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Combined Science Chemistry Paper 2 KWH Revision

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 1hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Test for Carbon dioxide is ....
a)
bubble through limewater and get a cloudy solution because calcium carbonate is made
b)
Put in a lit splint and get a squeaky pop 
2.
What is the general formula of an alkane
a)
2n+2
b)
CnH2n+2
c)
CnH2n
d)
CnHn
3.
If an alkane has 20 carbon atoms, how many hydrogen atoms will it have?
a)
20
b)
22
c)
40
d)
42
4.
Name this alkane
a)
Methane
b)
Ethane
c)
Propane
d)
Butane
5.
Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
6.
What chemical is this? (C5H10)
a)
Pentene
b)
Pentane
c)
Hexane
d)
Heptene
7.
Cracking.....
a)
Breaks larger hydrocarbons into smaller hydrocarbons
b)
Separates hydrocarbons based on their length
c)
Detects alkenes
8.

Conditions for cracking is...

a)

High temperature

b)

Low temperature

c)

Catalyst and steam

d)

catalyst or steam

9.
A compound that contains hydrogen and carbon is known as a ....
a)
Mixture
b)
Hydrocarbon
c)
HydrogenCarbon
d)
Crude oil
10.
The process of separating the different length hydrocarbons from crude oil is known as...
a)
Distillation
b)
Cracking
c)
Fractional Distillation
d)
Filtering
11.
The longer the hydrocarbon, the _______ the boiling point
a)
Lower
b)
Higher
12.
What are the two products of complete combustion?
a)
Water and carbon monoxide
b)
Water and carbon dioxide
c)
Hydrogen and water
d)
Carbon dioxide
13.

8.7: What liquid is used to detect carbon dioxide?

a)

Water

b)

Alkene Water

c)

Bromine Water

d)

Limewater

14.
How long does it take crude oil to form?
a)
hundreds of years
b)
thousands of years
c)
millions of years
d)
billions of years
15.
What happens when crude oil is fractional distilled?
a)
Different fractions are mixed together to form oil.
b)
Sulfur is removed from the crude oil.
c)
The oil is separated into fractions of different boiling ranges by heating.
d)
Longer chain fractions are broken down into shorter chain fractions.
16.
What are the products of cracking?
a)
Short chain hydrocarbons and alkenes
b)
Long chain hydrocarbons and alkenes
c)
Short chain hydrocarbons only
d)
Alkenes only
17.
Study the diagram of the fractionating column. 
What fractions come out at X and Y?
a)
X = kerosene and Y = refinery gas
b)
X = refinery gas and Y = light gasoline
c)
X = residue and Y = gas oil
d)
X = refinery gas and Y = gas oil
18.
Which of the following, when fossil fuels are burned, is formed when there is lack of oxygen?
a)
carbon monoxide
b)
sulphur dioxide
c)
nitrogen dioxide
d)
carbon dioxide
19.

A Vapours condense when they become cool enough.

B This column is hot at the bottom and gets cooler towards the top.

C Vapours from the oil rise through the column.

D Liquids are led out of the column at different heights.

E Crude oil is heated and enters a tall fractionating column.

a)

E B C A D

b)

E B C D A`

c)

B C A D E

20.

Crude oil is made up of:

a)

Only one type of hydrocarbon

b)

Short chain hydrocarbons only

c)

A mixture if different hydrocarbons of different lengths

d)

Long chain hydrocarbons only

21.

Where do short chain hydrocarbons collect?

a)

At the top

b)

In the middle

c)

At the bottom

22.

What type of reaction is cracking?

a)

Addition

b)

Displacement

c)

Thermal decomposition

d)

Neutralisation

23.
How do you test for an alkene?
a)
React it with oxygen
b)
React it with litmus paper
c)
React it with bromine water
d)
pH test
24.
How do you test for oxygen gas?
a)
Makes a squeaky pop with a lit splint
b)
Relights a glowing splint
c)
Bleaches damp litmus paper
d)
Turns limewater milky
25.

What happened to the carbon dioxide that was dissolved in the early oceans?

a)

It evaporated

b)

It turned into sediment

c)

It was changed into oxygen

26.
What gas needed to be established within the Earth's atmosphere before the atmosphere was able to absorb and maintain heat?
a)
Hydrogen
b)
Oxygen
c)
Nitrogen
d)
Carbon dioxide
27.
What is a formulation?
a)
A compound that has been designed to be a useful product
b)
A compound that needs to be separated to make it useful
c)
A mixture that has been designed as a useful product
d)
A mixture that needs to be separated to make it useful
28.

Which is the correct definition for the term 'polymer'?

a)

a molecule containing only carbon and hydrogen

b)

short molecule made of a few repeating units

c)

long, chain-like molecule made of repeating units

d)

chain-like molecule that contains hydrogen and oxygen

29.

Which of these is untrue about a fractional distillation column

a)

The column is hottest at the top and coolest at the bottom

b)

As the size of the molecules increases their boiling point increases

c)

As the size of the molecules increases the viscosity increases

d)

The column is hottest at the bottom and coolest at the top

30.

The boiling of alkanes increases as they bigger because

a)

the strength of the metallic bonds increases

b)

the strength of the ionic bonds increases

c)

the strength of the covalent bonds increases

d)

the strength of the intermolecular forces increases

31.

The fraction kerosine is used for

a)

Cars

b)

chemical industry

c)

lorries

d)

planes

32.

Distillation is a technique which separates substances based on which physical property?

a)

density

b)

viscosity

c)

boiling point

d)

melting point

33.

When testing for alkenes (unsaturation) bromine water turns from...

a)

orange --> blue/black

b)

colourless --> pink

c)

orange --> colourless

d)

orange --> clear

34.

Molecules collected at the top of the fractionating column tend to be...

a)

more viscous, less flammable and less volatile

b)

less viscous, more flammable and more volatile

c)

more viscous, more flammable and less volatile

d)

less viscous, less flammable and more volatile

35.

Molecules collected at the bottom of the fractionating column tend to be...

a)

more viscous, less flammable and less volatile

b)

less viscous, more flammable and more volatile

c)

more viscous, more flammable and less volatile

d)

less viscous, less flammable and more volatile

36.

What change of states are included in fractional distillation? (Can select two or more answers)

a)

Melting

b)

Evaporation

c)

Condensation

d)

Freezing

37.

What is the most important feature in fractional distillation?

a)

The two component part must have different boiling point

b)

The two component part must have similar boiling point

c)

The two component part must have same boiling point

38.
The "ane" ending in "alkane" tells someone that they are dealing with _________-bonded carbons.
a)
single
b)
double
c)
triple
d)
quadruple
39.
At which pipe: M or N are hydrocarbons with lower boiling points collected?
a)
M
b)
N
40.
Is this hydrocarbon saturated or unsaturated? 
a)
saturated
b)
unsaturated
41.

Which of these substances is not a hydrocarbon?

a)

methane

b)

ethane

c)

propane

d)

butane

e)

ammonia

42.

A fraction of crude oil is made up of:

a)

Hydrocarbons of similar chain lengths

b)

Numbers

c)

Large hydrocarbons

d)

Alkenes only

43.

What process happens at each level in the fractionating column?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Condensation

c)

Combustion

44.

Crude oil is known as a finite resource because

a)

It is found underground

b)

It takes millions of years to form

c)

It will run out one day

d)

it is made from dead plants and animals

45.

Which of these is untrue about a fractional distillation column

a)

The column is hottest at the top and coolest at the bottom

b)

As the size of the molecules increases their boiling point increases

c)

As the size of the molecules increases the viscosity increases

d)

The column is hottest at the bottom and coolest at the top

46.

How is distilled water different to sea water?

a)

it's a mixture

b)

it's a formulation

c)

it boils at 100 degrees C

d)

it freezes over a range of temperatures

e)

it is more salty

47.
What does LCA stand for?
a)
Live cycle assignment
b)
Life cycle assignment
c)
Life circle assessment
d)
Life cycle assessment
e)
Live cycle assessment
48.
What does a LCA assess?
a)
the carbon footprint
b)
the energy needed for a process
c)
the pollution
d)
the sustainability of a product
e)
the environmental impact of a product
49.

Give one way that CO2 emissions can be reduced when manufacturing a plastic bottle?

a)

use recycled plastic

b)

recycle the bottle

c)

use thicker plastic

d)

burn it afterwards

e)

sell it locally

50.
Give a difference between pure and potable water?
a)
Pure water is suitable for drinking
b)
Potable water contains dissolves solids & chlorine
c)
Pure water contains dissolved solids & chlorine
d)
Potable water is not safe to drink
51.

What is Le Chatelier's Principle?

a)

If you change the Conditions of a Reversible Reaction at Equilibrium the system will try to Counteract that change

b)

If you change the Conditions of a Reversible Reaction at Equilibrium the system will Accelerate the Change

52.

If a Reversible Reaction is Exothermic one way what will it be the Other way?

a)

Endothermic

b)

Exothermic

53.

What happens to a Reversible Reaction when you increase the Temperature?

a)

It Favours the Endothermic Reaction

b)

It Favours the Exothermic Reaction

54.

What happens to a Reversible Reaction when you increase the Pressure?

a)

It Favours the reaction with Fewer molecules of Gas

b)

It Favours the reaction with More molecules of Gas

55.

What happens to a Reversible Reaction when you Increase the Concentration of the Products

a)

It Produces more Reactants

b)

It Produces more Products

56.

What happens to a Reversible Reaction when you Increase the Concentration of the Reactants

a)

It Produces more Reactants

b)

It Produces more Products

57.

What is the general formula for Alkenes?

a)

CnH2n+2

b)

CnH2n

58.

How do you Calculate RF Values?

a)

Distance Travelled by substance/ Distance travelled by solvent

b)

Distance Travelled by Solvent/ Distance travelled by Substance

59.

Which one is the test for Chlorine gas?

a)

Bleaches damp Litmus Paper

b)

Relights a glowing splint

c)

Turns Limewater Cloudy

d)

Creates a Pop when you hold a lit Splint near it

60.

Which one is the test for Hydrogen gas?

a)

Bleaches damp Litmus Paper

b)

Relights a glowing splint

c)

Turns Limewater Cloudy

d)

Creates a Pop when you hold a lit Splint near it

61.
In chemistry what is a "pure" substance?
a)
No additives
b)
A mixture
c)
Made of one element/compound only
d)
A formulation
62.
How can pure substances be distinguished from impure ones?
a)
Melting/boiling points
b)
Colour
c)
Smell
d)
Temperature
63.

What is a formulation?

a)

Milk

b)

A mixture designed for a purpose

c)

Calculation

d)

A random mixture

64.
In paper chromatography, what is the mobile phase?
a)
Pencil line
b)
Paper
c)
Ink
d)
Solvent e.g. water
65.
What value is equal to [dot distance / solvent front distance]?
a)
Rf
b)
Mr
c)
Ar
d)
Moles
66.
What does a substance's Rf value depend on?
a)
Solubility
b)
Gravity
c)
Size of compound
d)
Colour
67.
In chromatography, why is a pencil used to draw the line?
a)
It’s insoluble
b)
It's soluble
c)
It's sharper
d)
Neutral colour
68.

Which soluble gas is responsible for acid rain?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Sulphur dioxide

c)

Methane

d)

Carbon dioxide

69.

Which gas makes up 78% of our atmosphere?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Argon

70.

Which TWO processes are most responsible for the reduction in carbon dioxide in Earth's early atmosphere?

a)

Respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Combustion

d)

Formation of the oceans

71.

Which of the following in NOT a property of catalysts.

a)

They speed up reactions

b)

They are expensive

c)

They lower activation energy

d)

They are not used up

e)

They are specific

72.

Which of these substances is NOT a formulation

a)

paint

b)

fertilisers

c)

fuels

d)

diamond

73.

Which of these is NOT a greenhouse gas?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Water vapour

c)

Methane

d)

Carbon dioxide

74.

Which one is an Alkane?

a)

Has a C--C Single Bond

b)

Has a C==C Double Bond

75.

In Chromatography which is the Moblie Phase?

a)

Where the molecules can move. Always a gas or liquid

b)

Where the molecules can't move. This can be a solid or a thick liquid

76.

In Chromatography which is the Stationary Phase?

a)

Where the molecules can move. Always a gas or liquid

b)

Where the molecules can't move. This can be a solid or a thick liquid

77.

What was the First Phase of the forming of Earth's Atmosphere?

a)

Surface was covered with Volcanoes which released lots of gasses. The Atmosphere was mainly Carbon Dioxide with Little Oxygen. Nitrogen, Methane, Ammonia and Water Vapour were also present

b)

Water Vapour Condensed to form Oceans. A lot of Carbon Dioxide dissolved in the Ocean forming Sediment. Green plants and Algea evolved which also absorbed the CO2 through Photosynthesis

c)

The Algea also produced Oxygen allowing for more Complex Lifeforms to evolve. The atmosphere finally reached a point where it was 80% Nitrogen and 20% Oxygen

78.

What was the Second Phase of the forming of Earth's Atmosphere?

a)

Surface was covered with Volcanoes which released lots of gasses. The Atmosphere was mainly Carbon Dioxide with Little Oxygen. Nitrogen, Methane, Ammonia and Water Vapour were also present

b)

Water Vapour Condensed to form Oceans. A lot of Carbon Dioxide dissolved in the Ocean forming Sediment. Green plants and Algea evolved which also absorbed the CO2 through Photosynthesis

c)

The Algea also produced Oxygen allowing for more Complex Lifeforms to evolve. The atmosphere finally reached a point where it was 80% Nitrogen and 20% Oxygen

79.

What was the Third Phase of the forming of Earth's Atmosphere?

a)

Surface was covered with Volcanoes which released lots of gasses. The Atmosphere was mainly Carbon Dioxide with Little Oxygen. Nitrogen, Methane, Ammonia and Water Vapour were also present

b)

Water Vapour Condensed to form Oceans. A lot of Carbon Dioxide dissolved in the Ocean forming Sediment. Green plants and Algea evolved which also absorbed the CO2 through Photosynthesis

c)

The Algea also produced Oxygen allowing for more Complex Lifeforms to evolve. The atmosphere finally reached a point where it was 80% Nitrogen and 20% Oxygen

80.

What are the 2 processes used in making Potable Water?

a)

Filtration

b)

Sterilisation

c)

Distillation

81.

Which Part of a Graph shows the Rate of the reaction?

a)

Gradient

b)

Y-Intercept

82.
This gas was in high concentrations in the early atmosphere, and later condensed to form Earth's oceans. 
a)
oxygen
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
sulfur oxides
d)
water vapor
83.
This gas was in high concentrations in the developing atmospheres and later dissolved into rainwater, added to the oceans, then settled to the bottom of the ocean. 
a)
oxygen
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
argon
d)
water vapor
84.
What gas was most prevalent in Earth's early atmosphere?
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen
c)
water vapor
d)
sulfur oxides
85.
What gas were we missing in Earth's early atmosphere?
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen
c)
water vapor
d)
sulfur oxides
86.
What happened to the carbon dioxide that was dissolved in the early oceans?
a)
It evaporated
b)
It turned into sediment
c)
It was changed into oxygen
d)
I can't think of another good wrong answer
87.
Which gas in our atmosphere is most abundant?
a)
Argon
b)
Oxygen
c)
Nitrogen
d)
Carbon Dioxide
88.
What is the percentage of oxygen in Earth's atmosphere?
a)
1%
b)
21%
c)
78%
d)
90%
89.
What is the percentage of nitrogen in Earth's atmosphere?
a)
1%
b)
21%
c)
78%
d)
90%
90.

Scientists think Earth formed _____________ ago.

a)

100,000 years

b)

4,600,000 years

c)

4,600 years

d)

4,600,000,000 years

91.
________ formed the early atmosphere
a)
Volcanoes
b)
Earthquakes
c)
Plants
d)
Animals
92.
In paper chromatography, what is the stationary phase?
a)
solvent
b)
paper
c)
sample
93.
In paper chromatography, what is the mobile phase?
a)
solvent
b)
paper
c)
sample
94.
A pure substance shows ------------------ spot on chromat gram
a)
0
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
95.
Which ink is a mixture of different pigments? 
a)
red
b)
orange
c)
green
d)
black
96.
This chromatogram shows five commercial dyes (X, P, Q, R and S). The pigment in dye Q Is known to cause cancer. Which dye(s) is/are safe for use?
a)
P only
b)
S only
c)
P and S
d)
P and X
97.
 If a substance is not attracted to the water what happens to the 'dot'?
a)
a) Dot moves to the top of the paper
b)
b) Dot does not move at all
c)
c) Dot moves to the left or right
d)
d) Dot moves down to the bottom of the paper
98.
In paper chromatography, the LEAST soluble solute .......
a)
does not move from the start point
b)
stays closest to the start point
c)
travels furthest away from the start point
d)
can be found in the middle of the chromatogram
99.
In chromatography, if a solute does not separate and remains on the start line ....
a)
the solute is insoluble in the solvent
b)
the solute is soluble in the solvent
c)
the solvent is insoluble in the solute
d)
the solvent is soluble in the solute
100.
If a dye is insoluble in water and cannot be separated using chromatography, how can it be tested to see if it is a mixture?
a)
Use filtration instead
b)
Repeat the chromatography test using a different solvent such as propanone
c)
Use distillation instead
d)
Repeat the chromatography using water as the solvent and see if it separates this time
101.
Two or more substances that are mixed together but not chemically combined is a ___
a)
compound
b)
mixture
c)
keratin
d)
chromatography
102.
The Rvalue  for the blue component is 
a)
0.3
b)
0.7
c)
10
d)
3
103.
The Rvalue  for the red component is 
a)
0.3
b)
0.7
c)
10
d)
7
104.

How is water sterilised?

a)

Passing fresh water through filter beds and sterilising

b)

Removal of salt from sea water

c)

Reverse osmosis or distillation

d)

Using chlorine, ozone or ultraviolet light

105.

What is desalination?

a)

Passing fresh water through filter beds and sterilising

b)

Removal of salt from sea water

c)

Reverse osmosis or distillation

d)

Using chlorine, ozone or ultraviolet light

106.

What is the first step in the water treatment process?

a)

coagulation

b)

filtration

c)

sterilisation

d)

concentation

107.

What is the main disadvantage of desalination?

a)

It requires a large amount of energy

b)

It is carried out at a high pressure

c)

A low temperature is used

d)

It has a low atom economy

108.
What does chlorination do to the water?
a)
Removes microorganisms
b)
Cleans the water
c)
Makes the water taste nice
d)
Removes twigs and sediment
109.

Which substances would you NOT find in pure water?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Minerals

c)

Dirt

d)

Acids

e)

None of these

110.

In the UK how is potable water produced?

a)

Passing fresh water through filter beds and sterilising

b)

Removal of salt from sea water

c)

Reverse osmosis or distillation

d)

Evaporated from a mixture of impure water

111.
Select the correct order for the water treatment process.
a)
Sedimentation - Chlorination - Filtration
b)
Sedimentation - Filtration - Chlorination
c)
Filtration - Chlorination - Sedimentation
d)
Filtration - Sedimentation - Chlorination
112.

A large amount of aluminium sulfate was accidentally added to the drinking water supply at a water treatment works.

Scientists tested a sample of the drinking water to show that it contained dissolved solids.

Which two methods show the presence of dissolved solids in the sample of drinking water?

a)

Add damp litmus paper to the sample.

b)

Evaporate all water from the sample.

c)

Measure the sample’s boiling point.

d)

Test the sample with a glowing splint.

113.

There are two main steps in producing drinking water from fresh water.

What is the reason for STERILISATION?

a)

Desalination

b)

Improve taste

c)

Increase pH

d)

Kill bacteria

e)

Remove solids

114.

There are two main steps in producing drinking water from fresh water.

What is the reason for FILTRATION?

a)

Desalination

b)

Improve taste

c)

Increase pH

d)

Kill bacteria

e)

Remove solids

115.

 Give one disadvantage of recycling this type of ballpoint pen.

a)

Can be refilled and reused

b)

Conserves resources of crude oil and ores

c)

High cost of separating materials

d)

Polymers and alloys are not expensive

116.

 Give one advantage of recycling this type of ballpoint pen.

a)

Can be refilled and reused

b)

Conserves resources of crude oil and ores

c)

High cost of separating materials

d)

Polymers and alloys are not expensive

117.

Petrol contains a mixture of compounds, including octane (C8H18).

Complete the word equation for the complete combustion of octane.

octane   +   oxygen   →   ________________   +    __________________

a)

Water

b)

Carbon monoxide

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Sulphur dioxide

118.

What type of reaction is shown by the energy level diagram?

 

a)

Exothermic

b)

Endothermic

119.

Which arrow, A, B or C, shows the activation energy?

 

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

120.

Vehicles produce most of the atmospheric pollution in cities.

How could the atmospheric pollution in cities be reduced? Choose two.

a)

Build more roads in cities

b)

Build new car factories

c)

Develop fuel efficient engines

d)

Make car tax cheaper

e)

Use electric cars

121.

Which two gases are produced when fuels burn in car engines?

a)

Ammonia

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Carbon monoxide

d)

Nitrogen

e)

Oxygen

122.

Particulates and sulfur dioxide are pollutants produced when some fuels burn. Give the polluting effect of the pollutant.

Pollutant: Sulfur dioxide

a)

Acid rain

b)

Global dimming

c)

Global warming

d)

Landfill

e)

Sewage sludge

123.

Particulates and sulfur dioxide are pollutants produced when some fuels burn. Give the polluting effect of the pollutant.

Pollutant: Particulates

a)

Acid rain

b)

Global dimming

c)

Global warming

d)

Landfill

e)

Sewage sludge

124.

Plates are made from ceramics, paper or poly(propene).

Paper plates are biodegradable and recyclable.

Which stage of a life cycle assessment (LCA) would contain this information?

a)

Disposal at the end of useful life

b)

Extracting and processing raw materials

c)

Manufacturing and packaging

d)

Use and operation during lifetime

125.

The student concludes that the rate of reaction is greater when the concentration of hydrochloric acid is higher.

Why is the rate of reaction greater when the concentration of hydrochloric acid is higher?

Choose two answers.

a)

The particles are moving faster

b)

The particles have more energy

c)

The surface area of magnesium is smaller

d)

There are more particle collisions each second

e)

There are more particles in the same volume

126.

Hydrogen peroxide molecules collide with manganese dioxide particles during the reaction.

Why does fine manganese dioxide powder produce a higher rate of reaction than coarse manganese dioxide lumps?

a)

Fine manganese dioxide powder has a larger surface area.

b)

Fine manganese dioxide powder has larger particles.

c)

Fine manganese dioxide powder produces less frequent collisions.

127.

Student B used a method which gave repeatable results. How could student B improve the accuracy of these results?

a)

Calculate a mean but do not include any anomalous results.

b)

Calculate a mean but do not include the first set of results.

c)

Record the results in a table and plot the results on a bar chart.

d)

Record the results in a table and plot the results on a line graph.

128.

Student A investigated the effect of the particle size of a manganese dioxide catalyst on the rate of the reaction.

This is the method used.

1. Measure 25 cm3 hydrogen peroxide solution into a conical flask.

2. Add some fine manganese dioxide powder to the conical flask.

3. Measure the volume of oxygen produced every 30 seconds for 10 minutes.

4. Repeat steps 1 to 3 two more times.

5. Repeat steps 1 to 4 with coarse manganese dioxide lumps.

The method student A used did not give repeatable results.

How could student A make the results repeatable?

a)

Student A should make measurements every 2 minutes.

b)

Student A should measure the mass of manganese dioxide.

c)

Student A should use 50 cm3 hydrogen peroxide.

d)

Student A should use a beaker instead of a conical flask.

129.

A nickel catalyst is used in this reaction.

Why is a catalyst used in this reaction?

Choose TWO answers.

a)

To increase the temperature

b)

To produce less carbon monoxide

c)

To reduce costs

d)

To use less energy

e)

To use less methane

130.

The large cube of calcium carbonate was divided into eight smaller cubes.

The eight smaller cubes have a greater total surface area than the one large cube. The rate of reaction of the eight smaller cubes is ____________

a)

Faster

b)

Slower

c)

The same

131.

The balance used to weigh 10.0 g of calcium carbonate lumps caused an error.

The balance always read 0.2 g before being used.

What type of error was caused by the balance?

a)

Human error

b)

Random error

c)

Systematic error

132.

The student used the 50 cm3 line on the conical flask to measure the volume of hydrochloric acid. Suggest a piece of equipment the student could use to make the measurement of volume more accurate.

a)

Measuring cylinder

b)

Beaker

c)

Test-tube

133.

What is represented by label X?

a)

Activation energy with a catalyst

b)

Activation energy without a catalyst

c)

Overall energy change with a catalyst

d)

Overall energy change without a catalyst

134.

What would the rate be if 10g of product are produced in 20 seconds?

a)

5 g/s

b)

0.5 g/s

c)

1.5 g/s

d)

2 g/s

135.

Which of the following would NOT increase the rate of reaction?

a)

Raising the temperature.

b)

Adding a catalyst.

c)

Increasing the concentration of the reactants.

d)

Increasing the volume of the container.

136.

Of the following, which will lower the activation energy for a reaction?

a)

Increasing the concentrations of reactants.

b)

Raising the temperature of the reaction.

c)

Adding a catalyst for the reaction.

d)

Removing products as the reaction proceeds.

137.

A student carries out an experiment to measure accurately the temperature changes when different metals are added to iron(II) sulfate solution. State a suitable container to measure the iron(II) sulfate solution in this experiment.

a)

Beaker

b)

Measuring cylinder

c)

Spatula

d)

Mass balance

138.

Zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce zinc chloride and hydrogen.

When zinc powder is used, instead of larger pieces of zinc, the reaction is faster. Why is this?

a)

The activation energy is lower so a greater proportion of reactions are successful.

b)

The particles have more energy so move around faster and collide more frequently.

c)

Greater surface area means particles collide more frequently.

d)

More particles are in a given volume so the activation energy decreases.

139.

The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is catalysed by adding a small amount of manganese (IV) oxide. Which of the graphs below shows the mass of the catalyst as the reaction takes place?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

140.

Look at the graph. Use the tangent to the curve to work out the rate of reaction.

a)

0.5

b)

1

c)

1.5

d)

2

141.

Look at the graph. At what time does the reaction finish?

a)

4 minutes

b)

5 minutes

c)

6 minutes

d)

7 minutes

142.

How can rate of reaction be measured in reactions?

a)

Measure mass lost when gas produced.

b)

Measure volume of gas produced.

c)

Measure colour change or formation of a solid.

d)

Measure time taken for liquid to disappear.

143.
This symbol indicates that a reaction is ____________
a)
reversible
b)
irreversible
144.

The ______________is required to break the bonds of the reactants.

a)

Carbonic energy

b)

Activation energy

c)

Plutonic energy

d)

Energi Gaib

145.

Why does a higher concentration increase the rate of reaction?

a)

it increases the amount of reactants

b)

it lowers the activation energy

c)

it increases the energy of particle collisions

d)

it increases the frequency of particle collisions

146.
What method can NOT be used to collect gas?
a)
Using a gas syringe
b)
Collecting it in a measuring cylinder under water
c)
Measuring the change in mass
d)
Seeing how quickly the solution goes cloudy
147.

Crude oil is finite because we use it before more can be formed.

How was crude oil formed?

a)

From the remains of an ancient biomass, consisting mainly of plankton, that was buried in mud

b)

Mostly from the remains of dinosaur bones

c)

By fractional distillation

d)

By cracking

148.
Which will help decrease the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere
a)
Burning more coal
b)
Driving more
c)
Clean power like win or solar
d)
building more factories
149.
 Which of the following activities contributes the most to carbon emissions globally?
a)
Deforestation
b)
Agriculture
c)
Burning fossil fuels
d)
Respiration
150.
Which of the following is an example of how climate change could effect agriculture?
a)
Increased droughts could reduce the amount of water available for irrigation
b)
Too cold to grow certain crops
c)
Fewer storms - so more nice weather for planting and harvesting
d)
Fewer pests and weeds
151.
What is one possible effect on people's health due to climate change?
a)
Diseases might spread to new areas
b)
People would become shorter
c)
More animals might have diseases like rabies
d)
Fewer hospitals would be built
152.
Which of the following human activities contribute to an increased green house effect?
a)
Harvesting energy from the sun.
b)
Deforestation
c)
Walking to work.
d)
Switching to geothermal powered electricity 
153.
What do humans do that releases greenhouse gases into the atmosphere?
a)
Burn fossil fuels (like gas and coal)
b)
Build cement buildings
c)
Ride bikes and use solar energy
d)
Compete in the Olympics
154.
Carbon is used by plants during which process?
a)
Respiration
b)
Transpiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Transportation
155.
Which of these problems can be caused by air pollution?
a)
Respiratory problems
b)
Reduced food sources for humans
c)
Increased disease for humans
d)
Decrease in global temperatures