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Mock Model Exam for Exit Exam 2025

Total questions: 143

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main reason for using reinforcement rings in large shell designs?

a)

To increase internal pressure

b)

To prevent buckling and structural failure

c)

To improve heat transfer efficiency

d)

To reduce manufacturing costs

2.

Why are baffles used in heat exchangers?

a)

To increase fluid velocity

b)

To reduce heat loss

c)

To prevent corrosion

d)

None

3.

Which factor is most critical when designing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger?

a)

Tube material conductivity

b)

Number of tubes

c)

Shell diameter

d)

Fluid viscosity

4.

What is the primary reason for using longitudinal baffles in shell-and-tube heat exchangers?

a)

To minimize flow velocity

b)

To increase turbulence and enhance heat transfer

c)

To eliminate cross-flow interactions

d)

To reduce shell fouling

5.

Which code is most commonly used for the design of pressure vessels?

a)

ASME Section VIII

b)

ASTM D2000

c)

ISO 14001

d)

API 650

6.

What is the primary purpose of stiffeners in externally pressurized pressure vessels?

a)

To improve thermal conductivity

b)

To reinforce structural integrity against buckling

c)

To control fluid velocity inside the vessel

d)

To optimize heat exchanger efficiency

7.

Which head type is most commonly used for high-pressure internal vessel applications due to its strength?

a)

Flat head

b)

Ellipsoidal head

c)

Hemispherical head

d)

Torispherical head

8.

Which reactor type is best suited for highly exothermic reactions requiring efficient heat removal?

a)

PFR

b)

Batch reactor

c)

Fluidized bed reactor

d)

CSTR

9.

Enzymes are best described as:

a)

Hormones

b)

Structural proteins

c)

Biological catalysts

d)

Energy carriers

10.

The Monod equation relates microbial growth rate to:

a)

Substrate concentration

b)

Temperature

c)

Oxygen concentration

d)

Time

11.

Which of the following is used to sterilize fermentation media?

a)

UV light

b)

Autoclaving

c)

Filtration

d)

Alcohol

12.

In aerobic fermentation, the terminal electron acceptor is:

a)

Nitrate

b)

Oxygen

c)

Sulfate

d)

Carbon dioxide

13.

A chemostat is an example of:

a)

Batch reactor

b)

Fed-batch reactor

c)

Continuous stirred tank reactor (CSTR)

d)

Plug flow reactor

14.

The lag phase in microbial growth curve is characterized by:

a)

Maximum cell division

b)

Cell death

c)

Adaptation without division

d)

Nutrient depletion

15.

The pH in a bioreactor is typically controlled using:

a)

Buffers

b)

Enzymes

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Inhibitors

16.

Fermentation used to produce ethanol from glucose is:

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

c)

Phototrophic

d)

Lithotrophic

17.

The specific growth rate (μ) is defined as:

a)

Biomass/time

b)

Time/biomass

c)

dX/dt

d)

(1/X)·(dX/dt)

18.

What is the order of a reaction whose rate is independent of the concentration of reactants?

a)

First order

b)

Second order

c)

Zero order

d)

Third order

19.

The unit of rate constant for a second-order reaction is:

a)

s⁻¹

b)

L/mol·s

c)

mol/L·s

d)

L²/mol²·s

20.

Which of the following reactors has no back-mixing?

a)

CSTR

b)

Batch

c)

PFR

d)

Packed bed

21.

The temperature dependency of reaction rate is best described by:

a)

Arrhenius equation

b)

Van’t Hoff equation

c)

Ideal gas law

d)

Le Chatelier's principle

22.

A first-order reaction has a half-life of 10 minutes. What will be the concentration after 20 minutes if the initial concentration was 0.8 mol/L?

a)

0.6

b)

0.4

c)

0.2

d)

0.1

23.

Which reactor is most suitable for large-scale gas-phase reactions?

a)

Batch

b)

CSTR

c)

PFR

d)

Tubular reactor

24.

For an exothermic reaction, increasing temperature generally leads to:

a)

Increase in rate

b)

Decrease in rate

c)

No change

d)

Decrease in enthalpy

25.

What happens to the rate of a zero-order reaction if the concentration is doubled?

a)

Doubled

b)

Tripled

c)

Remains constant

d)

Halved

26.

A catalyst increases the reaction rate by:

a)

Increasing activation energy

b)

Lowering activation energy

c)

Raising temperature

d)

Increasing pressure

27.

Le Chatelier’s principle is useful in:

a)

Batch reactor design

b)

Equilibrium reactions

c)

Gas-solid reactions

d)

Enzyme kinetics

28.

The rate law r = k[A][B] suggests a:

a)

First order

b)

Zero order

c)

Second order overall

d)

Third order overall

29.

The effectiveness factor in heterogeneous catalysis refers to:

a)

Product formation

b)

External diffusion

c)

Internal diffusion limitations

d)

Activation energy

30.

What is the dimension of the rate constant (k) for a zero-order reaction?

a)

mol/L·s

b)

L/mol·s

c)

1/s

d)

L²/mol²·s

31.

Which reactor type gives the highest conversion for a given volume?

a)

Batch

b)

CSTR

c)

PFR

d)

Fluidized bed

32.

Which equation relates pressure, volume, temperature, and number of moles?

a)

Arrhenius

b)

Rate Law

c)

Ideal Gas Law

d)

Le Chatelier

33.

The Damköhler number is the ratio of:

a)

Diffusion to reaction rate

b)

Flow rate to volume

c)

Reaction rate to transport rate

d)

Volume to conversion

34.

For a first-order reaction in a batch reactor, pa lot of ln[A] vs. t gives:

a)

Parabola

b)

Straight line

c)

Exponential curve

d)

Constant line

35.

The transfer function of a first-order lag system is given by:

a)

Kp/s

b)

Kp/s^2

c)

Kp

d)

Kp/(τp s + 1)

36.

The dynamic behavior of a purely capacitive system is characterized by:

a)

Adjusting itself to reach a new steady state

b)

Unbounded process output growth with time

c)

A constant output value at steady state

d)

It poses no control problems

37.

The dynamic behavior of a first-order system with a large time constant is characterized by:

a)

A fast response

b)

A slow response

c)

Unbounded process output growth with time

d)

A static gain of zero

38.

The transfer function of a process with a single output is typically represented as:

a)

A ratio of two polynomials

b)

A differential equation

c)

A linear equation

d)

A quadratic equation

39.

The poles of a transfer function are the:

a)

Zeros of the numerator polynomial

b)

Roots of the output equation

c)

Zeros of the denominator polynomial

d)

Roots of the input equation

40.

The result of the system's response for a positive real distinct pole in a system's transfer function is:

a)

Exponential decay

b)

No effect on the system's response

c)

Oscillatory behavior

d)

Exponential growth

41.

For a transfer function with complex conjugate poles, p1 = α+jβ and p1* = α-jβ which one of the following choices is true?

a)

When α >0, the response of the system grows to infinity with decreasing amplitude

b)

When α <0, the response of the system decays to zero with increasing amplitude

c)

When α >0, the response of the system decays to zero with decreasing amplitude

d)

When α <0, the response of the system decays to zero with decreasing amplitude

42.

For a process with four inputs (disturbances and manipulated variables) and three measured outputs, how many transfer functions should you formulate? What is the corresponding transfer function matrix (order of matrix)?

a)

4 transfer functions; Transfer function matrix order is 4x3

b)

12 transfer functions; Transfer function matrix order is 3x4

c)

7 transfer functions; Transfer function matrix order is 3x3

d)

12 transfer functions; Transfer function matrix order is 4x4

43.

During degree of freedom analysis for a distillation column with “N” number of trays (stages), how many variables of liquid and vapor compositions (separately) can we have?

a)

N +1 liquid compositions and N vapor compositions

b)

N+2 liquid compositions and N+1 vapor compositions

c)

N liquid compositions and N vapor compositions

d)

N liquid compositions and N+1 vapor compositions

44.

In the context of control system design, what is the purpose of selecting measurement(s)?

a)

To determine the control objective

b)

To indirectly influence the unmeasured variable

c)

To compare with the set point values

d)

To select the manipulated variable

45.

Which type of control configuration uses direct measurement of disturbances?

a)

Feedback control

b)

Feedforward control

c)

Proportional control

d)

Inferential control

46.

What is the role of a controller in a control system?

a)

To measure variables

b)

To adjust manipulated variables

c)

To select the control configuration

d)

To define the control objective

47.

When sugar is added to a coffee cup, the diffusion of sugar molecules into the solution is

a)

Thermal transfer

b)

Molecular mass transfer

c)

Convective mass transfer

d)

Mechanical mixing

48.

Which of the following factors does NOT influence the rate of mass transfer?

a)

Temperature

b)

Concentration gradient

c)

Color of the solution

d)

Surface area

49.

What is the primary difference between mass fraction and mass concentration?

a)

Mass fraction is dimensionless, while mass concentration has units.

b)

Mass fraction refers to the volume of a substance.

c)

Mass concentration is always greater than mass fraction.

d)

There is no difference; they are the same.

50.

How does pressure affect the molecular diffusivity of gases?

a)

Increases diffusivity with higher pressure

b)

Decreases diffusivity with higher pressure

c)

No effect on diffusivity

d)

Only affects diffusivity at low temperatures

51.

What is the main difference between adsorption and absorption?

a)

Adsorption involves penetration into the material; absorption does not.

b)

Adsorption occurs at the surface; absorption involves the entire volume.

c)

Adsorption is a gas phase process; absorption is a liquid phase process.

d)

Adsorption is reversible; absorption is not.

52.

What happens to ion exchange cycles at high contaminant concentrations?

a)

They become more efficient

b)

They remain unchanged

c)

They become shorter

d)

They eliminate the need for regeneration

53.

Which one of the following shows solid-to-gas mass transfer?

a)

Burning of firewood

b)

Rain formation

c)

Brewing tea from a teabag

d)

Diffusion of oxygen from the lungs to the blood

54.

In solvent extraction, the residual feed solution containing little solute is called:

a)

Raffinate

b)

Extract

c)

Solvent

d)

Concentrate

55.

Which property indicates that a liquid is more volatile?

a)

Low vapor pressure

b)

High boiling point

c)

High vapor pressure

d)

Low molecular weight

56.

For substances with similar boiling points, their relative volatility is:

a)

Greater than one

b)

Less than one

c)

Close to one

d)

Unrelated to boiling points

57.

Which equipment is primarily used in liquid-liquid extraction processes?

a)

Packed column

b)

Centrifuge

c)

Cooling tower

d)

Rotary dryer

58.

In a differential manometer, a head of 0.6 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is;

a)

2

b)

0.5

c)

Cannot be determined

d)

0.18

59.

Fluids with constant viscosity are categorized under

a)

Non-Newtonian fluids

b)

Incompressible fluids

c)

Compressible fluids

d)

Newtonian fluids

60.

What is hydrostatic pressure?

a)

Pressure exerted by a moving fluid

b)

Pressure exerted by a fluid at rest

c)

Pressure exerted by a gas

d)

Pressure exerted by a solid object

61.

The property of a fluid that determines its resistance to flow is called:

a)

Viscosity

b)

Density

c)

Pressure

d)

Surface tension

62.

The viscosity of gases generally increases with:

a)

Increasing temperature

b)

Decreasing temperature

c)

Increasing pressure

d)

Decreasing pressure

63.

Which one of the following statements is False?

a)

The pressure in a fluid at rest increases with depth

b)

In a fluid at rest, the pressure at a point remains constant

c)

The pressure over a free surface of a fluid at rest will vary with location

d)

On a free surface of a liquid, the pressure is the same at all points

64.

Fluids with constant density are categorized under

a)

Non-Newtonian fluids

b)

Incompressible fluids

c)

Compressible fluids

d)

Newtonian fluids

65.

The branch of fluid mechanics that deals with the motion of fluids without considering the forces causing the motion is called:

a)

Fluid dynamics

b)

Fluid kinematics

c)

Fluid mechanics

d)

Fluid statics

66.

The branch of fluid mechanics that deals with the motion of fluids without considering the forces causing the motion is called:

a)

Fluid dynamics

b)

Fluid kinematics

c)

Fluid mechanics

d)

Fluid statics

67.

The Navier-Stokes equation (Equation of motion) describes the:

a)

Conservation of mass in fluid flow

b)

Conservation of momentum in fluid flow

c)

Conservation of energy in fluid flow

d)

Conservation of density in fluid flow

68.

In inviscid flow, which of the following statements is true?

a)

Viscous forces dominate over inertial forces.

b)

Viscous forces dominate over pressure forces

c)

Inertial forces dominate over viscous forces.

d)

Pressure forces dominate over inertial forces.

69.

The continuity equation is the result of the application of the following law to the flow field

a)

First law of thermodynamics

b)

Newton's second law of motion

c)

Conservation of energy

d)

Conservation of mass

70.

Which one of the following statements is false?

a)

An ideal fluid has zero viscosity

b)

Flow of gases is compressible flow

c)

Pressure drop due to friction appears in reversible flow

d)

Irreversibility in flow is due to friction effect

71.

Streamlines in fluid flow represent:

a)

The path lines of fluid particles

b)

The velocity distribution within the fluid

c)

The pressure distribution within the fluid

d)

The energy distribution within the fluid

72.

The Eulerian approach in fluid kinematics:

a)

Follows the motion of individual fluid particles

b)

Describes fluid flow using a fixed control volume

c)

Considers the fluid flow in a Lagrangian reference frame

d)

Considers the fluid flow in an arbitrary reference frame

73.

The phenomenon of fluid flow where the fluid particles move in parallel layers with minimal mixing is called:

a)

Compressible flow

b)

Laminar flow

c)

Turbulent flow

d)

Incompressible flow

74.

The stream function is used to describe:

a)

Compressible flow

b)

Irrotational flow

c)

Turbulent flow

d)

Laminar flow

75.

The shape of the forced vortex under gravitational conditions is

a)

Hyperboloid

b)

spherical

c)

parabolic

d)

cylindrical

76.

What does sphericity represent in the context of particles?

a)

The degree of circularity of a particle

b)

The roughness of the particle surface

c)

The density of the particle

d)

The size of the particle

77.

Which mechanical unit operation is used to separate a liquid from a solid by passing the mixture through a porous medium?

a)

Filtration

b)

Sedimentation

c)

Extraction

d)

Distillation

78.

Which of the following is not a mechanical unit operation?

a)

Filtration

b)

Distillation

c)

Mixing

d)

Crystallization

79.

The power consumed in a size reduction process is directly proportional to the:

a)

Feed rate

b)

Particle size

c)

Work index

d)

Square of the speed of rotation

80.

Which of the following characteristics is desirable for a filter medium in filtration?

a)

High permeability

b)

Low permeability

c)

High porosity

d)

Low porosity

81.

The resistance offered by the filter medium to the flow of liquid is mainly due to:

a)

Frictional forces between the liquid and the filter medium

b)

Interactions between the liquid and the filter medium material

c)

Interactions between the liquid and the particles in the cake

d)

Frictional forces between the liquid and the particles in the cake

82.

Assuming kicks law, if the work required for a crusher to reduce a feed of 800 mm size to a product of 80 mm size is 12 kJ. What would be the work required to reduce a feed of 100 cm size to a product of 100 mm size?

a)

6 kJ

b)

12 kJ

c)

24 kJ

d)

144 kJ

83.

The process of transforming finely divided particles into particles of a larger size is

a)

Size reduction

b)

Crystallization

c)

Centrifugation

d)

Agglomeration

84.

“All processes in nature tend to occur with an increase in entropy and the direction of change always leads to the increase in entropy”. This statement belongs to______________________.

a)

Zeroth law

b)

First law

c)

Second law

d)

Third law

85.

A thermodynamic quantity which represents the total heat content of a system is called______.

a)

Entropy

b)

Temperature

c)

Enthalpy

d)

Pressure

86.

Which one of the following is odd about Quasi-Static process?

a)

It occurs infinite slowly

b)

Every of its step in the system tends to remain in equilibrium

c)

It is a reversible process

d)

It is an irreversible process

87.

Which of the following occurs without a change in the internal energy?

a)

Isochoric process

b)

Steady-state process

c)

Isenthalpic process

d)

Isentropic process

88.

What is the value of the absolute thermodynamic temperature scale?

a)

3k

b)

0k

c)

1k

d)

4k

89.

Which of the following follows the Carnot theorem?

a)

Heat engines

b)

Gas turbines engine

c)

Gas compressors

d)

All of the mentioned

90.

Which of the following causes irreversibility?

a)

Electrical resistance

b)

In elasticity

c)

Friction

d)

All

91.

Which of the following is known as the inequality of Clausius?

a)

Cyclic integral of dW/T<=0

b)

Cyclic integral of dW/T>=0

c)

Cyclic integral of dQ/T>=0

d)

Cyclic integral of dQ/T<=0

92.

Choose the correct pair of properties that describe entropy?

a)

Point function, intensive property

b)

Point function, extensive property

c)

Path function, extensive property

d)

Path function, intensive property

93.

The entropy of an isolated system can never __________________________.

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

c)

Be zero

d)

None

94.

Choose the correct statement from the given alternatives?

a)

Q for reversible process < Q for irreversible process and work for reversible < work for irreversible

b)

Q for reversible > Q for irreversible and work for reversible < work for irreversible

c)

Q for reversible < Q for irreversible and work for reversible > work for irreversible

d)

Q for reversible > Q for irreversible and work for reversible > work for irreversible

95.

A pure substance which exists in a single phase has ____________ independent properties?

a)

Zero

b)

Two

c)

One

d)

Three

96.

Which of the following is not a Maxwell equation?

a)

(∂T/∂V) = -(∂P/∂S)

b)

(∂P/∂T) = (∂S/∂V)

c)

(∂T/∂P) = -(∂V/∂S)

d)

(∂V/∂T) = -(∂S/∂P)

97.

For an ideal gas, ____________________________________.

a)

Volume expansivity = T and Joule-kelvin coefficient = 0

b)

Volume expansivity = (1/T) and Joule-kelvin coefficient = 1

c)

Volume expansivity = (1/T) and Joule-kelvin coefficient = 0

d)

Volume expansivity = T and Joule-kelvin coefficient = 1

98.

When does a vapor become a superheated?

a)

When the temperature of vapour is less than the saturation temperature at given pressure

b)

When the temperature of vapour is more than the saturation temperature at given pressure

c)

When the temperature of vapour is equal to the saturation temperature at given pressure

d)

None of the mentioned

99.

Which of the following statements regarding ideal solutions is false?

a)

Ideal solutions obey Raoult’s law under all conditions of temperature and concentrations

b)

There will be some change in volume on mixing the components, i.e, ∆Vmixing ≠ 0

c)

There will be no change in enthalpy when the two components are mixed, i.e., ∆V mixing ≠ 0

d)

There will be no change in volume on mixing the components, i.e., Vmixing =0

100.

Which one of the following thermodynamic quantities is not a state function?

a)

Gibbs free energy

b)

Enthalpy

c)

Entropy

d)

Work

101.

What is the heat of reaction for 𝑪𝟔𝑯𝟔 + 𝟑𝑯𝟐 → 𝑪𝟔𝑯𝟏𝟐, if heat of formation of 𝑪𝟔𝑯𝟔, 𝑯𝟐 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑪𝟔𝑯𝟏𝟐
are 25J, 5J, and 50J respectively?

a)

10J

b)

30J

c)

20J

d)

35J

102.

Which of the following statements will always apply when a reversible chemical reaction has attained equilibrium?

a)

All reactants will convert to products

b)

The reaction proceeds alternatively in the forward and reverse directions

c)

The Gibbs free energy of the system reaches a minimum

d)

The forward reaction will dominate over the reverse reaction

103.

Which one of the following is an expression of the Van’t Hoff equation?

a)

lnk = -∆H°/RT + ∆S°/R

b)

∆H(T2) = ∆H(T1) + ∆Cp(T2-T1)

c)

∆G°=∆H°-T∆S°

d)

∆U=q+w

104.

Which one the following is not correct about the reaction quotient (Qc) and the equilibrium constant (Kc)?

a)

If Qc > Kc the system proceeds from right to left to reach equilibrium

b)

If Qc = Kc the system is at equilibrium

c)

If Qc < Kc the system proceeds from left to right to reach equilibrium

d)

If Qc >Kc the system proceeds from right to left to reach equilibrium

105.

______________ states that the rate of a reaction is directly proportional to concentration of reactants raised to their respective moles

a)

Law of mass action

b)

Kick’s law

c)

Raoult’s law

d)

Law of chemical equilibrium

106.

The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine is to ______.

a)

Increase higher temperature

b)

Decrease higher temperature

c)

Increase lower temperature

d)

Decrease lower temperature

107.

What is the primary purpose of process control in process industries?

a)

To improve employee efficiency

b)

To reduce raw material usage to zero

c)

To monitor and regulate process variables for consistent product quality

d)

To automate office tasks

108.

What is the main purpose of malting in beer production?

a)

To increase alcohol content

b)

To clarify the beer

c)

To add carbonation

d)

To convert starch into fermentable sugars

109.

What is the main function of yeast during fermentation?

a)

To clarify the beer

b)

To consume sugars and produce alcohol

c)

To add flavor

d)

To remove proteins

110.

What is the significance of the wort boiling process in brewing?

a)

To cool the wort

b)

To sterilize the wort and add hops

c)

To clarify the beer

d)

To ferment the sugars

111.

What must be ensured during the beer filtration process for commercial shelf life?

a)

The beer must be carbonated

b)

The beer must be flavored

c)

The beer must be rendered stable

d)

The beer must be bottled

112.

What is the purpose of soaking harvested grain in water during the malting process?

a)

To dry the grain

b)

To activate enzymes

c)

To remove impurities

d)

To enhance flavor

113.

The main ingredient responsible for bitterness and aroma in beer is:

a)

Malt

b)

Hops

c)

Yeast

d)

Water

114.

Which of the following is the main chemical reaction in the clinker formation stage of cement production?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Calcination

c)

Combustion

d)

Hydration

115.

The purpose of adding gypsum in cement production is:

a)

To control setting time

b)

To accelerate setting time

c)

To improve color

d)

To increase strength

116.

What is the purpose of treating juice with lime during clarification?

a)

To sweeten the juice

b)

To coagulate and remove impurities

c)

To evaporate the juice

d)

To crystallize the sugar

117.

What is the final step in the sugar refining process?

a)

Centrifugation

b)

Crystallization

c)

Evaporation

d)

Milling

118.

Which of the following materials can be blended with clinker to reduce CO2 emissions?

a)

Limestone

b)

Fly ash

c)

Sand

d)

Clay

119.

Which of the following is NOT a main raw material for cement?

a)

Lime (CaO)

b)

Silica (SiO2)

c)

Alumina (Al2O3)

d)

Copper (Cu)

120.

What is the primary method used to crystallize sugar from juice?

a)

Cooling

b)

Evaporation and concentration

c)

Filtration

d)

Distillation

121.

Which of the following is NOT a typical responsibility of a chemical engineer?

a)

Process design

b)

Equipment fabrication

c)

Heat and mass transfer analysis

d)

Process optimization

122.

Which of the following is NOT a primary variable in process control?

a)

Temperature

b)

Pressure

c)

Flow rate

d)

Color

123.

The term 'process flow diagram (PFD)' refers to:

a)

A detailed schematic of plant piping and instrumentation

b)

A simplified diagram showing the flow of materials and major equipment

c)

A blueprint of electrical wiring

d)

A marketing strategy chart

124.

In chemical engineering, molar flow rate is defined as:

a)

Mass flow per unit time

b)

Volume flow per unit time

c)

Number of moles passing through a section per unit time

d)

Total volume of the reactor

125.

The process of separating components based on differences in boiling points is called:

a)

Filtration

b)

Distillation

c)

Absorption

d)

Adsorption

126.

The Reynolds number is used to predict:

a)

Heat transfer rate

b)

Flow regime (laminar or turbulent)

c)

Chemical reaction rate

d)

Viscosity of liquids

127.

The study of fluid flow, heat transfer, and mass transfer in chemical engineering is primarily concerned with:

a)

Transport phenomena

b)

Thermodynamics

c)

Reaction kinetics

d)

Process control

128.

Among the following unit operations, find the odd one

a)

Condensation

b)

Evaporation

c)

Distillation

d)

Adsorption

129.

Which type of heat exchanger analysis method can be used to determine the heat

transfer rate and outlet temperatures of the hot and cold fluids for prescribed fluid

mass flow rates and inlet temperatures when the type and size of the heat exchanger

are specified?


a)

LMTD method

b)

ε -NTU method

c)

Both

d)

None

130.

Which one of the following modes of heat transfer plays a major role in heat

transfer during the boiling and condensation process?

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Conduction and Convection

131.

In the case of a parallel flow heat exchanger, the lowest temperature theoretically

attainable by the hot fluid is

a)

Equal to the outlet temperature of the cold fluid

b)

More than the outlet temperature of the cold fluid

c)

Less than the outlet temperature of the cold fluid

d)

Either more or less than the outlet temperature of the cold fluid (depending upon the

fluid)

132.

In a liquid-liquid heat exchanger, for the same process temperature, the ratio of

the LMTD in parallel flow to the LMTD in counter flow is always

a)

<1

b)

>1

c)

1

d)

Infinity

133.

The Fourier number is used in the analysis of problems involving heat transfer by

a)

Forced convection

b)

Natural convection

c)

Transient conduction

d)

Steady state conduction

134.

What is the common law for mass transfer that is analogous to Fourier’s law of

conduction in heat transfer?

a)

Newton’s law of cooling

b)

Taylor’s law

c)

Fick's law

d)

Dalton's law

135.

In a convective mass transfer process, what dimensionless number is analogous to

the Nusselt number in heat transfer and relates convective mass transfer to diffusive

mass transfer?

a)

Reynolds number

b)

Sherwood number

c)

Schmidt number

d)

Lewis number

136.

The rate of heat conduction through a thick sphere of radius r1 and r2 is equal to:

a)

4𝜋𝑘(𝑇1-𝑇2)/(𝑟2-𝑟1)

b)

4𝜋𝑘 𝑟1𝑟2/(𝑟2-𝑟1)

c)

4𝜋𝑘 𝑟1𝑟2(𝑇1-𝑇2)/(r2-r1)

d)

2𝜋𝑘𝐿(𝑇1-𝑇2)/ ln(𝑟2/𝑟1)

137.

In the equation Q = UAΔT; where ΔT is

a)

Geometric mean temperature difference

b)

Arithmetic mean temperature difference

c)

Logarithmic mean temperature difference

d)

The difference in average bulk temperatures of hot and cold fluids

138.

NPV (Net Present Value) is preferred over payback period because:

a)

It is easier to calculate

b)

It considers the time value of money

c)

It always gives higher returns

d)

It ignores future cash flows

139.

Which of the following best defines IRR (Internal Rate of Return)?

a)

The discount rate at which NPV = 0

b)

The interest rate on a bank loan

c)

The highest rate of project failure

d)

The ratio of capital to operating cost

140.

Which type of flow sheet includes the most detail?

a)

Block flow diagram

b)

Process flow diagram (PFD)

c)

P&ID

d)

Layout drawing

141.

If operating costs increase but revenue remains the same, the break-even point:

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays constant

d)

Drops to zero

142.

The steady state temperature distribution in a wall is given by T = 300 - 3050x2, where x (in meters) is the position in the wall and T is the temperature (in oC). The thickness of the wall is 0.2 m, and the thermal conductivity of the wall is 1.2 (W/m oC). The wall dissipates the heat to the ambient at 30 °C. What is the heat transfer coefficient of the wall's surface at 0.2 m?

a)

12.5W/m2oC

b)

9.89W/m2oC

c)

9.5W/m2oC

d)

10.89W/m2oC

143.

In a heat exchanger, it is observed that ΔT1 = ΔT2, where ΔT1 is the temperature

difference between the two single-phase fluid streams at one end and ΔT2 is the

temperature difference at the other end. This heat exchanger is

a)

A condenser

b)

A counterflow heat exchanger

c)

An evaporator

d)

A parallel flow heat exchanger