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Contract of Guarante, bailment, pledge and agency

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The person in respect of whose default, the guarantee is given is called…………

a)

Principal debtor

b)

Principal creditor

c)

Principal surety

d)

Principal bailee

2.

Which type of guarantee is given for series of transaction?

a)

General guarantee

b)

Implied guarantee

c)

Continuous guarantee

d)

General and continuous guarantee

3.

The contract of Guarantee should be ………..

a)

Implied

b)

only written

c)

only oral

d)

written or oral

4.

Liability of surety is……….

a)

Secondary liability

b)

Preliminary liability

c)

Subsidiary liability

d)

Co-related liability

5.

On whose default, the promise of discharge of liability is given in contract of guarantee.

a)

Principal debtor

b)

Subsidiary debtor

c)

Principal guarantor

d)

All above

6.

In case of co-sureties, release of one surety by the creditor:

a)

Amounts to discharge of other sureties

b)

Does not amount to discharge of other sureties

c)

Amounts to discharge of the surety so released vis-a-vis co-sureties as well

d)

None of the above

7.

A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person, is called----

a)

Indemnity

b)

Guarantee

c)

Agency

d)

Bailment

8.

Section-125 of the ICA,1872 deals with ------

a)

Rights of indemnity-holder

b)

Continuous guarantee

c)

General guarantee

d)

Implied guarantee

9.

Section-126 of the ICA,1872 deals with ------

a)

Consideration for guarantee

b)

Surety

c)

Principal debtor

d)

Creditor

10.

The liability of the surety is co- extensive with that of ------------unless it is otherwise provided by the contract.

a)

Principal debtor

b)

Surety

c)

Creditor

d)

Co-surety

11.

Revocation of continuing guarantee by surety's death is defined under --------section of ICA,1872.

a)

Section-140

b)

Section-130

c)

Section-142

d)

Section-132

12.

__________ who are bound in different sums are liable to pay equally as far as the limits of their respective obligations permit.

a)

Co-sureties

b)

Creditor

c)

Principal debtor

d)

All the above

13.

Implied promise to indemnify surety is defined under__________section of ICA,1872.

a)

Section-146

b)

Section-148

c)

Section-147

d)

Section-145

14.

Guarantee on contract that creditor shall not act on it until co-surety joins.-

a)

Section-145

b)

Section-144

c)

Section-143

d)

Section-146

15.

Any guarantee which the creditor has obtained by means of keeping silence as to material circumstances, is invalid. Under-------section.

a)

Section-145

b)

Section-144

c)

Section-143

d)

Section-146

16.

Any guarantee which has been obtained by means of misrepresentation made by the creditor, or with his knowledge and assent, concerning a material part of the transaction, is invalid under -------section.

a)

Section-145

b)

Section-144

c)

Section-143

d)

Section-146

17.

Section-138 of the ICA,1872 deals with ------

a)

Rights of indemnity-holder

b)

Release of one co-surety does not discharge others.

c)

Surety's right to benefit of creditor's securities.

d)

Implied guarantee

18.

Assertion (A): A guarantee is a contract in which one party promises to discharge the liability of a third person in case the third person fails to fulfill their obligation. Reason (R): Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a guarantee involves three parties: the principal debtor, the creditor, and the surety (guarantor).

a)

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

b)

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

c)

Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.

d)

Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

19.

A contract of Indemnity is ------

a)

Void agreement

b)

Quasi contract

c)

Contingent contract

d)

Wagering contract

20.

A Contract of Guarantee is a--- -agreement

a)

Bipartite agreement

b)

Tripartite agreement

c)

Either (A) or (B)

d)

None of these

21.

In a contract of Indemnity there are -

a)

3 parties and one contract

b)

2 parties and 2 contracts

c)

3 parties and 3 contracts

d)

2 parties and one contract

22.

A surety can be discharged from his liability by --------

a)

Notice

b)

Death

c)

Novation

d)

All the above

23.

The guarantee given for the future debt is---

a)

Prospective

b)

Retrospective

c)

Continuing

d)

None of the above

24.

Guarantee on the good conduct or honesty of the person employed in the particular organizations is------

a)

Fidelity

b)

Prospective

c)

Retrospective

d)

Continuing

25.

How many types of relationship arises in contract of guarantee?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

2

26.

-------- is a person employed to do any act for another, or to represent another in dealings with third persons.

a)

Principal

b)

Agent

c)

Agency

d)

All the above

27.

No consideration is necessary to create an agency is defined under__________section of ICA,1872.

a)

Setion-185

b)

Section-186

c)

Section-144

d)

Section-145

28.

Agent's authority may be --------or-------as per section-186 of ICA.

a)

Expressed

b)

Implied

c)

Expressed or Implied

d)

None of the above

29.

Extent of agent's authority is defined under__________section of ICA,1872.

a)

Section -186

b)

Section-187

c)

Section-188

d)

Section-185

30.

A "sub-agent" is a person employed by, and acting under the control of, ----------in the business of the agency

a)

Agent

b)

Substituted agent

c)

Principal

d)

Third parties

31.

The seller delivers the goods at the port of destination insisted by the buyer is called ---

a)

FOB contract

b)

Ex-ship contract

c)

FOR contract

d)

CIF contract

32.

Agent's responsibility for sub-agent appointed without authority is defined under __________section of ICA,1872.

a)

Section-192

b)

Section-193

c)

Section-194

d)

Section-195

33.

Which section of the ICA deal with the substituted agent , duly appointed by the principal but not the sub-agent?

a)

Section-192

b)

Section-193

c)

Section-194

d)

Section-195

34.

When an acts are done by one person on behalf of another, but without his knowledge or authority, he may elect to ratify or to disown such acts is called ------

a)

Election

b)

Contribution

c)

Ratification

d)

Rectification

35.

Termination of sub-agent's authority is defined under__________section of ICA,1872.

a)

Section-200

b)

Section-205

c)

Section-206

d)

Section-210

36.

Revocation and renunciation may be expressed or may be implied in the conduct of the principal or agent respectively is defined under __________section of ICA,1872.

a)

Section-200

b)

Section-205

c)

Section-206

d)

Section-207

37.

Agent's duty in conducting principal's business is defined under __________section of ICA,1872.

a)

Section-200

b)

Section-211

c)

Section-206

d)

Section-207

38.

Assertion (A): A principal can ratify an unauthorized act of his agent. Reason (R): Ratification is a retrospective approval of an unauthorized act.

a)

If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

If both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

c)

If A is true but R is false.

d)

If A is false but R is true.

39.

An agent is bound to render proper accounts to his ---------- on demand.

a)

Agent

b)

Principal

c)

Sub agent

d)

Third parties

40.

Agent not entitled to remuneration for business misconducted is defined under __________section of ICA,1872.

a)

Section-221

b)

Section-220

c)

Section-222

d)

Section-200

41.

Agent to be indemnified against consequences of lawful acts is defined under __________section of ICA,1872.

a)

Section-221

b)

Section-220

c)

Section-222

d)

Section-200

42.

Where one person employs another to do an act, and the agent does the act in good faith, the employer is liable to indemnify the agent against the consequences of that act, though it cause an injury to the rights of third persons defined under -------- section of ICA,1872.

a)

Section-221

b)

Section-223

c)

Section-222

d)

Section-200

43.

---------must make compensation to his agent in respect of injury caused to such agent by the principal's neglect or want of skill.

a)

Principal

b)

Agent

c)

Sub agent

d)

None of the above

44.

The person who involves in buying, selling and pledging to raise money in the ordinary course of business is --------

a)

Mercantile agent

b)

Non mercantile agent

c)

Substituted agent

d)

Sub agent

45.

The authority of the universal agent is-------

a)

Limited

b)

Unlimited

c)

Both A & B

d)

None of the above

46.

Assertion (A): An agent can bind his principal even without express authority. Reason (R): Implied authority arises from the nature of the agency or the course of dealing between the principal and the agent.

a)

If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

If both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

c)

If A is true but R is false.

d)

If A is false but R is true.

47.

Any person who is of the age of --------according to the law to which he is subject, and who is of -------, may employ an agent.

a)

Majority & sound mind

b)

Majority and unsound mind

c)

Lunatic and major

d)

During lucid interval and major

48.

What is the definition of "bailment" under Section 148?

a)

Transfer of property from one person to another

b)

Delivery of goods for some purpose under a contract, to be returned when accomplished

c)

Sale of goods between two parties

d)

Temporary ownership of goods

49.

Who is called the "bailee" in a contract of bailment?

a)

The person who receives the goods for a particular purpose

b)

The person who owns the goods

c)

The third-party intermediary

d)

The party who sells the goods

50.

Which section defines the duties of the bailor to disclose faults in goods bailed?

a)

Section 148

b)

Section 149

c)

Section 150

d)

Section 151

51.

What is the bailor's responsibility in relation to the faults in goods bailed?

a)

To ensure the goods are insured

b)

To disclose any faults that materially interfere with the use of the goods

c)

To repair any faults before delivering the goods

d)

To compensate the bailee for any damages

52.

Under Section 151, how much care must a bailee take of the goods bailed to them?

a)

As much care as an ordinary person would take of their own goods

b)

As much care as a person would take of the goods of another person

c)

As much care as required by the bailor

d)

No care is required unless specified

53.

If the bailee uses the goods for a purpose other than specified in the contract, what is the consequence?

a)

The contract is terminated automatically

b)

The bailee is liable for any damage caused during such unauthorized use

c)

The goods must be returned immediately

d)

The bailor must compensate the bailee for damages

54.

Under Section 155, what happens when the goods are mixed without the bailor's consent, and the goods can be separated?

a)

The property in the goods passes to the bailee

b)

The goods remain in the ownership of the bailee

c)

The goods must be separated at the expense of the bailee

d)

The bailor becomes liable for damages

55.

Under Section 159, when can the lender of a gratuitous bailment demand the return of the goods?

a)

Only after the specified time or purpose has expired

b)

At any time, even before the agreed time

c)

If the borrower has used the goods recklessly

d)

After informing the bailee 15 days in advance

56.

If a gratuitous bailment ends due to the death of the bailor, what happens to the contract?

a)

The contract continues if agreed upon in advance

b)

The bailment is automatically terminated

c)

The bailee must return the goods to the bailor's family

d)

The bailee can claim ownership of the goods

57.

When several joint owners bail goods, who can the bailee return the goods to?

a)

Any one joint owner without the consent of others

b)

All joint owners must be consulted

c)

Only the owner who bailed the goods

d)

The bailee must wait for written consent from all joint owners

58.

If a bailee returns goods without verifying the bailor's title, what is the result?

a)

The bailee is liable to the original owner for the loss

b)

The bailee is not responsible as they acted in good faith

c)

The bailee loses their right to compensation

d)

The goods are forfeited to the state

59.

If a bailee is given a reward for returning goods, what can the finder of goods claim under Section 168?

a)

They can sue for any compensation spent preserving the goods

b)

They can sell the goods and keep the proceeds

c)

They can claim the reward offered by the owner for returning the goods

d)

They are not entitled to any reward

60.

What is the general lien of a banker, factor, or attorney in relation to goods bailed under Section 171?

a)

They have no lien on the goods

b)

They can retain goods bailed to them until payment for any balance due

c)

They must return the goods immediately after a contract is completed

d)

They can sell the goods to recover any outstanding amounts

61.

What is the consequence of mixing the bailor's goods with the bailee's own goods without consent?

a)

The goods are automatically returned to the bailor

b)

The bailee is responsible for any expense or damage caused by the mixture

c)

The bailee becomes the owner of the goods

d)

The goods cannot be separated

62.

Which section defines the term "bailment" and the roles of the bailor and bailee?

a)

Section 148

b)

Section 150

c)

Section 151

d)

Section 160

63.

Which section allows the bailor to terminate the bailment if the bailee acts inconsistently with the terms of the contract?

a)

Section 153

b)

Section 154

c)

Section 155

d)

Section 159

64.

Which section specifies that the bailor is entitled to any increase or profit arising from the goods bailed?

a)

Section 163

b)

Section 164

c)

Section 165

d)

Section 166

65.

Section 161 deals with:

a)

The return of goods after a contract of bailment ends

b)

The responsibility of the bailee to return goods on time

c)

The compensation for injury caused by the bailee

d)

The expense of preserving pledged goods

66.

Which of the following best describes the "general lien" under Section 171?

a)

A right of the bailee to retain goods for any balance due, even without a contract

b)

A right to retain goods only if there is a specific agreement for each item

c)

A right to retain goods if the owner fails to pay for services rendered

d)

A right of bankers, factors, wharfingers, attorneys, and policy brokers to retain goods for a general balance of account

67.

Which of the following is an example of a bailee exercising a particular lien under Section 170?

a)

A jeweller retains a diamond for polishing until paid

b)

A tailor retains a coat until paid for the cloth

c)

A tailor delivers a coat on credit without retaining it

d)

A bank retains a customer's documents for safe-keeping

68.

What is the definition of a "pledge" under Section 172?

a)

A sale of goods as security for payment

b)

A loan made with the promise of repayment

c)

The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise

d)

A transfer of goods for a fixed period

69.

Which section deals with the pawnee's right to retain the pledged goods until the debt is paid?

a)

Section 172

b)

Section 173

c)

Section 175

d)

Section 176

70.

Which section of the Sale of Goods Act addresses the pawnee's entitlement to claim extraordinary expenses incurred for the preservation of pledged goods?

a)

Section 175

b)

Section 176

c)

Section 177

d)

Section 179

71.

What happens when the pawnor defaults on the payment of a debt or performance of a promise under Section 176?

a)

The pawnee can return the goods without any penalty

b)

The pawnee can sue the pawnor or sell the pledged goods after giving reasonable notice

c)

The pawnor automatically forfeits the pledged goods

d)

The pawnee is required to return the goods to the pawnor

72.

Section 177 allows the pawnor to redeem pledged goods:

a)

At any time before the actual sale, by paying the debt and any expenses incurred

b)

Only after the sale of the goods

c)

After the expiration of the time specified in the agreement

d)

Only with the pawnee's permission

73.

What is the effect of a pledge made by a mercantile agent with the consent of the owner under Section 178?

a)

The pledge is invalid unless the pawnor's consent is obtained

b)

The pledge is valid as if the agent were expressly authorized by the owner

c)

The pawnee must seek the owner's permission to sell the goods

d)

The pledge is void if the agent is not authorized in writing

74.

Which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with a pledge where the pawnor has only a limited interest in the goods?

a)

Section 179

b)

Section 180

c)

Section 181

d)

Section 172

75.

What action can a bailee take under Section 180 if a third person wrongfully deprives the bailee of the goods?

a)

The bailee can seek a remedy from the third person for deprivation or injury

b)

The bailee must report the incident to the pawnor

c)

The bailee must return the goods to the pawnor

d)

The bailee cannot take any action without the pawnor's permission

76.

Under Section 161, what happens if the bailee fails to return the goods on time?

a)

The bailee is not liable for damages

b)

The bailee is responsible for any deterioration of the goods

c)

The bailor can terminate the contract without any liabilities

d)

The bailee loses their right to compensation

77.

Under Section 164, who is responsible if the bailor is not entitled to make the bailment?

a)

The bailee is responsible for the loss

b)

The bailor is responsible for the loss

c)

Both the bailee and bailor share the responsibility

d)

The goods are forfeited

78.

What is the primary difference between a 'bailment' and a 'pledge'?

a)

Bailment involves the transfer of ownership, while a pledge involves goods used as security for debt

b)

A bailment does not require the goods to be returned, while a pledge always requires the return of goods

c)

A pledge is a type of bailment, but with the goods being used as security for a debt or promise

d)

There is no difference between bailment and pledge

79.

Which of the following distinguishes 'sale' from 'bailment'?

a)

In a sale, ownership of the goods is transferred, while in bailment, ownership is not transferred

b)

In bailment, the goods are sold for a fixed price, while in sale, goods are rented

c)

Bailment involves goods used for a specific purpose only, whereas sale is for general purposes

d)

Sale involves the delivery of goods as security for debt, while bailment does not

80.

What is the key difference between a pledge and a mortgage?

a)

A pledge involves the transfer of ownership, while a mortgage only involves a transfer of possession

b)

A pledge requires the borrower to give possession of the goods to the lender, while in a mortgage, the borrower retains possession of the property

c)

A pledge is only applicable to real property, while a mortgage applies to personal property

d)

A pledge does not involve any security for the loan, while a mortgage does

81.

What is the main difference between a sale and a hire purchase agreement?

a)

In a sale, ownership is transferred immediately, while in a hire purchase, ownership is transferred after all instalments are paid

b)

A hire purchase involves a fixed price, while a sale does not involve any price

c)

In a sale, the goods are rented, while in a hire purchase, the goods are bought outright

d)

A sale agreement always involves the delivery of goods, while a hire purchase does not require delivery

82.

How does a pledge differ from hypothecation?

a)

In a pledge, the goods are kept in the possession of the borrower, while in hypothecation, the goods are kept in the possession of the lender

b)

In hypothecation, the borrower retains possession of the goods, while in a pledge, the goods are transferred to the lender as security

c)

A pledge is always related to real property, while hypothecation applies to personal property

d)

There is no difference between a pledge and hypothecation

83.

A contract of indemnity is defined under which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

a)

Section 124

b)

Section 125

c)

Section 126

d)

Section 127

84.

The contract of indemnity involves how many parties?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

85.

In a contract of indemnity, who is the person giving the indemnity?

a)

Indemnifier

b)

Indemnity-holder

c)

Third party

d)

Beneficiary

86.

The promisee in a contract of indemnity is known as the:

a)

Indemnifier

b)

Indemnity-holder

c)

Principal debtor

d)

Surety

87.

Which of the following is an essential element of a contract of indemnity?

a)

A promise to save from loss

b)

Loss caused by the promisor's conduct

c)

Loss caused by the conduct of any other person

d)

All of the above

88.

When does the indemnifier's liability arise?

a)

When the indemnity-holder suffers loss

b)

When the contract is formed

c)

When the third party makes a claim

d)

When the promisor defaults

89.

Indemnity contracts can cover:

a)

Loss caused by human agency

b)

Loss caused by an accident

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

90.

The indemnifier is liable to pay for:

a)

Damages the indemnity-holder may be compelled to pay

b)

Costs incurred by the indemnity-holder in defending a suit

c)

All damages, costs, and legal fees

d)

Only direct losses

91.

A contract of indemnity is:

a)

A contingent contract

b)

A wagering contract

c)

A voidable contract

d)

A void agreement

92.

The indemnity-holder can recover:

a)

All sums he is compelled to pay in any suit

b)

All costs which he may be compelled to pay in any such suit

c)

Both A and B

d)

Only nominal damages

93.

A contract of guarantee is defined under which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

a)

Section 124

b)

Section 125

c)

Section 126

d)

Section 127

94.

How many parties are involved in a contract of guarantee?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Five

95.

Who is the person to whom the guarantee is given?

a)

Principal debtor

b)

Surety

c)

Creditor

d)

Indemnifier

96.

In a contract of guarantee, the person who gives the guarantee is called the:

a)

Principal debtor

b)

Creditor

c)

Surety

d)

Indemnifier

97.

The person whose debt is guaranteed is called the:

a)

Principal debtor

b)

Creditor

c)

Surety

d)

Indemnifier

98.

A contract of guarantee may be:

a)

Only written

b)

Only oral

c)

Either oral or written

d)

Only implied

99.

Which of the following is NOT an essential feature of a contract of guarantee?

a)

Three parties

b)

Principal debt

c)

A past consideration

d)

Concurrence of all parties

100.

A continuing guarantee is defined in which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

a)

Section 126

b)

Section 127

c)

Section 128

d)

Section 129

101.

In a contract of guarantee, the surety's liability is:

a)

Primary liability

b)

Co-extensive with that of the principal debtor

c)

Limited to the amount guaranteed

d)

Independent of the principal debtor's liability

102.

The liability of a surety is discharged if:

a)

The creditor releases the principal debtor

b)

The principal debtor becomes insolvent

c)

The creditor fails to sue the principal debtor

d)

The surety gives notice of revocation

103.

Which of the following would discharge a surety from his obligations?

a)

Variance in the terms of the contract without the surety's consent

b)

Granting of time to the principal debtor by the creditor

c)

Release of the principal debtor by the creditor

d)

All of the above

104.

A surety is entitled to:

a)

Subrogation rights after paying the debt

b)

Indemnity from the creditor

c)

Release from liability if the principal debtor defaults

d)

All the above

105.

Which of the following contracts is void?

a)

A guarantee obtained by misrepresentation

b)

A guarantee for a minor's debt

c)

A guarantee without consideration

d)

A guarantee for future advances

106.

For a guarantee contract to be valid, there must be:

a)

An existing debt or obligation

b)

A new consideration for the surety

c)

Written consent from the principal debtor

d)

All of the above

107.

A guarantee that covers multiple transactions is called a:

a)

Specific guarantee

b)

Continuing guarantee

c)

Conditional guarantee

d)

Implied guarantee

108.

In the case of a contract of guarantee, the surety can claim:

a)

Contribution from other co-sureties

b)

Indemnity from the creditor

c)

Damages from the principal debtor

d)

Subrogation rights from the principal debtor only

109.

Which of the following is true regarding the surety's liability in a contract of guarantee?

a)

The surety's liability is contingent on the default of the principal debtor

b)

The surety's liability is primary and independent

c)

The surety is liable only if the principal debtor is solvent

d)

The surety's liability is limited to the amount of actual loss

110.

A surety's liability in a guarantee is:

a)

Primary and absolute

b)

Conditional upon the debtor's default

c)

Limited to the principal amount only

d)

Always discharged upon the death of the debtor

111.

A specific guarantee is discharged:

a)

When the guaranteed debt is paid

b)

After a specified period

c)

Upon the death of the surety

d)

When the creditor gives notice

112.

In a continuing guarantee, the surety is liable for:

a)

A single transaction only

b)

A series of transactions

c)

Transactions only if they are in writing

d)

Only past transactions

113.

The principal debtor is:

a)

The party who owes the debt

b)

The party who gives the guarantee

c)

The party to whom the guarantee is given

d)

The party who initiates the contract