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Worksheets6 JUNE EXAM
Total questions: 110
Worksheet time: 2hrs 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
According to IS:10711:1983, what is the rationale behind the aspect ratio (√2:1) used in standard drawing sheet sizes like A0, A1, etc.?
a)
To simplify duplication and scaling
b)
To reduce manufacturing cost
c)
To accommodate all drawing instruments
d)
To meet ergonomic paper folding requirements
2.
Which one of the following conditions disqualifies the use of transparent tracing film for shop floor release drawings?
a)
Laminated
b)
Drawn with ink
c)
Folded
d)
Reproduced digitally
3.
Which of the following is the correct method for constructing a square using only compass and perpendicular lines, as detailed in Exercise 1.4.13?
a)
Construct diagonal first, then use 90° angles to complete
b)
Erect perpendiculars using arcs, then replicate side length
c)
Use French curve to draw sides
d)
Bisect a triangle and extend
4.
In an isosceles triangle construction where altitude and angles are given (Ex 1.4.12), which geometric technique is crucial to maintain angle accuracy?
a)
Use protractor with French curve
b)
Trisect base and construct arcs
c)
Use parallel lines and extend using angle sets
d)
Construct concentric arcs and drop perpendiculars
5.
What is the minimum line thickness (in mm) recommended for hatching in a drawing to comply with IS:10714?
a)
0.35 mm
b)
0.50 mm
c)
0.70 mm
d)
1.00 mm
6.
Which line type is used to represent an adjacent but non-sectioned part in a sectional drawing as per BIS conventions?
a)
Continuous thick line
b)
Chain thin line
c)
Chain thin double-dashed line
d)
Dashed thick line
7.
Which of the following correctly describes a Rhombus?
a)
All sides and angles equal
b)
All sides equal, angles unequal
c)
Opposite sides equal, angles 90°
d)
Opposite sides equal, no right angles
8.
Which is the correct statement regarding the use of compass and bow instruments in technical drawings?
a)
Bow compass is suitable for drawing arcs larger than 50 mm radius
b)
Large compass is preferred for small rivet-hole circles
c)
Drop-spring bow compass is ideal for repetitive small circles
d)
Compasses are never used with lead attachments
9.
In sheet layout, what is the significance of the title block, and where should it be placed as per BIS SP:46-2003?
a)
Top-left corner; provides sheet size
b)
Top-right corner; shows drawing view
c)
Bottom-right corner; holds drawing title and reference info
d)
Center; displays grid reference
10.
Which type of line is used for indicating surfaces that require special treatment in engineering drawing?
a)
Continuous thin line
b)
Chain thick line
c)
Chain thin double-dashed line
d)
Dashed thin line
11.
Match the following timber market forms with their descriptions: A. Batten B. Board C. Plank D.Scantling
a)
A-Width < 50mm, B-Width > 50mm, C-Width > 150mm, D-Length < 200mm
b)
A-Width > 150mm, B-Width < 50mm, C-Width < 50mm, D-Length > 200mm
c)
A-Length > 1m, B-Width > 200mm, C-Width < 50mm, D-Length < 150mm
d)
A-Width < 20mm, B-Width < 100mm, C-Thickness > 50mm, D-Length > 300mm
12.
Statement 1: High Alumina Cement develops high early strength.
Statement 2: It is recommended for mass concrete construction.
a)
Both statements are true
b)
Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
c)
Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
d)
Both statements are false
13.
Statement 1: Malleability is a tensile property.
Statement 2: Malleability increases with increase of temperature.
a)
Both statements are true
b)
Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
c)
Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
d)
Both statements are false
14.
What is the standard test used to determine the impact strength of timber?
a)
Slump test
b)
Le Chatelier test
c)
Charpy test
d)
Tensile test
15.
In which type of seasoning does interior dry faster, reducing external cracks?
a)
Natural seasoning
b)
Kiln seasoning
c)
Chemical seasoning
d)
Salt seasoning
16.
Which constituent of cement is responsible for early strength gain?
a)
C3S
b)
C2S
c)
C3A
d)
C4AF
17.
Which defect in timber is caused due to crushing of fibers during felling?
a)
Upset
b)
Twist
c)
Check
d)
Wane
18.
Which timber defect appears as radial cracks from pith to bark?
a)
Ring shake
b)
Heart shake
c)
Radial shake
d)
Cup shake
19.
The percentage of lime in cement is generally around:
a)
40–50%
b)
17–25%
c)
60–67%
d)
3–8%
20.
Which IS code is associated with structural timber classification based on MOE?
a)
IS 456
b)
IS 399
c)
IS 3629
d)
IS 12269
21.
Which timber preservative is made from arsenic, copper sulfate and dichromate?
a)
Creosote
b)
ASCU
c)
Coal Tar
d)
Salt
22.
Bulking of sand is maximum when moisture content is:
a)
0%
b)
5–8%
c)
10–15%
d)
More than 20%
23.
Cement soundness is tested using:
a)
Vicat Apparatus
b)
Le Chatelier Apparatus
c)
Compressive Machine
d)
Sieve
24.
The unit weight of standard cement bag is:
a)
25 kg
b)
40 kg
c)
50 kg
d)
70 kg
25.
Which property indicates resistance to alternate wetting and drying?
a)
Durability
b)
Weathering resistance
c)
Frost resistance
d)
Hardness
26.
Which of the following pile types is most suitable for black cotton soil where anchorage against uplift is also required?
a)
Franki pile
b)
Mac Arthur pile
c)
Under-reamed pile
d)
Monotube pile
27.
Assertion (A): In staircases, riser height should not exceed 150 mm as per NBC.
Reason (R): Higher risers make climbing stairs easier and safer.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true, R is false
d)
A is false, R is true
28.
Which factor does NOT directly affect the classification of buildings under Group G (Industrial Buildings) in NBC?
a)
Hazard level of materials processed
b)
Purpose of construction
c)
Size of the building
d)
Type of industrial operation
29.
Which of the following methods is most suitable for site investigation when rock strata are deep and speed is crucial?
a)
Test pit
b)
Auger boring
c)
Rotary drilling
d)
Wash boring
30.
Which of the following stairs is suitable when space is long but narrow in width?
a)
Half-turn stair
b)
Quarter-turn stair
c)
Geometrical stair
d)
Straight stair
31.
Which component of a stair provides vertical support to the handrail?
a)
Newel Post
b)
Baluster
c)
Riser
d)
Waist slab
32.
What is the usual angle of inclination (pitch) for staircases in residential buildings?
a)
10°–20°
b)
20°–30°
c)
30°–40°
d)
40°–50°
33.
Which tool in brick masonry is specifically used to ensure courses are maintained at correct levels?
a)
Plumb bob
b)
Gauge rod
c)
Straight edge
d)
Spirit level
34.
Which of the following is used to avoid cracks in foundation built on expansive black cotton soil?
a)
Gravel packing
b)
Under-reamed pile
c)
Mat foundation
d)
Floating foundation
35.
Which type of bond is ideal for curved brick walls?
a)
English bond
b)
Flemish bond
c)
Header bond
d)
Stretcher bond
36.
Assertion (A): In raft foundations, pressure on soil is uniformly distributed.
Reason (R): Raft foundation is used in soft clay or reclaimed soils.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true, R is false
d)
A is false, R is true
37.
What is the correct classification of buildings that involve penal or correctional detention where liberty of inmates is restricted?
a)
Group D: Assembly buildings
b)
Group C: Institutional buildings
c)
Group B: Educational buildings
d)
Group J: Hazardous buildings
38.
Which of the following bonds is a combination of Flemish on the face and English in the backing?
a)
English bond
b)
Double Flemish bond
c)
Header bond
d)
Single Flemish bond
39.
Which pile foundation type uses a concrete button to increase end bearing and is suitable for loads up to 50 tonnes?
a)
Raymond pile
b)
Franki pile
c)
Button bottom pile
d)
Swage pile
40.
Which of the following floor finishes is best suited for hospitals due to hygiene and ease of maintenance?
a)
Wooden flooring
b)
Cement concrete flooring
c)
PVC flooring
d)
Granite flooring
41.
Which type of caisson is used in bridge construction where compressed air is used for dry working at the bottom?
a)
Open caisson
b)
Box caisson
c)
Pneumatic caisson
d)
Floating caisson
42.
In brick masonry, which bond has headers and stretchers placed alternatively in both front and back faces?
a)
Double Flemish bond
b)
English bond
c)
Header bond
d)
Garden wall bond
43.
Assertion (A): Vibro piles are best suited for soft soils with low resistance to concrete flow.
Reason (R): Vibro piles are installed with a cast iron shoe for deep penetration and expansion.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true, R is false
d)
A is false, R is true
44.
Which member of an arch is the first wedge-shaped block placed next to the skewback?
a)
Crown
b)
Key stone
c)
Springer
d)
Voussoir
45.
Assertion (A): Centre-line method of estimation is more prone to error accumulation.
Reason (R): Centre-line method considers full width at junctions without deduction.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
46.
Assertion (A): In revised estimate, a comparative statement is mandatory.
Reason (R): It helps to compare between supplementary estimate and original estimate.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
47.
Calculate the centerline length of a room of size 5 m × 4 m with wall thickness of 0.3 m.
a)
30.1m
b)
17.4m
c)
25.6 m
d)
22.4 m
48.
Find the annual depreciation of a building having original cost Rs. 1,20,000, scrap value Rs. 20,000 and life of 50 years using straight line method.
a)
Rs. 2500
b)
Rs. 2000
c)
Rs. 3000
d)
Rs. 2200
49.
Which estimate is most accurate and prepared to obtain technical sanction?
a)
Rough cost estimate
b)
Preliminary estimate
c)
Detailed estimate
d)
Supplementary estimate
50.
Which component is NOT considered in capital cost of a building?
a)
Cost of electrification
b)
Cost of construction
c)
Scrap value
d)
Sanitary fittings cost
51.
Which of the following is measured in square meter (m²)?
a)
RCC column
b)
Brickwork
c)
Formwork
d)
Concrete footing
52.
Which of the following is true about 'Work Charged Establishment'?
a)
It is a temporary setup drawn from total estimated cost
b)
It refers to permanent supervisory staff
c)
It is 10% of estimated cost
d)
It is added under contingencies
53.
Provisional sum in estimation is allocated for:
a)
Uncertain items to be executed by specialists
b)
All extra works
c)
Salary of site engineers
d)
Contingency works
54.
Which method of approximate estimate is most suitable for multi-storey buildings?
a)
Unit base method
b)
Plinth area method
c)
Cubical content method
d)
Approximate quantity method
55.
Which percentage of plinth area is considered as circulation area (horizontal) in residential buildings?
a)
20–25%
b)
10–15%
c)
4–5%
d)
30–40%
56.
Total cost of plastering a wall (both sides) of 5m long, 3m high at Rs. 12/sq.m is:
a)
Rs. 180
b)
Rs. 300
c)
Rs. 360
d)
Rs. 120
57.
Which valuation method is used for properties like cinema halls and hotels?
a)
Development method
b)
Valuation based on profit
c)
Rental method
d)
Depreciation method
58.
Assertion (A): Duty is maximum at the head of the field.
Reason (R): Duty increases as we move downstream from the head of the main canal.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
59.
Match the following:
A. Gravity dam
B. Arch dam
C. Rockfill dam
D. Earth dam
a)
A-Weight, B-Arch Action, C-Flexible, D-Trapezoidal
b)
A-Arch Action, B-Weight, C-Trapezoidal, D-Flexible
c)
A-Flexible, B-Arch Action, C-Trapezoidal, D-Weight
d)
A-Trapezoidal, B-Flexible, C-Weight, D-Arch Action
60.
In Bligh’s creep theory, which of the following is not a limitation?
a)
Uplift pressure is linear
b)
Distinction between vertical and horizontal creep is absent
c)
Exit gradient is ignored
d)
Linear loss of head
61.
A gravity dam has a base width of 30m, and height of 80m. If the specific gravity of concrete is 2.4, what is the factor of safety against sliding assuming horizontal water force is 6000t and vertical weight is 7200t? (Coefficient of friction is 0.75)
a)
0.75
b)
0.9
c)
1.1
d)
1.2
62.
What is the main advantage of a barrage over a weir?
a)
Requires no gates
b)
Provides higher flood storage
c)
Greater control over water levels
d)
Cheaper than weir
63.
What type of dam is most suitable in a narrow, rocky gorge and resists water pressure through arch action?
a)
Earth dam
b)
Buttress dam
c)
Gravity dam
d)
Arch dam
64.
Which dam cannot be used as an overflow dam?
a)
Concrete dam
b)
Arch dam
c)
Earth dam
d)
Masonry dam
65.
Which structure in a diversion headwork is primarily used to remove silt from the canal after it enters?
a)
Silt excluder
b)
Silt ejector
c)
Scouring sluice
d)
Divide wall
66.
Which meridian changes its position with time?
a)
True meridian
b)
Arbitrary meridian
c)
Magnetic meridian
d)
All of the above
67.
Assertion (A): Magnetic declination is the angle between true meridian and magnetic meridian. Reason (R): It can be east or west depending on the direction of magnetic meridian.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
68.
Which of the following is NOT a part of the prismatic compass?
a)
Agate cap
b)
Prism cap
c)
Brake pin
d)
Jewel bearing
69.
Back bearing of a line in quadrantal system is obtained by:
a)
Adding 180° if bearing < 180°
b)
Subtracting 180° if bearing > 180°
c)
Changing the cardinal directions
d)
Both 1 and 2
70.
Which of the following statements about surveying principle 'working from whole to part' is correct?
a)
Major control points are established with less precision
b)
Minor control points are used to fix major ones
c)
Errors accumulate from parts to whole
d)
Major control points are fixed first to avoid accumulation of error
71.
Match the following: A. Isogonic lines B. Agonic lines C. Aclinic lines D. Isoclinic lines
1.same declination
2.zero declination
3.zero dip
4.same dip
a)
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
b)
A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
c)
A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
d)
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
72.
What is the minimum number of control points required to establish a new station in surveying?
a)
4
b)
3
c)
2
d)
1
73.
The angle between a magnetic needle and the horizontal is known as:
a)
Declination
b)
Azimuth
c)
Dip
d)
Bearing
74.
Which among the following surveys determines oceanic tide fluctuation?
a)
Topographical survey
b)
Cadastral survey
c)
Hydrographical survey
d)
City survey
75.
In a square traverse ABCD (anticlockwise), if bearing of AB is 52°45', what is the bearing of CD?
a)
232°45'
b)
52°45'
c)
322°45'
d)
142°45'
76.
Which type of survey is used for determining relative position below the ground?
a)
City Survey
b)
Mine Survey
c)
Geodetic Survey
d)
Cadastral Survey
77.
Which instrument uses a needle suspended over a pivot and graduated ring for measuring direction?
a)
Theodolite
b)
Prismatic Compass
c)
Plane Table
d)
Tacheometer
78.
How is magnetic declination accounted for when converting magnetic bearing to true bearing?
a)
Add if east, subtract if west
b)
Subtract if east, add if west
c)
Always add
d)
Always subtract
79.
What is the purpose of the agate cap in prismatic compass?
a)
Levelling
b)
Reading angle
c)
Protection for pivot
d)
Fixing needle
80.
Which bearing system uses values from 0° to 90° with cardinal directions?
a)
Azimuth
b)
Whole Circle Bearing
c)
Quadrantal Bearing
d)
True Bearing
81.
In AutoCAD, which file extension is used to store drawing template files?
a)
.dwg
b)
.dws
c)
.dwt
d)
.dxf
82.
Assertion (A): The 'OOPS' command can restore the last erased object.
Reason (R): It behaves exactly like the UNDO command.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
83.
Which one of the following commands in AutoCAD is used to break a compound object into component entities?
a)
Join
b)
Explode
c)
Trim
d)
Mirror
84.
Match the following commands with their functions:
A. XL
B. POL
C. REC
D. A
1. Arc
2. Rectangle
3. Construction Line
4. Polygon
a)
A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
b)
A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
c)
A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
d)
A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
85.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. 'UN' command sets units in AutoCAD.
2. 'Lim' command is used to set drawing limits.
3. 'F7' key enables Grid.
4. 'F9' enables Polar Tracking.
a)
Only 1, 2, and 3
b)
Only 1, 2, and 4
c)
Only 2 and 3
d)
All are correct
86.
Which key combination is used to save a drawing with a new name in AutoCAD?
a)
Ctrl + S
b)
Ctrl + O
c)
Ctrl + Shift + S
d)
Ctrl + Q
87.
Which dimensioning method is used to measure the angle between two lines?
a)
Aligned
b)
Radial
c)
Angular
d)
Linear
88.
Which AutoCAD command allows creating a solid by sweeping a profile along a path?
a)
Extrude
b)
Revolve
c)
Sweep
d)
Loft
89.
Statement: The tangent of the angle of friction is equal to the coefficient of friction.
a)
True
b)
False
c)
Only in static conditions
d)
Only in kinetic conditions
90.
Assertion (A): Limiting friction is the maximum static friction just before motion starts.
Reason (R): Kinetic friction is always greater than limiting friction.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
91.
Match the following: A. Simple Pendulum B. Spring-Mass System C. Seconds Pendulum
D. Beat Time
1. 2s Time Period 2. π√(l/g) 3. T/2 4. 2π√(m/k)
a)
A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
b)
A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
c)
A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
d)
A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
92.
A machine displaces a load of 150 kg through 0.4 m, with effort of 20 kg through 5 m. What is the efficiency of the machine?
a)
45%
b)
75%
c)
60%
d)
85%
93.
Which type of lever is used in hand pumps?
a)
Class I
b)
Class II
c)
Class III
d)
None of the above
94.
In free vibration of a spring mass system, the time period T is given by:
a)
T = 2π√(k/m)
b)
T = 2π√(m/k)
c)
T = π√(m/k)
d)
T = 1/2π√(m/k)
95.
In traffic engineering, what is the correct formula for Design Hourly Traffic Volume (DHTV)?
a)
Average of top 10 hourly volumes
b)
30th highest hourly volume in a year
c)
Maximum daily volume / 24
d)
Sum of hourly volumes divided by 365
96.
Which classification of bridge depends on whether it has fixed or movable parts?
a)
Based on inter-span relation
b)
Based on material used
c)
Based on flexibility of superstructure
d)
Based on alignment
97.
Which type of bridge is used where the stream bed is not deep and floods are infrequent, and allows water to overflow it?
a)
High level bridge
b)
Arch bridge
c)
Low level causeway
d)
Suspension bridge
98.
Match the following components of permanent way with their functions:
A. Rails
B. Sleepers
C. Ballast
D. Subgrade
1. Transfer load to ballast
2. Distribute load to subgrade
3. Act as girders
4. Natural formation supporting the track
a)
A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
b)
A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
c)
A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
d)
A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
99.
Assertion (A): Broad gauge is widely used in India.
Reason (R): It provides greater speed and stability for rolling stock.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
100.
What is the unit of traffic density in speed-flow-density studies?
a)
Vehicles/hour
b)
Vehicles/km
c)
km/hour
d)
PCU/hour
101.
Which structure in bridge engineering reduces eddy currents and allows smoother water flow?
a)
Weep holes
b)
Revetment
c)
Scuppers
d)
Cut water and ease water
102.
In parking studies, what is the term for the ratio of number of vehicles parked to number of parking bays available?
a)
Parking accumulation
b)
Parking turnover
c)
Parking volume
d)
Parking load
103.
Which type of bridge has no moving parts and stays in place until it fails or is demolished?
a)
Arch bridge
b)
Cantilever bridge
c)
Fixed span bridge
d)
Suspension bridge
104.
Which railway vehicle is a power-generating unit of the train?
a)
Wagon
b)
Coach
c)
Rail car
d)
Locomotive
105.
According to IS 10500:2012, what is the acceptable limit for color in drinking water?
a)
10 Hazen units
b)
5 Hazen units
c)
15 Hazen units
d)
20 Hazen units
106.
The coagulant which is generally used in purification of water is:
a)
Ozone
b)
Alum
c)
Chlorine
d)
Bleaching powder
107.
Assertion (A): Breakpoint chlorination ensures complete removal of ammonia and organic matter.
Reason (R): It leaves residual chlorine in water which is undesirable.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
108.
Match the following water treatment processes with their functions:
A. Sedimentation
B. Filtration
C. Disinfection
D. Coagulation
1. Pathogen removal
2. Removal of fine particles
3. Settling of heavy particles
4. Formation of flocs
a)
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
b)
A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
c)
A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
d)
A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
109.
Which of the following tests reveals the amount of residual chlorine in treated water?
a)
Amperometric test
b)
Orthotolidine test
c)
Iodometric test
d)
All of the above
110.
The suitable distribution method for a city with a haphazard growth pattern is:
a)
Ring system
b)
Tree system
c)
Grid system
d)
Reticulated system
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