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Regents Review Units 5 - 8

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 5hrs 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is an example of an igneous rock?

a)

Limestone

b)

Granite

c)

Sandstone

d)

Shale

2.

What is the main process by which sedimentary rocks are formed?

a)

Melting

b)

Cooling

c)

Compaction and cementation

d)

Sublimation

3.

Which property is commonly used to identify minerals by observing the color of their powdered form?

a)

Luster

b)

Streak

c)

Cleavage

d)

Hardness

4.

Which mineral is the hardest on the Mohs hardness scale?

a)

Quartz

b)

Talc

c)

Diamond

d)

Gypsum

5.

A student finds a rock with visible layers and small pebbles cemented together. Which type of rock is it most likely to be?

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

d)

Volcanic

6.

Which process in the rock cycle would most likely change granite into gneiss?

a)

Melting

b)

Weathering

c)

Metamorphism

d)

Erosion

7.

When a mineral breaks along curved or irregular surfaces; a rough break

a)

hardness

b)

cleavage

c)

fracture

d)

streak

8.

A measure of the ability of a mineral's resistance to being scratched.

a)

density

b)

cleavage

c)

hardness

d)

special properties

9.

Bright, reflective, super shiny luster. Example: Galena

a)

Submetallic

b)

Metallic

c)

Nonmetallic

d)

Shiny

10.

When a mineral breaks along smooth, even surfaces.

a)

density

b)

special properties

c)

hardness

d)

cleavage

11.
This rock was formed by smaller pieces of rock that settled at the bottom of a lake millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
12.

Which sample best shows the physical properties normally associated with the slow cooling of magma?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

13.

Which type of rock is most likely to contain fossils?

a)

granite

b)

shale

c)

gneiss

d)

metaconglomerate

14.

The rock shown above has a foliated texture and contains the minerals amphibole, quartz, and feldspar arranged in coarse-grained bands. Which rock is shown?

a)

slate

b)

dunite

c)

gneiss

d)

quartzite

15.

Which physical characteristic best describes the rock phyllite?

a)

glassy texture with gas pockets

b)

clastic texture with angular fragments

c)

bioclastic texture with cemented shell fragments

d)

foliated texture with microscopic mica crystals

16.

Slate is formed by the

a)

foliation of schist

b)

metamorphism of shale

c)

deposition of chlorite and mica

d)

folding and faulting of gneiss

17.
a)

A—cleavage; B—hardness; C—streak

b)

A—cleavage; B—streak; C—hardness

c)

A—streak; B—cleavage; C—hardness

d)

A—streak; B—hardness; C—cleavage

18.

Which two processes formed this rock?

a)

compaction and cementation

b)

melting and solidification

c)

heating and application of pressure

d)

folding and faulting

19.

The obsidian's glassy texture indicates that it formed from a magma that cooled

a)

slowly, deep below Earth's surface

b)

quickly, deep below Earth's surface

c)

quickly, on Earth's surface

d)

slowly, on Earth's surface

20.

Which rock is of felsic composition, low in density, light in color, and coarse grained?

a)

gabbro

b)

granite

c)

rhyolite

d)

basalt

21.

A mafic igneous rock is most likely to be relatively

a)

low in density and dark in color

b)

high in density and light in color

c)

low in density and light in color

d)

high in density and dark in color

22.

Limestone, gypsum, and salt are rocks formed by the processes of

a)

weathering and metamorphism

b)

evaporation and precipitation

c)

melting and solidification

d)

erosion and deposition

23.

In which set are the rock drawings labeled with their correct rock types?

a)
b)
c)
d)
24.

  1. 16. What is the parent rock of marble?

a)

A. shale

b)

B. obsidian

c)

C. quartz sandstone

d)

D. limestone

25.

  1. 17. Which igneous rock cooled slowly deep within the Earth's crust and has a light color and low density

a)

A. granite

b)

B. rhyolite

c)

C. diabase

d)

D. basalt

26.

  1. 20. What characteristic would only apply to an igneous rock that formed from rapid cooling of lava?

a)

A. gas pockets

b)

B. coarse grains

c)

C. dark color

d)

D. low density

27.

  1. 21. Which mineral bubbles with acid?

a)

A. calcite

b)

B. garnet

c)

C. hematite

d)

D. galena

28.

How is an igneous rock formed

a)

heat and pressure

b)

5 step formation

c)

magma or lava cools and hardens

29.

How are metamorphic rocks formed?

a)

heat and pressure

b)

5 step formation

c)

magma or lava cools and hardens

30.

Describe how the cooling rates affect the crystal grain size

a)

longer to cool=larger crystal sizes

b)

quicker to cool=smaller crystal sizes

c)

longer to cool=small crystal sizes

d)

quicker to cool=large crystal sizes

31.
An igneous rock containing large crystals is most likely a(n)
a)
Chemical Rock
b)
Foliated Rock
c)
Extrusive Rock
d)
Intrusive Rock
32.
A metamorphic rock in which the grains line up in parallel bands is a
a)
Clastic Rock
b)
Nonclastic Rock
c)
Nonfoliated Rock
d)
Foliated Rock
33.

Chemical weathering will occur the fastest in a climate that is...

a)

Cold and dry

b)

Cold and wet

c)

Warm and dry

d)

Warm and wet

34.

Which rock layer is MOST resistant?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

35.

Which rock layer is LEAST resistant?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

36.

Solid bedrock is changed to soil primarily by the process of...

a)

erosion

b)

weathering

c)

infiltration

d)

transpiration

37.

Frost action happens because when water freezes, it...

a)

Expands

b)

Contracts

c)

Stays the same size

38.

Frost action is an example of

a)

Physical weathering

b)

Chemical weathering

39.

This is an example of

a)

Physical weathering

b)

Chemical weathering

40.

What is this a picture of?

a)

Oxbow lake

b)

Sand dune

c)

Delta

d)

Oxidation

41.

What is the name of the feature in the left side of the picture?

a)

Oxbow lake

b)

Sand dune

c)

Delta

d)

Oxidation

42.

Deposition takes place at...

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

43.

Which agent of erosion creates V-shaped valleys?

a)

Wind

b)

Rivers

c)

Waves

d)

Glaciers

44.
A cliff formed near the ocean.  Which statement best describes how this cliff formed?
a)
Warm air melted the rock.
b)
Sun rays evaporated the rock.
c)
Ocean waves washed away rock.
d)
Plant roots pushed away the rock.
45.
What is an enormous mass of ice moving over land, causing weathering of rock and soil?
a)
A glacier
b)
An iceberg
c)
An ice wedge
d)
A sand dune
46.

As permeability increases

a)

Infiltration decreases and runoff decreases

b)

Infiltration increases and runoff decreases

c)

Infiltration decreases and runoff increases

d)

Infiltration increases and runoff increases

47.

What type of sediment tends to be the most impermeable?

a)

sand

b)

clay

c)

silt

d)

rocks

48.

If particle size decreases, permeability

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

remains the same

d)

will sometime decrease and other times increase

49.
Which should have the greatest capillarity based on sediment size?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
50.
Which container has the lowest porosity?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A and B
51.
Which statement is true based on the above image?
a)
C is the most permeable
b)
A and B have the same porosity
c)
B would have the highest capillarity
d)
Water would infiltrate the slowest in B
52.

Flash flooding often occurs in city areas because

a)

Roads, pavements, and buildings reduce the infiltration of water into the ground

b)

Ground water storage is usually very large

c)

runoff decreases during precipitation

d)

The heat generated by city areas decreases actual evapotranspiration

53.

In the diagram, letter A best represents:

a)

Runoff

b)

Watershed

c)

Water Table

d)

Confining Layer

54.
What is the relationship between groundwater and surface water?
a)
Surface water percolates (moves) through the soil to form groundwater.
b)
There is no relationship between surface and groundwater.
c)
Groundwater filters through the soil to form surface water.
d)
Surface water is found in lakes directly above underground water sources.
55.

Where is the water table located?

a)

at the top of the saturated zone

b)

between layers of impermeable rock

c)

in the unsaturated zone

d)

below layers of clay

56.

Number 1 Represents

a)

Water table

b)

Zone of Aeration

c)

Zone of Saturation

d)

Soil Moisture

57.

Number 3 represents

a)

Soil Moisture

b)

Zone of Saturation

c)

Water Table

d)

Zone of Aeration

58.

All the water on and in the Earht's crust make up . . .

a)

groundwater

b)

surface water

c)

the hydrosphere

d)

the zone of saturation

59.
Sand is ___________, meaning that water can pass through easily.
a)
Permeable
b)
Impermeable
c)
Solid
d)
Soft
60.

Soil is composed of three particle sizes. Which answer shows the arrangement from smallest to largest?

a)

Sand, Silt, Clay

b)

Clay, Silt, Sand

c)

Sandy, Clay, Silt

d)

Silt, Sand, Clay

61.
Soil is made of
a)
weathered rocks and minerals
b)
dead plants and animals
c)
air and water
d)
all of the above
62.

Snow compacts and forms a large mass of moving, flowing ice called a(n)

a)

iceberg

b)

snowfield

c)

glacier

d)

ice sheet

63.

Gravity causes glaciers to move

a)

uphill

b)

downhill

c)

to the bottom of the ocean

d)

sideways

64.

____  is the evaporation of water from the leaves of a plant.

a)

transpiration

b)

evaporation

c)

condensation

d)

precipitation

65.

______ are long, parallel scratches into rock due to the abrasive action of glaciers.

a)

striations

b)

till

c)

moraines

d)

hanging valley

66.

Which component would increase the speed of the glacier?

a)

ablation

b)

colder climate

c)

colder ice

d)

warmer climate

67.

Due to glaciation, a once narrow V-shaped valley is changed into a _______  glacial trough.

a)

U-shaped

b)

stratified

c)

lateral

d)

V-shaped

68.

What formed this structure?

a)

ice

b)

water

c)

wind

d)

organisms

69.

The result of this glacier will be a(n) ____.

a)

U-shaped valley with scratched bedrock

b)

U-shaped valley with round sediments

c)

V-shaped valley with scratched bedrock

d)

V-shaped valley with round sediments

70.

A land slide is an example of ____.

a)

wind abrasion

b)

wave action

c)

glacial deposition

d)

mass movement

71.

The area of land drained by this river and its tributaries is best described as the river's

a)

topography

b)

watershed

c)

water table

d)

floodplain

72.

Which cross section best represents a plateau landscape region?

a)
b)
c)
d)
73.

New York's Tug Hill landscape region is classified as a plateau because this region has a

a)

high elevation with distorted bedrock

b)

high elevation with nearly horizontal layers of bedrock

c)

low elevation with distorted bedrock

d)

low elevation with nearly horizontal layers of bedrock

74.

The cross section below shows the general bedrock structure of an area containing three different landscape regions, A, B, and C.

Which list correctly identifies the type of landscapes represented by letters A, B, and C?

a)

A = plain, B = plateau, C = mountain

b)

A = mountain, B = plateau, C = plain

c)

A = mountain, B = plain, C = plateau

d)

A = plateau, B = plain, C = mountain

75.

Which landscape surface resulted primarily from erosion by glaciers?

a)
b)
c)
d)
76.

The satellite photograph below shows the Mississippi River entering into the Gulf of Mexico. Arrows show the direction of river flow.

This depositional feature in the Gulf of Mexico is best identified as

a)

a delta

b)

a sandbar

c)

a barrier island

d)

an outwash plain

77.

The diagram below represents a geologic landscape. Which type of stream drainage pattern formed on this landscape?

a)
b)
c)
d)
78.

The block diagram below represents the under-lying bedrock structure of a landscape region. Which diagram represents the most likely stream drainage pattern on the surface of this landscape?

a)
b)
c)
d)
79.

The map below shows a stream drainage pattern. Arrows show the direction of stream flow. On which landscape region did this drainage pattern most likely develop?

a)
b)
c)
d)
80.

The cross sections represent how a present-day glacial landscape feature was formed in Mendon Ponds Park and its appearance at present. Which glacial landscape feature is indicated in the present-day cross section?

a)

Esker

b)

Kame

c)

Finger lake

d)

Kettle lake

81.

The diagram represents a side view of a hill (drumlin) that was deposited by a glacier on the Atlantic coast. This hill is most likely composed of

a)

cemented sediments

b)

unsorted sediments

c)

vertically layered sediments

d)

horizontally layered sediments

82.

The map below shows coastal features of a portion of Long Island, New York. Point A represents a location on a landscape feature that resulted from wave action and long shore currents. On which landscape feature is point A located?

a)

Moraine

b)

Delta

c)

Barrier Island

d)

Floodplain

83.

Which New York State landscape region is located at 42o N, 75o W?

a)

Erie-Ontario Lowlands

b)

Hudson-Mohawk Lowlands

c)

The Catskills

d)

Tug Hill Plateau

84.

Which two locations are in the same New York state landscape region?

a)

Albany and Old Forge

b)

Massena and Mt. Marcy

c)

Binghamton and New York City

d)

Jamestown and Ithaca

85.

In which New York State landscape region is Albany located?

a)

Catskills

b)

Taconic Mountains

c)

Hudson-Mohawk Lowlands

d)

Chaplain Lowlands

86.

What is the largest particle that can generally be transported by a stream moving 200 centimeters per second?

a)

boulder

b)

cobble

c)

pebble

d)

sand

87.

What is the minimum rate of flow at which a stream of water can maintain the transportation of pebbles 1.0 centimeter in diameter?

a)

50 cm/sec

b)

100 cm/sec

c)

150 cm/sec

d)

200 cm/sec

88.

Which particles will be transported by a stream moving at a velocity of 5 cm/s?

a)

pebbles, sand, silt, and clay, only

b)

sand, silt, and clay, only

c)

silt and clay, only

d)

clay, only

89.

Long Island is part of which New York State landscape region?

a)

Newark Lowlands

b)

Manhattan Prong

c)

Tug Hill Plateau

d)

Atlantic Coastal Plain

90.

Which two locations are found in the same geographic province?

a)

Albany and Old Forge

b)

Elmira and Riverhead

c)

Jamestown and Slide Mountain

d)

Massena and Mount Marcy

91.

The aerial photograph shows an elongated hill near the Finger Lakes formed by deposition in New York State.

The elongated hill is best identified as a

a)

kettle lake

b)

moraine

c)

sand dune

d)

drumlin

92.

The aerial photograph shows small, circular bodies of water surrounded by sediment in an area that was once covered by glaciers.

These bodies are water are known as

a)

Finger Lakes

b)

Kettle Lakes

c)

Drumlins

d)

Outwash Plains

93.

This picture is a ....

a)

plain

b)

mountain

c)

plateau

94.

This picture is a ...

a)

plain

b)

mountain

c)

plateau

95.

This picture is a ....

a)

mountain

b)

plateau

c)

plain

96.

Which city is located in the Allegheny Plateau?

a)

Plattsburgh

b)

Oswego

c)

Binghamton

d)

Niagara Falls

97.

Which city is located in the St. Lawrence Lowlands?

a)

Kingston

b)

Massena

c)

Rochester

d)

Albany

98.

In which New York State landscape region is Niagara Falls located?

a)

Tug Hill Plateau

b)

St. Lawrence Lowlands

c)

Allegheny Plateau

d)

Erie-Ontario Lowlands

99.
Which of the following places the geologic time eras in order from oldest to most recent?
a)
Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic
b)
Mesozoic, Cenozoic, Paleozoic, Precambrian
c)
Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Precambrian
d)
Paleozoic, Cenozoic, Precambrian, Mesozoic
100.

How is an igneous intrusion formed?

a)

Magma cuts through rock, cools and hardens

b)

It is deposited as layers

c)

By lots of heat and pressure

d)

It is weathered and eroded

101.

What is the order of the events from oldest to youngest?

a)

A, M, E, L, C, S, H, D

b)

A, M, E, L, D, H, C, S

c)

S, C, D, L, H, E, M, A

d)

A, M, E, H, L, D, C, S

102.
Traces or remains of organisms that lived long ago
a)
Fossil
b)
Unconformity
c)
Superposition
d)
Column
103.
The length of time required for half of the radioactive atoms in a sample to decay is its...
a)
era
b)
age
c)
half-life
d)
eon
104.

What are the two characteristics necessary for a fossil to be classified as an index fossil?

a)

lived for a short amount of time and was widespread

b)

lived for a long amount of time and was widespread

c)

lived for a short amount of time in a small area

d)

lived for a long amount of time in a small area

105.

According to fossil evidence, which sequence shows the order in which these four life-forms first appeared on Earth?

a)

reptiles, amphibians, insects, fish

b)

insects, fish, reptiles, amphibians

c)

amphibians, reptiles, fish, insects

d)

fish, insects, amphibians, reptiles

106.

The division of Earth's geologic history into units of time called eons, eras, periods, and epochs is based on

a)

absolute dating techniques

b)

climatic changes

c)

fossil evidence

d)

seismic data

107.

During which time period in Earth's geologic history did the initial opening of the Atlantic Ocean occur?

a)

Cambrian

b)

Paleogene

c)

Jurassic

d)

Permian

108.

Which of the following fossils can be found in the Devonian time period?

a)

Elliptocephala

b)

Tetragraptus

c)

Lichenaria

d)

Phacops

109.

What is the correct order of the following geologic time units from largest to smallest?

a)

Period, Era, Epoch, Eon

b)

Eon, Era, Period, Epoch

c)

Era, Eon, Period, Epoch

d)

Epoch, Period, Era, Eon

110.

Which principle states that in undisturbed layers of sedimentary rock, the oldest layers are at the bottom?

a)

Principle of Superposition

b)

Principle of Original Horizontality

c)

Principle of Cross-Cutting Relationships

d)

Principle of Faunal Succession

111.

Which of the following orders the rock layers accurately from oldest to youngest?

a)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b)

5, 4, 3, 2, 1

c)

2, 3, 4, 5, 1

d)

1, 2, 3, 5, 4

112.

Trilobites are found in the _____________ era.

a)

Cenozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Paleozoic

d)

Cretaceous

113.

Which graph shows the relative duration of geologic time for Earth's history?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

114.

Which of the following is the oldest period of the Mesozoic Era?

a)

Cretaceous

b)

Jurassic

c)

Triassic

d)

Permian

115.

When did the Jurassic period end? mya = millions of years ago

a)

0.01 mya

b)

146 mya

c)

66.5 mya

d)

23.0 mya

116.

During which period did the earliest insects appear on Earth?

a)

Jurassic

b)

Ordovician

c)

Devonian

d)

Silurian

117.

When did a mass extinction of dinosaurs and many land plants occur? mya= millions of years ago

a)

66 mya

b)

251 mya

c)

4.6 mya

d)

440 mya

118.

Which important event on Earth was occurring during the same period that the Mucrospirifer Fossil appeared?

a)

Alleghenian Orogeny

b)

Pangea begins to break up

c)

Advance and retreat of last continental ice

d)

Acadian Orogeny

119.

Humans have existed for ________ of Earth's history

a)

Roughly 10%

b)

Less than 1%

c)

All

d)

50%

120.

A teacher gave students this diagram of rock layers. The teacher directed the students to determine the relative age of each rock layer based only on the information presented in the diagram. Which method can BEST be used by the students to determine the relative age of these layers?

a)

radiometric dating

b)

rock type evaluation

c)

the law of superposition

d)

principle of uniformitarianism

121.
Which of the following is the super-continent from 300 million years ago?
a)
Continental drift
b)
Pangaea
c)
Giganto continent
d)
Euromerica Asia
122.
What is the name of the plate boundary that pulls apart?
a)
Divergent
b)
Convergent
c)
Transform
d)
Tug Of War
123.
What is the name of the plate boundary that pushes together?
a)
Divergent
b)
Convergent
c)
Transform
d)
A Chest Bump
124.
What is the name of the plate boundary that slides past each other?
a)
Divergent
b)
Convergent
c)
Transform
d)
Mr. C the Slide Man
125.
What geologic feature/event you be most likely to find at a transform boundary?
a)
Earthquakes
b)
Volcanoes
c)
Mountains
d)
Rift Valleys
126.

Which of the following causes Earth's tectonic plates to move?

a)

Energy from the Sun

b)

Magnetic Pole Reversal

c)

Convection currents in the mantle

d)

Faults in Mountain Ranges

127.
The San Andréa fault in California is one example of a...  
a)
Divergent boundary
b)
Convergent boundary
c)
Transform boundary
d)
All of the above
128.

What occurs when two plates come together and the denser one is forced under back into the mantle?

a)

reduction

b)

conduction

c)

subduction

d)

convection

129.
What geologic feature/event would you most likely to find at a divergent boundary between two pieces of oceanic crust?
a)
Rift Valley
b)
Mid-Ocean Ridge
c)
Island Arc
d)
Flat land
130.
What geologic feature/event would you most likely to find at a convergent boundary between two pieces of continental crust?
a)
Volcano
b)
Mountain
c)
Rift
d)
Island Arc
131.
The core is mostly made up mostly of which elements?
a)
Oxygen and Silicon
b)
Silicon and Magnesium
c)
Nickel and Iron
d)
Iron and Magnesium
132.
This is the plastic layer of the mantle on which pieces of the lithosphere move.
a)
Lithosphere
b)
Asthenosphere
c)
Mesosphere
d)
Crust
133.
A giant landmass that existed 200 million years ago
a)
Wegener
b)
Pangaea
c)
Archyopteryx
d)
Ammonite
134.

The Aleutian Trench was created by

a)

convergence of the Pacific and North American plates.

b)

convergence of the Pacific and Eurasian plates

c)

divergence of the Pacific and North American plates.

d)

divergence of the Pacific and Eurasian plates

135.

Which type of crust is more mafic?

a)

Oceanic

b)

Continental

136.

Which type of crust is mostly composed of Granite and Rhyolite?

a)

Oceanic

b)

Continental

137.

Which type of crust is more dense?

a)

Oceanic

b)

Continental

138.

Which type of crust is thicker?

a)

Oceanic

b)

Continental

139.

Most volcanoes and earthquakes on Earth occur

a)

at hot spots.

b)

at plate boundaries.

c)

at the center of large plates.

d)

at the edge of continents.

140.

Alternating parallel bands of normal and reversed magnetic polarity are found in the basaltic bedrock on either side of the

a)

Peru Chile Trench

b)

Galapagos Hot Spot

c)

San Andreas Fault

d)

Mid Atlantic Ridge

141.

Trenches occur at which type of plate boundary?

a)

Convergent (continental-continental)

b)

Convergent (Subduction) continental-oceanic

c)

Transform

d)

Divergent

142.

Ridges occur at which type of plate boundary?

a)

Convergent (continental-continental)

b)

Convergent (Subduction) continental-oceanic

c)

Transform

d)

Divergent

143.

These type of body waves can only travel through solids...

a)

Love waves

b)

Rayleigh waves

c)

Primary waves

d)

Secondary waves

144.

Rank the seismic waves in order of appearance when an earthquake first occurs as measured by a seismograph.

a)

S waves, P waves, then surface waves

b)

P waves, S waves, then surface waves

c)

S and P waves at the same time, then surface waves

d)

Surface waves, then S and P waves at the same time

145.

Which area of the Earth is least dense ?

a)

Outer core

b)

inner core

c)

mantle

d)

crust

146.

Refraction of a seismic wave is...

a)

the linear propagation of seismic waves through all materials at the same rate

b)

the deflection or bending of the path of a seismic wave caused by its passage from one material to another

c)

the absorption of energy of a seismic wave after an earthquake

147.

Which layer of earth is molten (liquid metal)?

a)

inner core

b)

outer core

c)

crust

d)

lithosphere

148.

What is the correct order (starting from the surface) of Earth's layers?

a)

crust, outer core, inner core, mantle

b)

mantle, outer core, inner core, crust

c)

crust, mantle, outer core, inner core

d)

outer core, inner core, crust, mantle

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