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ATM 2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Information of long duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as:

a)

A. AIP amendments


b)

B. AIP supplements


c)

C. AIC


d)

D. NOTAM 


2.

Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are used in conjunction with SSR?

a)

A. Distress 7700; Unlawful Interference 7500; Communications failure 7600


b)

B. Distress 7600; Unlawful Interference 7500; Communications failure 7700


c)

C. Distress 7500; Unlawful Interference 7700; Communications failure 7600


d)

D. Distress 7700; Unlawful Interference 7600; Communications failure 7500 


3.

Area control service is:

a)

A. Air traffic control service for aerodrome traffic 


b)

B. Air traffic control service for controlled flights control areas


c)

C. Air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled flights


d)

D. Service for meteorological and alerting service 


4.

ZCZC GHA 273 070407 FF VVNBZPZX (ARR-HVN 322- VVTS-VVDN 0359)". The message informs

a)

A. Arrival of HVN 322 flight to VVTS at 03.59 UTC


b)

B. Arrival of HVN 322 flight to VVNB at 03.59 UTC


c)

C. Arrival of HVN 322 flight from VVNB to VVDN at 03.59 UTC 


d)

D. Arrival of HVN 322 flight from VVTS to VVDN at 03.59 UTC


5.

Air traffic services unit clocks and other time-recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus of UTC at all times:

a)

A. 15 second 


b)

B. 30 second


c)

C. 60 second


d)

D. 20 second 


6.

Clearance limit mean

a)

A. The point at which an aircraft is going to hold


b)

B. The flight level at which an aircraft plans to fly


c)

C. The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance


d)

D. The destination airport at which an aircraft plans to arrive 


7.

The Air traffic service includes

a)

A. ATC Services and Air Traffic Advisory Services


b)

B. Flight Information Services


c)

C. Alerting Services


d)

D. All of above


8.

What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach?

a)

A. Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing; Missed Approach


b)

B. Initial: Intermediate: Descent; Final; Landing


c)

C. Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing


d)

D. Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Missed Approach


9.

Which appropriate authority of Vietnam shall grant flight permission to Vietnamese and foreign military aircraft?

a)

A. Civil Aviation Authority of VN


b)

B. Minister of transport


c)

C. Minister of foreign affairs


d)

D. Minister of national defense


10.

In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented

a)

A. By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R"


b)

B. By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways "L" and "R" and the central has no letter


c)

C. By a letter for 2 parallel runways


d)

D. By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 parallel runways 


11.

The order of priority for the transmission of messages in the aeronautical fixed telecommunication network shall be as follows

a)

A. DD, FF, GG, KK, SS


b)

B. DD, FF, SS, GG, KK


c)

C. GG, KK, SS, DD, FF


d)

D. SS, DD, FF, GG, KK


12.

If the average true airspeed at cruising level between reporting points varies or is expected to vary by __________ of the true airspeed, from that given in the flight plan, the appropriate air traffic services unit shall be so informed

a)

A. ± 2 percent


b)

B. ± 3 percent


c)

C. ± 4 percent


d)

D. ± 5 percent


13.

Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 knots or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be:

a)

A. 10 minutes


b)

B. 15 minutes


c)

C. 5 minutes


d)

D. 3 minutes 


14.

ADS-C

a)

A. Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Contact


b)

B. Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Contract


c)

C. Automatically Dependent Surveillance - Contract


d)

D. Automatically Dependent Surveillance - Contact 


15.

Visual meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, ___________ the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions:

a)

A. equal to or better than


b)

B. less than 


c)

C. equal to or less than


d)

D. better than 


16.

The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:

a)

A. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing significant point


b)

B. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over


c)

C. Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and time over


d)

D. Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude, time, next position and time over and ensuing significant point 


17.

The definition of Special VFR flight

a)

A. A flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules


b)

B. A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules


c)

C. A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone in meteorological conditions below VMC


d)

D. Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance 


18.

Collaborative decision-making (CDM) is the process whereby all ATM decisions, except __________ ATC decisions, are based on sharing of all information relevant to air traffic operation between all civil and military partners

a)

A. Tactical


b)

B. Planning


c)

C. Strategic


d)

D. Pre - tactical 


19.

The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight pian form. This speed is the:

a)

A. True air speed at 65% power


b)

B. Ground speed (GS)


c)

C. Indicated air speed (IAS)


d)

D. True air speed (TAS)


20.

The missed approach procedure is show in the ______:

a)

A. En-route Chart


b)

B. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart - Type B 


c)

C. Instrument Approach Chart


d)

D. Aerodrome Obstacle Char t- Type A 


21.

What is the correct AFTN address of Ho Chi Minh center?

a)

A. VVHMZRZX


b)

B. VVHMZTZX


c)

C. VVHMZDZX


d)

D. VVHMZPZX 


22.

The projection on the earth's surface of the path of an aircraft, the direction of which path at any point is usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic or grid): 

a)

A. Track


b)

B. Heading


c)

C. Bearing


d)

D. Course 


23.

In RVSM, VFR flight is:

a)

A. FL300


b)

B. FL295


c)

C. FL290


d)

D. FL310 


24.

Enterprise which provides air traffic service must

a)

A. Provide adequate and uninterrupted air traffic service


b)

B. Comply with regulations on the management, utilization and defense of the airspace, rules of the aircraft related guidance manuals on air traffic service


c)

C. Coordinate with organizations concerned in handling emergency situations, unlawful interference against civil flight operations and air defense operations.


d)

D. All of above


25.

The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level

a)

A. Air Route


b)

B. Transition Layer


c)

C. Holding pattern


d)

D. Boundary layer 


26.

Track separation between aircraft using NDB is at least _____ and at a distance of _____ more from the facility

a)

A. 45 degrees, 15 NM (28 km)


b)

B. 30 degrees, 15 NM (28 km)


c)

C. 45 degrees, 10 NM (18.5 km)


d)

D. 30 degrees, 10 NM (18.5 km) 


27.

How long is strip marking remained

a)

A. 60 days


b)

B. 45 days


c)

C. 90 days


d)

D. 30 days 


28.

METAR VVTS 021230Z 13012626KT 1200 NW +SHRA BKN010 SCT015CB 28/27 Q1012

a)

A. The present weather is light shower rain


b)

B. The present weather is heavy shower rain


c)

C. The present weather is heavy rain


d)

D. The present weather is heavy thunderstorm with rain 


29.

The altitude at which or below which the position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes. That is definition of:

a)

A. Transition Altitude


b)

B. Minimum En-route Altitude


c)

C. Transition Flight level


d)

D. Minimum Sector Altitude 


30.

Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.

TAF LFBD 281400Z 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKNO15CB PROB30 TSRA.

Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on the approach to Bordeaux?


a)

A. Continuous moderate rain


b)

B. Moderate snow showers


c)

C. Light drizzle and fog


d)

D. Heavy rain showers


31.

The date-time group consists of six figures, the first two figures indicating the day of the month and the next four figures indicating for METAR and SPECI

a)

A. The full hour in UTC (of which the last two figures are always 00) preceding the transmission time; for other forecasts, the standard time of observation in UTC on which the forecast is based


b)

B. The time of observation in UTC


c)

C. The standard time of observation in UTC


d)

D. The time of origin in UTC of the text of the bulletin(s) 


32.

What are the declared distances of the aerodrome indicated in the AIP Vietnam?

a)

A. RWY, SWY, CWY


b)

B. TORA, TODA, ASDA, TODA


c)

C. CWY, SWY


d)

D. TORA, TODA, ASDA, TODA, RWY


33.

Minimum safe altitude has been established for ATS routes:

a)

A. At least 600m (1000ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 900m (3000ft) above highest obstacle in mountain area


b)

B. At least 300m (1000ft) above MSL.


c)

C. At least 300m (1000ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 600m (2000ft) above highest obstacle in mountain area


d)

D. At least 300m (1000ft) above terrain and 600 m (2000 ft) above sea 


34.

Who shall decide the establishment of an enterprise providing air traffic service at Vietnam?

a)

A. Prime minister


b)

B. Minister of national defense


c)

C. ICAO


d)

D. Minister of transport


35.

The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing is the definition of...:

a)

A. A Holding point


b)

B. An Airway


c)

C. A Threshold


d)

D. A Aiming Point c


36.

ASDA = ... + ....

a)

A. TORA + SWY


b)

B. TORA + CWY


c)

C. TORA +RWY


d)

D. TORA 


37.

A standard instrument departure is known as a:

a)

A. SID


b)

B. SIA


c)

C. STAR


d)

D. SDP 


38.

In the event of a delay of ... minutes in excess of the EOBT for a controlled flight or delay of ... minutes for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old flight plan cancelled, whichever is applicable

a)

A. 60, 60


b)

B. 60, 30


c)

C. 30, 60


d)

D. 30, 45 


39.

Take-off alternate aerodrome is

a)

A. An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic 


b)

B. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure


c)

C. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en route


d)

D. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing 


40.

Your aircraft has track between 0o and 179o, your flight level or altitude must be:

a)

A. odd


b)

B. none of above


c)

C. even


d)

D. odd or even 


41.

Aeroplane reference field length for code number 4 aerodrome: 

a)

A. 1200m up to but not including 1800m


b)

B. 1800m and over


c)

C. 800m up to but not including 1200m


d)

D. Less than 800m 


42.

Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?

a)

A. Aircraft in the vicinity shall be informed about an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference


b)

B. The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received


c)

C. Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit


d)

D. The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference 


43.

Estimated time of arrival is

a)

A. For VFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome


b)

B. For IFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be concerned


c)

C. The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will land on the runway


d)

D. A or B


44.

Your aircraft has track between 270° and 359° & between 0° and 89°, your flight level or altitude must be

a)

A. odd


b)

B. none of above


c)

C. even


d)

D. odd or even


45.

A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off is the definition for:

a)

A. Clearway


b)

B. Runway strip


c)

C. Stopway


d)

D. Runway 


46.

Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend 

a)

A. 10 NM


b)

B. 20 NM


c)

C. 12 NM


d)

D. 15 NM 


47.

The abbreviation OCH means

a)

A. Obstacle Clearance Height


b)

B. Obstacle Confirmation Height


c)

C. Obstruction Collision Height


d)

D. Obstruction Clearance Height 


48.

At which may reduce vertical separation minimum be used

a)

A. Above FL410


b)

B. Between FL275 to FL410


c)

C. Between FL245 to FL410


d)

D. Between FL290 to FL410 


49.

In RVSM airspace, an aircraft will be considered to be maintaining FL 290 when SSR mode C derived level information indicates:

a)

A. 293


b)

B. 292


c)

C. 294


d)

D. 295 


50.

Tolerance value used to determine that pressure altitude derived level information displayed to controller is accurate shall be in RVSM airspace

a)

A. ± 90 m


b)

B. ± 60 m


c)

C. ± 100 m


d)

v

51.

The types of separation methods are

a)

A. 2 (vertical + horizontal separation)


b)

B. 2 (lateral + vertical separation)


c)

C. 3 (lateral, vertical + horizontal separation)


d)

D. 3 (vertical + longitudinal separation) 


52.

The Transponders equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies: Transmitter _____ Receiver _____ :

a)

A. 1990 MHz - 1030 MHz 


b)

B. 1030 MHz - 1030 MHz


c)

C. 1030 MHz - 1090 MHz


d)

D. 1090 MHz - 1090 MHz 


53.

______ is a Mandatory Chart

a)

A. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart - Type A


b)

B. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart -Type B 


c)

C. Standard Instrument Departure (SID) Chart


d)

D. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart- Type C


54.

Approach control service shall be provided by

a)

A. by an aerodrome control tower or area control centre when it is necessary or desirable to combine under the responsibility of one unit the functions of the approach control service with those of the aerodrome control service or the area control service

b)

B. by an approach control unit when it is necessary or desirable to establish a separate unit


c)

C. A and B


d)

D. A or B


55.

The types of horizontal separation are

a)

A. 2 (lateral + longitudinal separation)


b)

B. 2 (lateral + vertical separation)


c)

C. 2 (radar + longitudinal separation)


d)

D. 2 (lateral + radar separation) 


56.

When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is danger of collision

a)

A. The aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way


b)

B. The aircraft that has the other on its left shall give way


c)

C. Each shall alter its heading to the right


d)

D. Each aircraft should turn to the left. 


57.

When the aircraft is __________ miles from the threshold on final approach, speed control should not be applied

a)

A. 5 


b)

B. 3


c)

C. 4


d)

D. 10 


58.

Choose the correct statement from the following

a)

A. LDA<TORA


b)

B. TODA >= TORA


c)

C. LDA>ASDA


d)

D. TORA >= TODA 


59.

What is air traffic control clearance

a)

A. Clearance issued by App controller


b)

B. Clearance by area controller


c)

C. Clearance for aircraft issued by tower controller


d)

D. Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit


60.

Where lateral separation is not provided, how long should vertical separation be provided for opposite direction traffic?

a)

A. 05 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed


b)

B. 15 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed


c)

C. Until they are estimated to have passed 


d)

D. 10 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed


61.

If two departing aircraft of the same type propose to follow the same track and the following aircraft will be flown through the level of the preceding aircraft. Action must be taken to ensure that the _____ separation will be maintained or increased when cruising levels are crossed

a)

A. 10 minutes


b)

B. 2 minutes


c)

C. 5 minutes


d)

D. 3 minutes 


62.

An aircraft operates in a defined airspace shall be controlled by:

a)

A. An ATC Unit


b)

B. 2 ATC Units


c)

C. 3 ATC Units


d)

D. 4 ATC Units 


63.

Movement area is

a)

A. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxing of aircraft, excluding apron


b)

B. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons.


c)

C. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the apron.


d)

D. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft 


64.

Where the transfer of control is to be effected using radar or ADS-B data, the control information pertinent to the transfer shall include information regarding the position and, if required, the track and speed of the aircraft, as observed by radar or ADS-B immediately _____ the transfer.

a)

A. Prior to


b)

B. After


c)

C. Request for


d)

D. A and b 


65.

What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach?

a)

A. + 15 kt


b)

B. + 20 kt


c)

C. + 25 kt


d)

D. + 10 kt 


66.

A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so far as practical, between aircraft which are operating on IFR flight plans

a)

A. Air Traffic Advisory Services


b)

B. Air Traffic Control Services


c)

C. Flight Information Services


d)

D. Alerting Services 


67.

IFR flights shall be carried out in compliance with

a)

A. Instrument Flight rules


b)

B. Visual Flight rules + General rules 


c)

C. Instrument Flight rules + General rules


d)

D. Visual Flight rules 


68.

The definition of Flight level

a)

A. The vertical distance of a point or a level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured from mean sea level.


b)

B. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from a specified datum.


c)

C. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from mean sea level (MSL).


d)

D. A surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific pressure datum, 1013hPa, and is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals.


69.

Which following arrival sequence is correct?

a)

A. Shortage of fuel flight - Commercial flight - Hospital flight


b)

B. Hospital flight - Commercial flight - Shortage of fuel flight


c)

C. Hospital flight - Shortage of fuel flight - Commercial flight


d)

D. Shortage of fuel flight - Hospital flight - Commercial flight


70.

Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR?

a)

A. I


b)

B. V


c)

C. Z


d)

D. Y


71.

At Tan Son Nhat airport, when VIP arrives, the reserved RWY for VIP flight will be available:

a)

A. 05 minutes after VIP flight stops at the parking at airport,


b)

B. When VIP flight stops at the parking


c)

C. After VIP flight vacates the RWY


d)

D. 05 minutes after VIP flight lands 


72.

Which aircraft along the following has first priority:


a)

A. Arriving aircraft in the traffic pattern


b)

B. Arriving aircraft on final approach


c)

C. Taxiing aircraft


d)

D. Departing aircraft 


73.

The DME system shall provide for continuous and accurate indication in the cockpit of the _____ of an equipped aircraft from an equipped ground reference point:

a)

A. Vertical distance


b)

B. Slant range distance


c)

C. Horizontal distance 


d)

D. All of above 


74.

During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be reported as

a)

A. Flight level during descent


b)

B. Altitude above mean sea level during descent


c)

C. Either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during the climb


d)

D. Altitude above mean sea level during the climb 


75.

In alerting services, " Alert phase" when

a)

A. No communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received, or from the time an unsuccessful attempt to establish communication with such aircraft was first made, whichever is the earlier, or when an aircraft fails to arrive within thirty minutes of the estimated time of arrival last notified to or estimated by air traffic services units, whichever is the later...


b)

B. Information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety... 


c)

C. Information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety...


d)

D. Information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when an aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established with the aircraft...


76.

The objectives of Air traffic services (ATS) are to

a)

A. Balance Capacity and Demand


b)

B. Provide Separation


c)

C. Airspace Design 


d)

D. Provide Capacity 


77.

The change indicator BECMG in the TAF used when

a)

A. The MET conditions are expected to reach or pass specified values at a regular or irregular rate


b)

B. The probability that a certain change or value occurs


c)

C. Temporary fluctuations in the meteorological conditions, lasting less than one hour in each instance and covering less than half of the forecast period.


d)

D. All the MET conditions are to pass specified values at a regular rate 


78.

Intergraded Aeronautical Information Package includes

a)

A. Check list and Summary NOTAM


b)

B. AIP, AIP amendment, AIP supplements


c)

C. AIRAC, AIC, NOTAM, PIB


d)

D. All of above 


79.

Each NOTAM shall be located a series identified by _____ and a four-digit number followed by a stroke and a two-digit number for the year:

a)

A. a number


b)

B. a letter and number


c)

C. a letter or a number


d)

D. a letter


80.

NOTAM with series A used for

a)

A. Domestic flight


b)

B. International flight


c)

C. Both of them


d)

D. None of them 


81.

In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code

a)

A. 7500 


b)

B. 7600


c)

C. 7700


d)

D. 7000 


82.

An airspeed indicator displays

a)

A. TAS


b)

B. Relative Wind


c)

C. CAS 


d)

D. IAS 


83.

A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track. The tracks are not reciprocal:

a)

A. Base turn


b)

B. Procedure turn


c)

C. Racetrack


d)

D. Reverse procedure 


84.

What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC? 

a)

A. Time separation and track separation


b)

B. Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal separation


c)

C. Vertical, horizontal and composite separation


d)

D. Composite separation 


85.

The minimum difference between the AIRAC publication date and effective dated is at least ____

a)

A. 14 days 


b)

B. 28 days 


c)

C. 42 days


d)

D. 56 days 


86.

Over-flight permission shall become effective 01 hours prior to and until _____ hours after estimated over-flight time indicated in the flight permission

a)

A. 36


b)

B. 48


c)

C. 72


d)

D. 24 


87.

DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:

a)

A. 135 000 kg or more


b)

B. 136 000 kg or more


c)

C. less than 136 000 kg but more than 126 000 kg


d)

D. 146 000 kg or more 


88.

At Tan Son Nhat airport, when VIP departs, airport operation will be restricted

a)

A. 15 minutes after VIP flight takes off, that RWY can resume normal operation


b)

B. 05 minutes after VIP flight takes off, that RWY can resume normal operation


c)

C. 15 minutes before VIP flight lines up, the reserved RWY for VIP flight should be clear


d)

D. 05 minutes before VIP flight lines up, the reserved RWY for VIP flight should be clear


89.

When a pressure type altimeter is set to a QNH altimeter setting, it shall indicate:

a)

A. Elevation 


b)

B. Altitude


c)

C. Flight level


d)

D. Height 


90.

ATM also aids in search and rescue

a)

A. True


b)

B. Definitely


c)

C. Probably


d)

D. False 


91.

An aircraft is maintaining FL150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70.

It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL140 or below can be expected?


a)

A. When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL140


b)

B. When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL130


c)

C. When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL120


d)

D. When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL70 


92.

What should we know as heading

a)

A. The same as bearing 


b)

B. The longitudinal axis of an aircraft pointed and expressed in degrees from North


c)

C. The same as track


d)

D. A and C 


93.

On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start?

a)

A. IF


b)

B. MAPt


c)

C. IAF


d)

D. FAF


94.

The definition of AIC

a)

A. A notice containing information that does not qualify for the origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIP, but which relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administrative or legislative matters


b)

B. A publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation


c)

C. An acronym signifying a system aimed at advance notification, based on common effective dates, of circumstances that necessitate significant changes in operating practices


d)

D. A special series NOTAM notifying by means of a specific format change in activity of a volcano, a volcanic eruption and/or volcanic ash cloud that is of significance to aircraft operations


95.

What are the three principal processes of air traffic management?

a)

A. Airspace management, Air traffic flow management and Aircraft system maintenance


b)

B. Air traffic control, Air traffic flow management and Aircraft system maintenance 


c)

C. Air traffic services, Airspace management and Air traffic flow management


d)

D. Air traffic control, Airspace management and Air traffic flow management 


96.

When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be:

a)

A. 2 minutes


b)

B. 5 minutes 


c)

C. 3 minutes


d)

D. 4 minutes 


97.

In ATFN messages, what is YNYX?

a)

A. For a computer facility at Area Control Center 


b)

B. International NOTAM Office


c)

C. For Area Control Center


d)

D. Military Flight Operational Control Center 


98.

A flight plan for a flight to be provided with air traffic control service shall be submitted at least _____ before departure

a)

A. 60 minutes


b)

B. 30 minutes


c)

C. 45 minutes


d)

D. 15 minutes 


99.

In METAR, the term "CAVOK" is used when

a)

A. Visibility is 10 km or more


b)

B. No weather of significance to aviation


c)

C. No cloud of operational significance


d)

D. All of above


100.

Which abbreviation is used for Coordinated universal time?

a)

A. GMT


b)

B. ICT


c)

C. OUT 


d)

D. UTC