wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Preguntas sobre el Sistema Linfático

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main function of the lymphatic system?

a)

Transport nutrients from the intestine to the blood

b)

Monitor body surfaces and react to harmful substances

c)

Synthesize hormones to regulate immunity

d)

Store red blood cells in case of hemorrhage

2.

Which of the following organs is considered a primary lymphoid organ?

a)

Axillary lymph node

b)

Thymus

c)

Spleen

d)

Tonsil

3.

B lymphocytes acquire immunocompetence and mature mainly in:

a)

Thymus

b)

Lymph nodes

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Spleen

4.

The antigen is:

a)

A phagocytic cell

b)

An inactivated vaccine

c)

A substance that induces an immune response

d)

A type of antibody

5.

What is the main effector cell of the adaptive immune response?

a)

Macrophage

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Lymphocyte

d)

NK cell

6.

CD4+ Th1 lymphocytes mainly secrete:

a)

IL-4 and IL-5

b)

IL-2 and IFN-γ

c)

IL-10 and IL-13

d)

TNF-β and TGF-β

7.

What is the immune response that involves antibody production called?

a)

Cellular response

b)

Humoral response

c)

Nonspecific response

d)

Autoimmune response

8.

Which of these cells is part of the innate (nonspecific) immunity?

a)

CD8+ T cells

b)

B cells

c)

NK cells

d)

CD4+ T lymphocytes

9.

What surface marker primarily identifies cytotoxic T lymphocytes?

a)

CD4

b)

CD8

c)

CD19

d)

CD21

10.

The lymphatic tissue associated with the intestine is known as:

a)

BALT

b)

GALT

c)

MALT

d)

NALT

11.

The tonsils belong to:

a)

Diffuse lymphatic tissue

b)

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

c)

Secondary lymph nodes

d)

Primary lymphoid organs

12.

What is the direction of lymph flow in lymphatic vessels?

a)

From nodes to tissues

b)

From tissues to the bloodstream

c)

From blood to connective tissue

d)

From veins to arteries

13.

The spleen mainly performs functions of:

a)

Maturation of T lymphocytes

b)

Filtration of antigens in the blood and removal of damaged erythrocytes

c)

Synthesis of B lymphocytes

d)

Plasma fusion of antibodies

14.

Where are Langerhans cells found in the context of the lymphatic system?

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Epidermis

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Thymus

15.

What type of lymphocytes interact with macrophages and are essential against intracellular pathogens?

a)

B lymphocytes

b)

Th2 T lymphocytes

c)

Th1 T lymphocytes

d)

Regulatory T lymphocytes

16.

An antigen that requires processing by macrophages to be presented to T lymphocytes is called:

a)

Mitogen

b)

Protein antigen

c)

Hapten

d)

Adjuvant

17.

What is the function of CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes?

a)

Produce antibodies

b)

Destroy virus-infected cells and tumor cells

c)

Present antigens to B lymphocytes

d)

Regulate the response of CD4+ T lymphocytes

18.

Lymph nodes are grouped in specific regions; which of these is NOT a main group?

a)

Cervical nodes

b)

Axillary nodes

c)

Mediastinal nodes

d)

Inguinal nodes

19.

Which of these is NOT a main group?

a)

Cervical ganglia

b)

Axillary ganglia

c)

Mediastinal ganglia

d)

Inguinal ganglia

20.

What structure connects lymphatic vessels with the venous system?

a)

Right lymphatic duct

b)

Thoracic duct

c)

Portal circulation vessels

d)

Deep lymphatic arteries

21.

The layer of reticular epithelial cells in the thymus has the function of:

a)

Producing B lymphocytes

b)

Educating and maturing T lymphocytes

c)

Filtering lymph before entering the thymus

d)

Secreting antibodies

22.

Which CD markers identify helper T lymphocytes?

a)

CD8+

b)

CD19+

c)

CD4+

d)

CD16+

23.

Lymph is primarily formed from:

a)

Filtered arterial blood

b)

Glandular secretions

c)

Interstitial fluid entering lymphatic capillaries

d)

Hepatic bile

24.

Which of these is a professional antigen-presenting cell?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

NK cell

c)

Dendritic cell

d)

Fibroblast

25.

The lymph node is primarily composed of:

a)

Red bone marrow

b)

Lymphoid tissue organized into cortex and medulla

c)

Stratified flat epithelium

d)

Hyaline cartilage

26.

Which of the following is NOT a secondary (peripheral) lymphoid tissue?

a)

Spleen

b)

Lymph node

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Tonsil

27.

Which of the following is NOT a type of striated muscle?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Cardiac muscle

d)

Visceral striated muscle

28.

In skeletal muscle, the contractile unit is called:

a)

Sarcolemma

b)

Sarcomere

c)

Myofibril

d)

Endomysium

29.

What filament is primarily composed of F-actin?

a)

Thick filament

b)

Intermediate filament

c)

Thin filament

d)

Titin filament

30.

Where are the nuclei located in a mature skeletal muscle fiber?

a)

In the center of the sarcoplasm

b)

In the periphery, just beneath the sarcolemma

c)

Scattered in the sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

Inside the mitochondria

31.

The visible transverse striations in electron microscopy are due to:

a)

Uniform distribution of mitochondria

b)

Alternating organization of thick and thin filaments

c)

Glycogen accumulation

d)

Lipid inclusions

32.

The connective tissue that surrounds each individual muscle fiber is called:

a)

Epimysium

b)

Endomysium

c)

Perimysium

d)

Fascia

33.

What type of skeletal muscle fiber is more resistant to fatigue and has high mitochondrial content?

a)

Type IIb fibers (fast twitch)

b)

Type I fibers (slow twitch)

c)

Type IIa fibers (intermediate)

d)

Type IIc fibers (immature)

34.

The hormone that stimulates the synthesis of erythropoietin in skeletal muscle is:

a)

Insulin

b)

Not applicable

c)

Cortisol

d)

Thyroxine

35.

What is the precursor cell that gives rise to skeletal muscle fibers during development?

a)

Fibroblast

b)

Mature myocyte

c)

Myoblast

d)

Myotube

36.

In smooth muscle, contraction is primarily regulated by:

a)

Troponin-tropomyosin complex

b)

Calmodulin and MLCK (myosin light chain kinase)

c)

Titin

d)

Protein C

37.

Which of the following characteristics describes cardiac muscle?

a)

Multinucleated and perinuclear fibers

b)

Voluntary movements

c)

Presence of intercalated discs

d)

Absence of sarcomeres

38.

What is the name of the period in which the muscle does not respond to another stimulus, regardless of its intensity?

a)

Contraction period

b)

Relaxation period

c)

Absolute refractory period

d)

Latent period

39.

Which molecular element is responsible for binding calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

a)

Tropomyosin

b)

Calsequestrin

c)

Actin

d)

Titin

40.

Which of these cells does NOT form part of skeletal muscle?

a)

Muscle fiber

b)

Satellite cell

c)

Schwann cell

d)

Intramuscular fibroblast

41.

What component of smooth muscle generates cross-bridges of actomyosin?

a)

Troponin C

b)

Myosin II head

c)

Titin

d)

Nebulin

42.

The epimysium surrounds:

a)

A single muscle fiber

b)

The entire muscle

c)

A muscle fascicle

d)

The sarcolemma

43.

What type of electrotonic junction links cardiac muscle cells?

a)

Adherens junctions

b)

Tight junctions

c)

Gap junctions

d)

Desmosomes

44.

Smooth visceral muscle is primarily found in:

a)

Heart

b)

Skeleton

c)

Hollow organs (intestine, blood vessels)

d)

Liver

45.

What type of collagen is abundant in the perimysium?

a)

Type II collagen

b)

Type I collagen

c)

Type III collagen

d)

Type IV collagen

46.

The neuromuscular junction is located in:

a)

At the junction between two muscle fibers

b)

Nucleus of the myocyte

c)

Sarcolemma of the muscle fiber in contact with the axon

d)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

47.

The protein that regulates the length of sarcomeres (serves as a molecular 'spring') is:

a)

Actin

b)

Titin

c)

Myosin

d)

Tropomyosin

48.

Which of these best describes a type IIb muscle fiber?

a)

Slow contraction, high mitochondrial content

b)

Fast contraction, oxidative metabolism

c)

Fast contraction, glycolytic metabolism

d)

Slow contraction, glycolytic metabolism

49.

What happens in the H band of a sarcomere during contraction?

a)

It widens

b)

It remains the same

c)

It narrows or disappears

d)

It subdivides

50.

What is the point of union between the skeletal muscle cell and the tendon?

a)

Endomysium

b)

Epimysium-perimysium joined to the tendon sheath

c)

Sarcolemma directly to the collagen of the tendon

d)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum to the periosteum

51.

Which of the following is NOT a cell of the central glia?

a)

Oligodendrocyte

b)

Astrocyte

c)

Schwann cell

d)

Microglia

52.

The soma of the neuron contains:

a)

Myelin

b)

Nissl body (RER with ribosomes)

c)

Collagen fibers

d)

Myelin sheath

53.

What structure of the neuron conducts impulses to other cells?

a)

Dendrites

b)

Soma

c)

Axon

d)

Nissl body

54.

Synaptic junctions are found in:

a)

Only at the base of the axon

b)

Extremities of the axon (synaptic terminals)

c)

Neuronal nucleus

d)

Between soma and rough endoplasmic reticulum

55.

Which cells of the peripheral nervous system form the myelin sheath around axons?

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Schwann cells

c)

Oligodendrocytes

d)

Satellite cells

56.

What is the main function of astrocytes in the CNS?

a)

Generate action potential

b)

Maintain blood-brain barrier and structural support

c)

Produce nervous mucus

d)

Transmit electrical impulses

57.

What is the main function of astrocytes in the CNS?

a)

Generate action potential

b)

Maintain blood-brain barrier and structural support

c)

Produce nervous mucus

d)

Transmit electrical impulses

58.

The blood-brain barrier limits the passage of substances to:

a)

Peripheral nervous system

b)

Muscle tissue

c)

Central nervous system

d)

Lymphatic tissue

59.

What is the receptor zone of the neuron called?

a)

Axon

b)

Dendrites and soma

c)

Myelin sheath

d)

Node of Ranvier

60.

What is the main characteristic of myelinated nerve fibers?

a)

Lack of nodes of Ranvier

b)

Saltatory conduction of the impulse

c)

Very small diameter

d)

Absence of electrical impulses

61.

What type of neuron has a single axon and two or more dendrites?

a)

Bipolar

b)

Pseudounipolar

c)

Multipolar

d)

Anaxonic

62.

Where are satellite cells found?

a)

Surrounding neurons in the CNS

b)

Surrounding cell bodies in the ganglia of the PNS

c)

In the spinal cord only

d)

In the muscular layer of the intestine

63.

The enteric nervous system is located in:

a)

Basal ganglia

b)

Wall of the digestive tract

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Cerebral ependyma

64.

What protein forms myelin in the CNS?

a)

Myelin basic protein (MBP)

b)

Proteolipid myelin (PLP)

c)

Actin

d)

Neurofilament

65.

The injury of an axon in the PNS can be repaired thanks to:

a)

Inhibition of the endomysium

b)

Proliferation of oligodendrocytes

c)

Schwann cells and their production of growth factors

d)

Increase of microglia

66.

What is the main phagocytic cell in the CNS?

a)

Astrocyte

b)

Microglia

c)

Oligodendrocyte

d)

Schwann cell

67.

What structure forms the 'node of Ranvier'?

a)

Area covered by continuous myelin

b)

Area of neuronal synapses

c)

Exposed space between segments of myelin sheath

d)

Terminal region of the axon in contact with muscle

68.

In the neuromuscular synapse, the main neurotransmitter is:

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Serotonin

69.

What is the function of oligodendrocytes?

a)

Form synapses with neurons

b)

Synthesize myelin in the CNS

c)

Regulate the blood-brain barrier

d)

Phagocytize neuronal debris

70.

What type of neuron transmits sensory impulses from the periphery to the CNS?

a)

Efferent motor

b)

Interneuron

c)

Afferent (sensory)

d)

Bipolar

71.

What is the innermost layer of blood vessels?

a)

Media tunic

b)

Adventitia tunic

c)

Intima (endothelium)

d)

Subendothelium

72.

What type of blood vessel lacks valves and has thinner walls than arteries?

a)

Elastic artery

b)

Muscular artery

c)

Vein

d)

Fenestrated capillary

73.

Pulmonary circulation begins in:

a)

Left ventricle

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Left atrium

d)

Aorta

74.

Which of the following arteries is an elastic artery?

a)

Coronary artery

b)

Vertebral artery

c)

Aorta

d)

Renal arteriola

75.

What type of capillary presents discontinuities in the basal lamina and pores in the endothelial cells?

a)

Continuous capillary

b)

Sinusoidal capillary

c)

Fenestrated capillary with diaphragm

d)

Fenestrated capillary without diaphragm

76.

The tricuspid valve is located between:

a)

Left atrium and ventricle

b)

Right atrium and ventricle

c)

Right ventricle and aorta

d)

Left ventricle and aorta

77.

What structure acts as the primary pacemaker?

a)

His bundle

b)

Sinoatrial node (SA)

c)

Atrioventricular node (AV)

d)

Purkinje fibers

78.

Where are the baroreceptors that regulate blood pressure located?

a)

Left ventricle muscle

b)

Carotid sinus and aortic arch

c)

Venous adventitia tunica

d)

Renal capillaries

79.

What is the main function of the mitral valve?

a)

Prevent backflow of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium

b)

Prevent backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium

c)

Regulate blood flow between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery

d)

Regulate pressure in the vena cavae

80.

In which layer of the vascular wall are smooth muscle cells found?

a)

Intima tunica

b)

Media tunica

c)

Adventitia tunica

d)

Subendothelium

81.

What characteristic distinguishes muscular arteries from elastic arteries?

a)

Presence of vasa vasorum

b)

Greater proportion of smooth muscle in the media tunica

c)

Larger lumen diameter

d)

Absence of internal elastic lamina

82.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about continuous capillaries?

a)

They have visible fenestrations

b)

They lack tight junctions

c)

They have a continuous basal lamina without pores

d)

They are found only in the liver

83.

The left atrium receives oxygenated blood through:

a)

Superior and inferior vena cavae

b)

Pulmonary arteries

c)

Four pulmonary veins

d)

Coronary arteries

84.

What part of the heart separates the right ventricle from the left?

a)

Interatrial septum

b)

Interventricular septum

c)

Right fibrous trigone

d)

Membranous septum

85.

What is the typical pressure in the pulmonary circuit compared to the systemic?

a)

Higher

b)

Equal

c)

Lower

d)

Variable depending on age

86.

Which nerve exerts parasympathetic control over heart rate?

a)

Femoral nerve

b)

Optic nerve

c)

Vagus nerve (X)

d)

Trigeminal nerve

87.

Which of the following is NOT an atypical blood vessel?

a)

Coronary artery

b)

Hepatic portal vein

c)

Splenic sinusoidal

d)

Azygos vein

88.

Which layer of the heart contains the myocardium?

a)

Epicardium

b)

Myocardium

c)

Endocardium

d)

Serous pericardium

89.

The aortic valve opens during:

a)

Atrial systole

b)

Left ventricular systole

c)

Left ventricular diastole

d)

Right ventricular systole