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Study Guide for BIOS 256 - Week 2: Digestive System II

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The anatomical structures of the lower GI tract and its accessory organs include:

a)

Esophagus, stomach, liver, pancreas

b)

Small intestine, large intestine, rectum, liver, pancreas, gallbladder

c)

Pharynx, esophagus, stomach, spleen

d)

Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, appendix

2.

What is the main function of the small intestine?

a)

90% of digestion and nutrient absorption.

b)

Production of bile for fat emulsification.

c)

Storage of undigested food material.

d)

Absorption of water and electrolytes only.

3.

Which of the following is NOT a section of the small intestine?

a)

Duodenum

b)

Jejunum

c)

Ileum

d)

Colon

4.

Which feature of the small intestine slows chyme movement?

a)

Villi

b)

Microvilli

c)

Circular folds

d)

Lacteals

5.

What is the function of villi in the small intestine?

a)

Villi contain blood capillaries and lacteals.

b)

Villi secrete digestive enzymes into the stomach.

c)

Villi produce insulin for glucose regulation.

d)

Villi store bile for fat digestion.

6.

Which structure forms the brush border and houses enzymes in the small intestine?

a)

Microvilli

b)

Villi

c)

Goblet cells

d)

Crypts of Lieberkühn

7.

Which hormone is secreted by S-cells and stimulates the pancreas to secrete bicarbonate?

a)

Secretin

b)

Gastrin

c)

Insulin

d)

Glucagon

8.

Which hormone stimulates bile secretion?

a)

Secretin

b)

CCK

c)

GIP

d)

Motilin

9.

What is the function of GIP secreted by K-cells?

a)

Inhibits acid/motility, stimulates insulin.

b)

Stimulates gastric acid secretion.

c)

Increases gastric motility.

d)

Inhibits insulin secretion.

10.

Motilin, secreted by Mo-cells, increases what function in the digestive system?

a)

Gut motility (MMC)

b)

Gastric acid secretion

c)

Bile production

d)

Insulin release

11.

Which section of the small intestine is responsible for bile and pancreatic enzyme entry and has a focus on digestion?

a)

Duodenum

b)

Jejunum

c)

Ileum

d)

Cecum

12.

Which section of the small intestine is villi-rich and is associated with nutrient absorption and Celiac Disease?

a)

Jejunum

b)

Duodenum

c)

Ileum

d)

Colon

13.

Which section of the small intestine is responsible for B12 and bile salt absorption and is associated with Peyer's patches and Crohn's Disease?

a)

Ileum

b)

Duodenum

c)

Jejunum

d)

Cecum

14.

What are the parts of the large intestine in order?

a)

Cecum → Colon (ascending → transverse → descending → sigmoid) → Rectum → Anus

b)

Cecum → Rectum → Colon (ascending → transverse → descending → sigmoid) → Anus

c)

Colon (ascending → transverse → descending → sigmoid) → Cecum → Rectum → Anus

d)

Rectum → Cecum → Colon (ascending → transverse → descending → sigmoid) → Anus

15.

What is the main function of the large intestine?

a)

Absorbs remaining water/electrolytes, forms feces

b)

Produces digestive enzymes

c)

Breaks down proteins into amino acids

d)

Absorbs most nutrients from food

16.

What does the appendix contain and what does it store?

a)

Contains lymphoid tissue, stores beneficial gut flora

b)

Contains digestive enzymes, stores bile

c)

Contains muscle tissue, stores vitamins

d)

Contains nerve cells, stores hormones

17.

What is the first step in the defecation reflex?

a)

Rectal stretch → baroreceptors

b)

Relaxation of the internal anal sphincter

c)

Contraction of abdominal muscles

d)

Activation of external anal sphincter

18.

What is the second step in the defecation reflex?

a)

Signal to spinal cord

b)

Relaxation of anal sphincter

c)

Absorption of water in colon

d)

Contraction of abdominal muscles

19.

Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down carbohydrates?

a)

Salivary amylase, pancreatic amylase, sucrase, maltase, lactase

b)

Pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase

c)

Lipase, phospholipase, cholesterol esterase

d)

DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase, helicase, ligase

20.

What is the end product of carbohydrate digestion?

a)

Monosaccharides (glucose, fructose, galactose)

b)

Amino acids

c)

Fatty acids and glycerol

d)

Disaccharides

21.

Which enzymes are involved in protein digestion?

a)

Pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin, aminopeptidase, dipeptidase

b)

Amylase, maltase, lactase, sucrase, lipase

c)

DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase, ligase, helicase, primase

d)

Lipase, bile salts, pancreatic lipase, colipase, phospholipase

22.

What is the end product of protein digestion?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Glucose

d)

Nucleotides

23.

Which enzyme is responsible for fat digestion?

a)

Lingual/gastric/pancreatic lipase

b)

Amylase

c)

Pepsin

d)

Trypsin

24.

Bile salts emulsify fats and are absorbed into lacteals as what?

a)

Chylomicrons

b)

Micelles

c)

Triglycerides

d)

Fatty acids

25.

Which enzyme is responsible for nucleic acid digestion?

a)

Pancreatic nucleases

b)

Pepsin

c)

Amylase

d)

Lipase

26.

What is the end product of nucleic acid digestion?

a)

Nucleotides → bases, sugar, phosphate

b)

Amino acids

c)

Fatty acids and glycerol

d)

Monosaccharides

27.

Which minerals are absorbed by active transport in the digestive system?

a)

Iron and calcium

b)

Sodium and potassium

c)

Magnesium and zinc

d)

Phosphorus and chloride

28.

What is the mechanism for water absorption in the intestine?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Active transport

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Endocytosis

29.

Where are bile salts reabsorbed in the digestive system?

a)

Ileum

b)

Duodenum

c)

Stomach

d)

Jejunum

30.

Which of the following vitamins are synthesized by the gut microbiome?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin B12

e)

Folate

31.

The gut microbiome ferments fiber to produce what?

a)

Short-chain fatty acids

b)

Amino acids

c)

Glucose

d)

Bile acids

32.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the gut microbiome?

a)

Synthesizes vitamins

b)

Ferments fiber

c)

Controls peristalsis

d)

Supports immune function

33.

Which reflex is responsible for increased colon motility when food enters the stomach?

a)

Gastrocolic

b)

Enterogastric

c)

Gastroileal

34.

The enterogastric reflex slows gastric emptying when food enters the duodenum.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

What is the trigger for the cephalic phase of digestion?

a)

Sight/smell

b)

Swallowing food

c)

Absorption in the small intestine

d)

Release of bile

36.

What is the action during the cephalic phase of digestion?

a)

Prepares stomach (HCl, motility)

b)

Absorbs nutrients in the small intestine

c)

Breaks down fats in the mouth

d)

Neutralizes acid in the duodenum

37.

What is the trigger for the gastric phase of digestion?

a)

Food in stomach

b)

Sight of food

c)

Absorption of nutrients

d)

Release of bile

38.

What is the action during the gastric phase of digestion?

a)

Increases secretions

b)

Decreases motility

c)

Inhibits enzyme production

d)

Reduces acid secretion

39.

What is the trigger for the intestinal phase of digestion?

a)

Chyme in duodenum

b)

Saliva in mouth

c)

Pepsin in stomach

d)

Bile in gallbladder

40.

What is the action during the intestinal phase of digestion?

a)

Releases secretin, CCK

b)

Inhibits bile production

c)

Stimulates gastric acid secretion

d)

Promotes salivary amylase release

41.

What initiates defecation?

a)

Rectal stretch activates baroreceptors

b)

Contraction of the diaphragm

c)

Relaxation of the esophageal sphincter

d)

Inhibition of gastric acid secretion

42.

What do enteroendocrine cells secrete?

a)

Secretin, CCK, GIP, Motilin

b)

Pepsin, Trypsin, Amylase, Lipase

c)

Insulin, Glucagon, Somatostatin, Pancreatic Polypeptide

d)

Histamine, Serotonin, Dopamine, Acetylcholine

43.

What does bile do?

a)

Emulsifies fats for easier digestion

b)

Breaks down proteins into amino acids

c)

Absorbs water from digested food

d)

Produces insulin for blood sugar regulation

44.

What is needed for B12 absorption?

a)

Intrinsic factor

b)

Pepsin

c)

Amylase

d)

Bile salts

45.

Best place to auscultate bowel sounds?

a)

RLQ near ileocecal valve

b)

LUQ near spleen

c)

RUQ near liver

d)

LLQ near sigmoid colon

46.

Function of gastrin?

a)

Increases HCl secretion and gastric motility

b)

Decreases HCl secretion and gastric motility

c)

Stimulates insulin secretion

d)

Inhibits bile production

47.

Most common factor in hemorrhoids?

a)

Increased abdominal pressure

b)

Low blood sugar

c)

Decreased heart rate

d)

Vitamin C deficiency

e)

Low calcium levels

48.

What is the main pathophysiology of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)?

a)

Malfunction of the Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES) allows stomach acid to flow into the esophagus.

b)

Infection of the stomach lining

c)

Blockage of the intestines

d)

Overproduction of bile

49.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended lifestyle modification for GERD?

a)

Maintain healthy weight

b)

Elevate head of bed while sleeping

c)

Eat large meals before bedtime

d)

Avoid smoking & alcohol

50.

Fill in the blank: To help manage GERD, it is recommended to avoid _______ & alcohol.

a)

smoking

b)

exercise

c)

water

d)

vegetables

51.

Which foods should be avoided to help manage GERD?

a)

Spicy, fried, citrus, and chocolate foods

b)

Whole grains, lean meats, and non-citrus fruits

c)

Low-fat dairy, steamed vegetables, and bananas

d)

Oatmeal, apples, and grilled chicken

52.

Which of the following is a medical treatment for GERD?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Antacids (e.g., Tums)

c)

Insulin

d)

Beta-blockers

53.

Which of the following is an H2 blocker used in the treatment of GERD?

a)

Ranitidine

b)

Omeprazole

c)

Aspirin

d)

Metformin

54.

Name one type of medication used as a medical treatment for GERD.

a)

Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)

b)

Antihistamines

c)

Beta blockers

d)

Insulin

55.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of peptic ulcers?

a)

Helicobacter pylori

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Alcohol, smoking, stress

d)

Vitamin C deficiency

56.

Fill in the blank: _______ is a bacterium that can cause peptic ulcers.

a)

Helicobacter pylori

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Bacillus subtilis

57.

Which of the following is a type of peptic ulcer found in the stomach?

a)

Gastric Ulcer

b)

Duodenal Ulcer

c)

Esophageal Ulcer

d)

Oral Ulcer

58.

Where are duodenal ulcers located?

a)

Duodenum

b)

Stomach

c)

Esophagus

d)

Colon

59.

What is a common treatment for Gallstones?

a)

Cholecystectomy (gallbladder removal)

b)

Appendectomy (appendix removal)

c)

Coronary bypass surgery

d)

Tonsillectomy (tonsil removal)

60.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Gallstones?

a)

Severe pain

b)

Jaundice

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Pancreatitis

61.

Fill in the blank: A symptom of Gallstones is ________ pain.

a)

Severe

b)

Mild

c)

Intermittent

d)

Dull

62.

Which of the following is a symptom of Celiac Disease?

a)

Jaundice

b)

Bloating

c)

Pancreatitis

d)

Impaired fat digestion

63.

What is the cause of Celiac Disease?

a)

Autoimmune response to gluten (gliadin) that damages intestinal villi

b)

Bacterial infection of the small intestine

c)

Deficiency of digestive enzymes

d)

Excessive intake of dietary fiber

64.

Name one symptom of Celiac Disease.

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Headache

c)

Rash on hands only

d)

Frequent urination

65.

What is a strict gluten-free diet used to treat?

a)

Celiac Disease

b)

Diabetes

c)

Hypertension

d)

Asthma

66.

Which of the following is a treatment for inflammation in Celiac Disease?

a)

Cholecystectomy

b)

Steroid medications

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Insulin

67.

Pancreatitis is a symptom of Gallstones.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Anemia is a symptom of Celiac Disease.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Which of the following is a symptom of Crohn's Disease?

a)

Fatigue

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Headache

d)

Rash

70.

Which of the following is a symptom of Crohn's Disease?

a)

Abdominal cramps

b)

Sore throat

c)

Blurred vision

d)

Dizziness

71.

Which of the following is a symptom of Crohn's Disease?

a)

Chronic diarrhea

b)

Fever

c)

Cough

d)

Back pain

72.

Which of the following is a symptom of Crohn's Disease?

a)

Blood/mucus in stool

b)

Chest pain

c)

Swelling in legs

d)

Hair loss

73.

Which of the following is a symptom of Crohn's Disease?

a)

A) Joint inflammation

b)

B) Hearing loss

c)

C) Skin rash

d)

D) Insomnia

74.

Which of the following is a risk factor for Crohn's Disease?

a)

Genetics

b)

High cholesterol

c)

Lack of exercise

d)

Excessive sun exposure

75.

Which of the following is a risk factor for Crohn's Disease?

a)

Smoking

b)

Alcohol abuse

c)

Sedentary lifestyle

d)

High sugar intake

76.

Which of the following is a risk factor for Crohn's Disease?

a)

NSAID use

b)

Vitamin C deficiency

c)

Overeating

d)

Dehydration

77.

Which of the following is a risk factor for Crohn's Disease?

a)

Family history

b)

Poor hygiene

c)

Excessive exercise

d)

Low protein diet

78.

Which of the following is a complication of Crohn's Disease?

a)

Anal fissures

b)

Asthma

c)

Diabetes

d)

Hypertension

79.

Which of the following is a complication of Crohn's Disease?

a)

Fistulas

b)

Cataracts

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Migraine

80.

Which of the following is a complication of Crohn's Disease?

a)

Ulcers

b)

Kidney stones

c)

Anemia

d)

Allergies

81.

Which of the following is a complication of Crohn's Disease?

a)

Malnutrition

b)

Obesity

c)

Scurvy

d)

Appendicitis

82.

Which of the following is a complication of Crohn's Disease?

a)

Bowel obstruction

b)

Heart attack

c)

Stroke

d)

Glaucoma

83.

Which of the following is a complication of Crohn's Disease?

a)

Colorectal cancer

b)

Liver cirrhosis

c)

Gallstones

d)

Bronchitis

84.

Diverticulitis is most common in which age group?

a)

Children under 10

b)

Teenagers

c)

Adults over age 40

d)

Adults under 30

85.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for diverticulitis?

a)

Obesity

b)

Smoking

c)

High-fiber diet

d)

Sedentary lifestyle

86.

Which of the following are symptoms of diverticulitis?

a)

Abdominal pain and fever

b)

Cough and sore throat

c)

Headache and dizziness

d)

Chest pain and palpitations

87.

Fever is a symptom of diverticulitis.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Which quadrant of the abdomen is most commonly affected by pain in diverticulitis?

a)

Left lower quadrant (LLQ)

b)

Right upper quadrant (RUQ)

c)

Right lower quadrant (RLQ)

d)

Left upper quadrant (LUQ)

89.

Which of the following is a complication of diverticulitis?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Abscesses

c)

Hypertension

d)

Asthma

90.

Fill in the blank: Bowel perforation is a ________ of diverticulitis.

a)

complication

b)

treatment

c)

symptom

d)

prevention

91.

What is the recommended treatment for mild diverticulitis?

a)

Short-term liquid diet

b)

Immediate surgery

c)

High-fiber diet during acute phase

d)

Long-term antibiotic therapy

92.

Fill in the blank: One of the severe treatments for colorectal cancer is _________

a)

Bowel resection

b)

Physical therapy

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Acupuncture

93.

Fill in the blank: A surgical procedure that may be required in severe cases of colorectal cancer is called _________.

a)

Colostomy

b)

Appendectomy

c)

Gastrectomy

d)

Cholecystectomy

94.

Which of the following is a risk factor for colorectal cancer?

a)

Age < 30

b)

Age ≥ 50

c)

High physical activity

d)

Low body weight

95.

Fill in the blank: A family history is considered a ________ for colorectal cancer.

a)

risk factor

b)

treatment

c)

cure

d)

symptom

96.

Which lifestyle habit increases the risk of colorectal cancer?

a)

Smoking

b)

Regular exercise

c)

Drinking water

d)

Eating fruits

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