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Vet Science Final Part 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Poultry refers to bird species such as

a)

Chickens

b)

Turkeys

c)

Ducks and geese

d)

All of the above

2.

A chicken between the ages of six and eight weeks is a

a)

Pullet

b)

Broiler or fryer

c)

Hen

d)

Chick

3.

A female chicken that lays eggs is a

a)

Pullet

b)

Hen

c)

Rooster

d)

Capon

4.

The primary by-product from chickens is

a)

Blood

b)

Bones

c)

Variety meats

d)

Feathers

5.

A male chicken, at least eight months of age, is a

a)

Rooster or cock

b)

Capon

c)

Pullet

d)

Broiler or fryer

6.

What is the name of the highest point on most four legged animals?

a)

Distal

b)

Caudal

c)

Cranial

d)

Dorsal

7.

Where is the most common place to put a tag which identifies an animal?

a)

Auricle

b)

Nares

c)

Skin

d)

Vibrissae

8.

Which part of the skin houses the hair follicles?

a)

Keratin

b)

Caudal

c)

Epidermis

d)

Dermis

9.

Keratin is found in which of the following locations?

a)

Hair

b)

Hooves

c)

Feathers

d)

All of the answer choices

10.

Which of the following is NOT an anatomical location term?

a)

Ventral

b)

Caudal

c)

Cranial

d)

Vibrissae

11.

Which of the following terms is also known as vibrissae?

a)

Skin

b)

Tail

c)

Nails

d)

Whiskers

12.

Which of the following refers to the region of the body towards the head?

a)

Cranial

b)

Proximal

c)

Distal

d)

Dorsal

13.

Which of the following is NOT a layer of the skin?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Mesodermis

c)

Dermis

d)

Hypodermis

14.

Which of the following terms is the Latin word for tail?

a)

Distal

b)

Cauda

c)

Venter

d)

Proximus

15.

Which external component can be used for defense?

a)

Bone

b)

Hair

c)

Horns

d)

Dewclaw

16.

How many stomach compartments does a ruminant have?

a)

three

b)

two

c)

one

d)

four

17.

What does mastication mean?

a)

eating

b)

chewing

c)

breathing

d)

smelling

18.

The teeth of what animal continue to grow throughout its life?

a)

horse

b)

cow

c)

pig

d)

sheep

19.

If a horse is overfed, the excess feed escapes into what organ?

a)

small intestine

b)

large intestine or proximal colon

c)

stomach

d)

gallbladder

20.

Monogastric animals

a)

have complex stomachs

b)

are ruminants

c)

have two stomachs

d)

have simple stomachs

21.

What is another term used for proximal colon?

a)

small intestine

b)

large intestine

c)

rumen

d)

reticulum

22.

What structure aids milk in passing directly from the mouth to the abomasum in pre-ruminants?

a)

reticular groove

b)

omasum

c)

rumen

d)

cecum

23.

Which of the following is produced by the liver, stored in the gallbladder and secreted into the small intestine to aid in fat digestion?

a)

gizzard

b)

bile

c)

saliva

d)

mucus

24.

Which compartment is the true stomach of a ruminant?

a)

rumen

b)

reticulum

c)

omasum

d)

abomasum

25.

The gizzard is

a)

a. a highly muscular organ

b)

b. found in chickens

c)

c. used to grind feed

d)

d. all of the above

26.

Daily supply of feed or food is a

a)

diet

b)

ration

c)

basic nutrient

d)

essential nutrient

27.

Which of the following is an example of a ruminant?

a)

steer

b)

horse

c)

pig

d)

chicken

28.

The crude protein content of rye is

a)

five to seven percent

b)

12-13 percent

c)

15-17 percent

d)

18-20 percent

29.

The nutrient composed of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen is

a)

protein

b)

water

c)

fat

d)

carbohydrates

30.

The crude protein content of wheat is

a)

six to seven percent

b)

8-10 percent

c)

13-14 percent

d)

16-18 percent

31.

Dietary essential nutrients would include

a)

vitamins

b)

minerals

c)

some amino acids

d)

all of the above

32.

The major source of energy for animals is

a)

protein

b)

carbohydrates

c)

vitamins

d)

minerals

33.

Vitamins can be divided into

a)

one group

b)

two groups

c)

three groups

d)

four groups

34.

Which cereal grain must be processed to provide nutrients to the animal?

a)

grain sorghum

b)

corn

c)

wheat

d)

barley

35.

The cereal grain popular as a feed for horses is

a)

grain sorghum

b)

wheat

c)

oats

d)

barley

36.

Who is the man known to be responsible for the five basic rules of genetics?

a)

Oliver Mendel

b)

Gregor Mendel

c)

Gregor Mandela

d)

Ivan Pavlov

37.

In what molecule are genes located?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

mRNA

d)

Chromosomes

38.

Which of the following is the type of cell division by which somatic cells divide?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Mitosis

c)

Oogenesis

d)

Spermatogenesis

39.

Which of the following refers to the number of chromosomes in a sex cell which is half of the original number?

a)

Diploid

b)

Haploid

c)

Gametes

d)

Chromatin

40.

In meiosis, crossing over of chromosomes results in a healthy population because of which of the following?

a)

Prophase

b)

Genetic variability

c)

Mitosis

d)

Homologous chromosomes

41.

Which of the following chromosome pairings would a normal female duck have?

a)

XY

b)

XX

c)

ZW

d)

ZZ

42.

The DNA molecule is usually found in what form?

a)

Double helix

b)

Single strand

c)

Hexagon

d)

Nucleotide

43.

Which of the following nitrogen bases is NOT found in RNA?

a)

Uracil

b)

Thymine

c)

Adenine

d)

Guanine

44.

In what structure are proteins produced?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

DNA molecule

d)

Cell wall

45.

Which of the following is determined by both genetics and environment?

a)

Genotype

b)

Genetic variability

c)

Phenotype

d)

Oogenesis

46.

What is the first step in developing a breeding program?

a)

Setting goals

b)

Choosing and weighing traits

c)

Determining measurement

d)

Devising a strategy for selecting parents

47.

What type of breeding system is designed to take advantage of both hybrid vigor and breeding value?

a)

Pure breeding

b)

Impure breeding

c)

Crossbreeding

d)

Multi-breeding

48.

In which type of crossbreeding system must replacement females be purchased from or produced in a separate environment?

a)

Rotational crossbreeding system

b)

Static crossbreeding system

c)

Rotational-terminal crossbreeding system

d)

Modified static crossbreeding system

49.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of artificial insemination?

a)

Decrease spread of disease

b)

Increase the number of offspring from a superior sire

c)

Identifies the sire for fertility

d)

Increases the number of sires needed

50.

What method of breeding is used to develop specialized “lines” of animals?

a)

Inbreeding

b)

Crossbreeding

c)

Pure breeding

d)

Multi-breeding

51.

Selection of which parent is more important when a producer is developing a breeding program?

a)

Sire selection

b)

Dam selection

c)

Selection of both parents is equally important

d)

Selection of the parents is not important

52.

If you chose grading up as the method of breeding for your operation, what generation would you see the most evidence of improvement?

a)

Second generation

b)

Third generation

c)

Fourth generation

d)

Fifth generation

53.

What is hybrid vigor?

a)

Crossbred offspring exceeds the average of the two parental breeds

b)

The value of an animal as a parent

c)

The performance expected from the progeny of each sire or dam

d)

The mating of related individuals in which the sire and dam share at least one ancestor

54.

What two types of breeding systems are generally used by individuals in the purebred industry?

a)

Inbreeding and linebreeding

b)

Crossbreeding and inbreeding

c)

Crossbreeding and linebreeding

d)

Half breeding and full breeding

55.

What method of breeding can increase conception rates by five to ten percent?

a)

Artificial breeding

b)

Stud mating

c)

Pen mating

d)

Hand mating

56.

Larry is a producer and wants to save time when planning his artificial insemination program. He is able to control the ovulation in all his female recipients. This process is referred to as (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Control birthing

Ovulation sequence

Selective mating

Estrus synchronization

57.

CIDR stands for (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Compound Implant Does Recipient

Controlled Intravaginal Drug Release

Controlled Intramuscular Does Release

Compound Implant Drug Recipient

58.

Select all the following methods producers use to determine ovulation in sheep and goats.

a)

Laparoscope

b)

Scalpel

c)

Stethoscope

d)

Ultrasound

59.

Sarah is a swine producer and wants to incorporate a new breeding method into her operation. Which method is most commonly used in the swine industry?

a)

Artificial insemination

b)

Embryo transfer

c)

Natural selection

d)

Cloning

60.

When collecting semen from a boar, the collection container should be filled with water at (a)   .

Choose from the below words

38°C (100°F)

35°F (2°C)

45°F (7°C)

43°C (109°F)

61.

Josh is analyzing the semen he collected from his bull. Which characteristic is he considering?

a)

Appearance

b)

Concentration

c)

Morphology

d)

Motility

e)

All of the answer choices

62.

Which of the following is a technique producers use for collecting semen in cattle?

a)

Gloved-hand technique

b)

Artificial insemination

c)

Electroejaculation

d)

All of the answer choices

63.

How is artificial insemination performed on horses?

a)

Surgically

b)

Microscopically

c)

Vaginally

d)

None of the answer choices

64.

The process of cloning when the donor cell is fused with the oocyte is called ________.

a)

Incubation

b)

Electrofusion

c)

Electroporation

d)

Cell manipulation

65.

Which breeding technology utilizes gene banking?

a)

Cloning

b)

Artificial insemination

c)

Embryo transfer

d)

All technologies utilize gene banking

66.

Which hormone does CIDRs release?

a)

Testosterone

b)

Estrogen

c)

Progesterone

d)

FSH

67.

What is the significance of corpora lutea (CL)?

a)

CLs indicate the female is prepared to receive an embryo

b)

CLs indicate the female has ovulated

c)

CLs indicate the recipient female is pregnant

d)

CLs indicate the female is a good candidate for artificial semination

68.

Miranda is researching breeding methods commonly used in the cattle industry. Which of the following breeding methods should she research?

a)

Natural breeding

b)

Artificial insemination

c)

Embryo transfer

d)

All of the choices are correct

69.

__________ is the process of developing primordial germ cells into viable sperm cells.

Choose from the below words

Ovulation

Gene banking

Ejaculation

Spermatogenesis

70.

Which of the following is NOT accurate about reproductive techniques applied to sheep and goats?

a)

A. Similar reproductive tracts

b)

B. The embryo transfer process requires the animal to be sedated

c)

C. A laparoscope is commonly used in breeding methods

d)

D. The most widely used breeding technology is AI

71.

Ideally, a sow or gilt will stop standing within 12 hours after being artificially inseminated.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Which livestock species commonly uses the gloved hand technique for semen collection?

a)

Sheep

b)

Goats

c)

Swine

d)

Cattle

73.

Select the following valid reasons for breeding techniques, such as AI and ET being applied in the horse industry.

a)

Discussed breeding methods help prevent breeding accidents

b)

Horse producers prefer AI and ET since they are more time efficient than traditional breeding

c)

There is less risk of sexual transmitted diseases with AI and ET

d)

There is significantly less stress related to traveling on the animal

e)

Unnatural breeding methods are more cost effective

74.

Which of the following terms refers to the state of development when a cell culture reaches maximum density?

a)

Conceive

b)

Confluent

c)

Connected

d)

Consistent

75.

Larry is a producer and wants to save time when planning his artificial insemination program. He is able to control the ovulation in all his female recipients. This process is referred to as (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Control birthing

Ovulation sequence

Selective mating

Estrus synchronization

76.

CIDR stands for (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Compound Implant Does Recipient

Controlled Intravaginal Drug Release

Controlled Intramuscular Does Release

Compound Implant Drug Recipient

77.

Select all the following methods producers use to determine ovulation in sheep and goats.

a)

Laparoscope

b)

Scalpel

c)

Stethoscope

d)

Ultrasound

78.

Sarah is a swine producer and wants to incorporate a new breeding method into her operation. Which method is most commonly used in the swine industry?

a)

Artificial insemination

b)

Embryo transfer

c)

Natural selection

d)

Cloning

79.

When collecting semen from a boar, the collection container should be filled with water at (a)   .

Choose from the below words

38°C (100°F)

35°F (2°C)

45°F (7°C)

43°C (109°F)

80.

Josh is analyzing the semen he collected from his bull. Which characteristic is he considering?

a)

Appearance

b)

Concentration

c)

Morphology

d)

Motility

e)

All of the answer choices

81.

Which of the following is a technique producers use for collecting semen in cattle?

a)

Gloved-hand technique

b)

Artificial insemination

c)

Electroejaculation

d)

All of the answer choices

82.

How is artificial insemination performed on horses?

a)

Surgically

b)

Microscopically

c)

Vaginally

d)

None of the answer choices

83.

The process of cloning when the donor cell is fused with the oocyte is called ________.

a)

Incubation

b)

Electrofusion

c)

Electroporation

d)

Cell manipulation

84.

Which breeding technology utilizes gene banking?

a)

Cloning

b)

Artificial insemination

c)

Embryo transfer

d)

All technologies utilize gene banking

85.

Which hormone does CIDRs release?

a)

Testosterone

b)

Estrogen

c)

Progesterone

d)

FSH

86.

What is the significance of corpora lutea (CL)?

a)

CLs indicate the female is prepared to receive an embryo

b)

CLs indicate the female has ovulated

c)

CLs indicate the recipient female is pregnant

d)

CLs indicate the female is a good candidate for artificial semination

87.

Miranda is researching breeding methods commonly used in the cattle industry. Which of the following breeding methods should she research?

a)

Natural breeding

b)

Artificial insemination

c)

Embryo transfer

d)

All of the choices are correct

88.

__________ is the process of developing primordial germ cells into viable sperm cells.

a)

Ovulation

b)

Gene banking

c)

Ejaculation

d)

Spermatogenesis

89.

Which of the following is NOT accurate about reproductive techniques applied to sheep and goats?

a)

A. Similar reproductive tracts

b)

B. The embryo transfer process requires the animal to be sedated

c)

C. A laparoscope is commonly used in breeding methods

d)

D. The most widely used breeding technology is AI

90.

Ideally, a sow or gilt will stop standing within 12 hours after being artificially inseminated.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Which livestock species commonly uses the gloved hand technique for semen collection?

a)

Sheep

b)

Goats

c)

Swine

d)

Cattle

92.

Select the following valid reasons for breeding techniques, such as AI and ET being applied in the horse industry.

a)

Discussed breeding methods help prevent breeding accidents

b)

Horse producers prefer AI and ET since they are more time efficient than traditional breeding

c)

There is less risk of sexual transmitted diseases with AI and ET

d)

There is significantly less stress related to traveling on the animal

e)

Unnatural breeding methods are more cost effective

93.

Which of the following terms refers to the state of development when a cell culture reaches maximum density?

a)

Conceive

b)

Confluent

c)

Connected

d)

Consistent

94.

What characteristic do the diseases leptospirosis and tuberculosis have in common?

a)

No available treatment

b)

Zoonotic diseases

c)

Defined as a “disease complex”

d)

Should be reported immediately

95.

A common prevention technique against bacterial disease is __________.

a)

Administering vaccinations

b)

Calling a veterinarian

c)

Adjusting feeding rations

d)

Administering antibiotics

96.

Which of the following diseases must immediately be reported to local and state health department, animals health officials and the CDC National Center for Infectious Diseases?

a)

Anthrax

b)

Erysipelas

c)

Leptospirosis

d)

Vibriosis

97.

Which of the following causes neurologic signs of circling, head pressing, incoordination and convulsion?

a)

Vibriosis

b)

Enterotoxemia

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Brucellosis

98.

Which of the following diseases is one of the most significant economic losses for cattle producers?

a)

Foot rot

b)

Zoonotic diseases

c)

Bovine respiratory disease

d)

Pink eye

99.

What is the primary function of the rumen in ruminant animals?

a)

Digestion of proteins

b)

Production of bile

c)

Fermentation of feed

d)

Absorption of water

100.

Which of the following grains is least commonly used as livestock feed?

a)

Rice

b)

Oats

c)

Wheat

d)

Barley

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