)

Less severe gamblers respond better to placebo

c)

Higher PG-YBOCS predicts placebo response

d)

Age predicts placebo response

150.

Why are opiate antagonists used in treating gambling?

a)

They increase serotonin

b)

They reduce dopamine levels

c)

They block the brain’s reward response to gambling

d)

They act as sedatives

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