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Organic Evolution Test #1 B

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Fill in the blank: According to the principles of evolution by natural selection, there is ______ among individuals ("virtually universal" within populations).

a)

variation

b)

uniformity

c)

stability

d)

identity

2.

Fill in the blank: The variation among individuals is ______.

a)

inherited

b)

temporary

c)

artificial

d)

irrelevant

3.

Fill in the blank: Some variants ______ and reproduce at higher rates than others.

a)

survive

b)

sleep

c)

shrink

d)

hesitate

4.

Fill in the blank: The consequence of natural selection is ______ (change in frequency of an inherited trait within a population).

a)

evolution

b)

mutation

c)

photosynthesis

d)

respiration

5.

According to the slide 'The Nature of Natural Selection', what is the ultimate source of variation on which natural selection (NS) acts?

a)

Migration

b)

Mutation

c)

Adaptation

d)

Selection

6.

According to the slide 'The Nature of Natural Selection', NS and Mutation are (generally) ________ processes.

a)

separate

b)

identical

c)

continuous

d)

dependent

7.

According to the slide 'The Nature of Natural Selection', mutations are random with respect to the needs of the organism.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Based on the diagram in the slide 'The Nature of Natural Selection', what happens after constant random mutations in a population of bacteria?

a)

All bacteria die

b)

Selection for a trait and reproduction

c)

No change occurs

d)

The population decreases

9.

According to the diagram and text, what does natural selection (NS) act on?

a)

Populations

b)

Individuals

c)

Species

d)

Ecosystems

10.

Fill in the blank: NS acts on individuals, but the consequences (evolution) occur in _________.

a)

populations

b)

cells

c)

organs

d)

ecosystems

11.

Based on the diagram, what is the role of constant random mutations in a population of bacteria?

a)

They ensure all bacteria are identical

b)

They introduce variation in traits

c)

They prevent reproduction

d)

They eliminate all bacteria

12.

According to the diagram, selection for a trait (& reproduction) leads to:

a)

A) A decrease in population size

b)

B) Evolution in populations

c)

C) No change in the population

d)

D) Random elimination of traits

13.

Fill in the blank: 'Darwinian' fitness is based on an individual's ability to _______ and _______ relative to other individuals in the same population.

a)

survive; reproduce

b)

eat; sleep

c)

grow; migrate

d)

hunt; gather

14.

Fill in the blank: Fitness is 'a measure of _______ success relative to the average reproductive success of a population.'

a)

reproductive

b)

physical

c)

economic

d)

social

15.

Which of the following statements is true about the phrase 'survival of the fittest'?

a)

It is an accurate and complete description of natural selection.

b)

It is an oversimplification and can be misleading.

c)

It only refers to physical strength.

d)

It means the same as Darwinian fitness.

16.

Based on the diagram, which muscle condition in gulls is most likely to be targeted by trained raptors?

a)

Low

b)

Normal

c)

High

17.

What does natural selection act at the level of?

a)

Genotype only

b)

Phenotype (genotype x phenotype interaction)

c)

Environment only

d)

Population only

18.

Fill in the blank: The norm of reaction is a curve that represents the ______ expressed by a given genotype as a function of environmental conditions.

a)

phenotype

b)

genotype

c)

allele

d)

mutation

19.

According to the definition provided, what does the norm of reaction curve represent?

a)

The number of species in an environment

b)

The phenotype expressed by a given genotype as a function of environmental conditions

c)

The genetic variation in a population

d)

The average temperature of an environment

20.

What environmental factor is being varied to observe changes in the number of leaves and mean leaf area?

a)

Temperature

b)

Water availability

c)

Light intensity

d)

Soil type

21.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Genotypes do not code for a fixed number of leaves

b)

Genotypes do not code for fixed leaf area

c)

Genotypes code for a number and area of leaves that depends on the intensity of light to which the plant is exposed

d)

All of the above

22.

Based on the images and map provided, is there variation among individuals in the coat color of Oldfield Mice?

a)

True

b)

False

23.

All almost all traits in natural populations vary (at least in part) due to what?

a)

genotype

b)

climate

c)

diet

d)

behavior

24.

Which of the following genes influences coat color in many mammals and has a specific mutation in beach populations of light oldfield mice?

a)

Agouti

b)

Mc1R

c)

SRY

d)

Pax6

25.

Specific mutations in which gene contribute to light coat color in beach populations and are also found in deer mice in Nebraska sandhills?

a)

Mc1R

b)

Agouti

c)

Pax6

d)

SRY

26.

Based on the diagram, which group of mice had the highest percentage captured?

a)

Group A (53.7%)

b)

Group B (55.1%)

c)

Group C (23%)

27.

According to the example, some variants survive and reproduce at higher rates than others.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

What is a confounding factor mentioned in the example that may affect the survival of mice?

a)

Mice may have different behaviors that reflect survival.

b)

The color of the cage the mice are kept in.

c)

The type of bedding used in the experiment.

d)

The time of day the experiment is conducted.

29.

Based on the graphs and images, which type of mouse is attacked more frequently in the light background beach environment?

a)

Light mice

b)

Dark mice

c)

Both are attacked equally

30.

In the dark background inland environment, which type of mouse has a lower proportion of attacks according to the graph?

a)

Light mice

b)

Dark mice

c)

Both have the same proportion

31.

Fill in the blank: In the experiment shown, some variants of Oldfield Mouse survive and reproduce at higher rates than others because their ______ matches the environment, making them less likely to be attacked.

a)

coat color

b)

tail length

c)

ear shape

d)

body size

32.

What is the definition of adaptation according to the passage?

a)

A) A trait that currently serves one function today, but evolved from a trait that served a different function in the past.

b)

B) An inherited trait that makes an organism more fit in its abiotic (nonliving) and biotic (living) environment and has arisen as a result of the direct action of natural selection for its contemporary function.

c)

C) A random change in an organism's DNA.

d)

D) A behavior learned during an organism's lifetime.

33.

What is exaptation?

a)

A trait that currently serves one function today, but that evolved from a trait that served a different function in the past.

b)

An inherited trait that makes an organism more fit in its environment.

c)

A random mutation.

d)

A learned behavior.

34.

Fill in the blank: The sharp spines of a cactus help to _________

a)

deter herbivores.

b)

absorb sunlight.

c)

store water.

d)

attract pollinators.

35.

Fill in the blank: The waxy cuticle of a cactus helps to _________

a)

prevent water loss.

b)

absorb more sunlight.

c)

attract pollinators.

d)

increase water uptake.

36.

Fill in the blank: The accordion-like structure of a cactus allows the plant to _________

a)

expand and contract with water availability.

b)

grow taller rapidly during the night.

c)

produce flowers year-round.

d)

move towards sunlight like a sunflower.

37.

Fill in the blank: The low surface area to volume ratio of a cactus minimizes _________

a)

evaporative water loss.

b)

photosynthesis efficiency.

c)

nutrient absorption.

d)

seed dispersal.

38.

Fill in the blank: The shallow root system of a cactus collects water after _________.

a)

infrequent rains.

b)

strong winds.

c)

sunny days.

d)

cold nights.

39.

Fill in the blank: The flowers of a cactus entice _________

a)

pollinators.

b)

predators.

c)

herbivores.

d)

decomposers.

40.

Which experiment is associated with predation and natural selection in guppies?

a)

E. coli: Long-Term Evolution Experiment (LTEE)

b)

Predation and Natural Selection in Guppies

c)

Natural Selection on Lizards in Urban Heat Islands

41.

Which topic involves natural selection on lizards in urban heat islands?

a)

Predation and Natural Selection in Guppies

b)

Natural Selection on Lizards in Urban Heat Islands

c)

E. coli: Long-Term Evolution Experiment (LTEE)

42.

The Long-Term Evolution Experiment (LTEE) is conducted with which organism?

a)

Guppies

b)

Lizards

c)

E. coli

43.

When did the ongoing study of experimental evolution by Lenski start?

a)

Feb. 24, 1988

b)

Jan. 1, 1990

c)

Mar. 15, 1985

d)

Dec. 31, 1992

44.

The Lenski experiment started with a genetically homogenous line of _________

a)

E. coli

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Bacillus subtilis

d)

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

45.

How many generations has the Lenski experiment recently passed?

a)

8,000

b)

80,000

c)

800,000

d)

8,000,000

46.

According to the diagram, what is the first step in Lenski's experimental evolution system?

a)

Carry out daily protocol for 15,500+ days

b)

Take a single bacterial clone and create 12 genetically identical lines

c)

Store samples in a freezer

d)

Dilute 100-fold

47.

The Lenski experiment periodically stores samples in a -80°C freezer.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Refer to Figure 3.16. What does the graph in panel A show about the average cell volume in one E. coli line over 10,000 generations?

a)

It decreases steadily

b)

It remains constant

c)

It increases and then levels off

d)

It fluctuates randomly

49.

What does a relative fitness value greater than one indicate in panel B?

a)

A relative fitness value greater than one indicates higher fitness than the ancestor.

b)

A relative fitness value greater than one indicates lower fitness than the ancestor.

c)

A relative fitness value greater than one indicates no change in fitness compared to the ancestor.

d)

A relative fitness value greater than one indicates the same fitness as the ancestor.

50.

What does the graph in panel A show about cell volume in 12 E. coli lines over 10,000 generations?

a)

All lines show a decrease in cell volume

b)

All lines show an increase in cell volume

c)

Cell volume remains constant in all lines

d)

Cell volume fluctuates randomly in all lines

51.

What does the graph in panel B show about relative fitness in 12 E. coli lines over 10,000 generations?

a)

Relative fitness increases in all 12 E. coli lines over 10,000 generations.

b)

Relative fitness decreases in all 12 E. coli lines over 10,000 generations.

c)

Relative fitness remains constant in all 12 E. coli lines over 10,000 generations.

d)

Relative fitness fluctuates randomly in all 12 E. coli lines over 10,000 generations.

52.

Based on the figures and captions, evolution can be repeated in E. coli lines. Which of the following best explains this observation?

a)

Yes, because similar evolutionary changes can occur in separate E. coli lines under the same conditions.

b)

No, because evolution is always random and cannot be repeated.

c)

Yes, but only if the E. coli lines are genetically identical at the start.

d)

No, because E. coli cannot evolve under laboratory conditions.

53.

Natural selection is limited in what it can achieve, and organisms are not perfectly adapted to all environmental conditions because:

a)

There are genetic, historical, and environmental constraints.

b)

Natural selection always produces perfect organisms.

c)

All mutations are beneficial and lead to perfect adaptation.

d)

Organisms can adapt instantly to any change in the environment.

54.

Fitness increased in lines grown at 37°C – even though they had been grown at similar temp (35-40°C) for billions of generations. Why might this occur?

a)

New beneficial mutations can still arise, leading to further adaptation.

b)

The environment became less stressful over time.

c)

Genetic drift eliminated all harmful mutations.

d)

The population size decreased drastically.

55.

Evolutionary changes that increase growth rate at one specific temperature will be associated with a reduction in growth rates at other temperatures.

a)

Yes, there is often a trade-off in growth rates at other temperatures.

b)

No, growth rates at all temperatures will increase.

c)

No, evolutionary changes only affect the targeted temperature.

d)

Yes, but only if the temperature change is extreme.

56.

According to Figure 3.18, what is the optimal temperature for growth in the E. coli population after 20,000 generations?

a)

20°C

b)

37°C

c)

40°C

d)

42°C

57.

Fill in the blank: The maximal rate of division for the E. coli population after 20,000 generations at 37°C is highest at _________.

a)

37°C

b)

25°C

c)

42°C

d)

15°C

58.

Why did optimal performance at 37°C lead to suboptimal results at other temperatures (20°C & 42°C)?

a)

Accumulation of random mutations decreased fitness at other temperatures

b)

E. coli cannot survive at other temperatures

c)

The experiment was only conducted at 37°C

d)

There was no change in fitness at other temperatures

59.

True or False: Mutator strains of E. coli had a greater decline in fitness at suboptimal temperatures compared to non-mutator strains.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

What is antagonistic pleiotropy?

a)

A gene that only has positive effects

b)

A gene that has both beneficial and deleterious effects depending on the conditions

c)

A gene that is only active at high temperatures

d)

A gene that does not affect fitness

61.

Fill in the blank: Antagonistic pleiotropy results in a trade-off between fitness under one set of conditions and ______ under another set of conditions.

a)

fitness

b)

temperature

c)

mutation

d)

reproduction

62.

The same gene(s) that code for increased growth at 37°C can also code for deleterious effects at other temperatures.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

According to the concept of antagonistic pleiotrophy, what is predicted to happen to fitness in a population at the start when the population is most variable and positive selection is most powerful?

a)

Fitness should increase slowly

b)

Fitness should remain the same

c)

Reduced fitness should happen quickly

d)

No change in fitness is expected

64.

Most of the time, reduced fitness due to antagonistic pleiotrophy was observed within ______ generations.

a)

5,000

b)

500

c)

50,000

d)

50

65.

Began with a single population, grew for ______ generations at 37°C.

a)

2,000

b)

200

c)

20,000

d)

500

66.

How many populations were created, made up of 6 replicate populations grown at 5 different temperatures?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

50

67.

The populations evolved for an additional ______ generations.

a)

2,000

b)

200

c)

20,000

d)

500

68.

Genome sequencing was performed for one representative of each replicate population and compared to each other and the ______ population.

a)

original

b)

mutant

c)

control

d)

experimental

69.

The experiment focused on new mutations that affected a single ______.

a)

gene

b)

cell

c)

organism

d)

chromosome

70.

Refer to the diagram and text on Convergent Evolution. What does each vertex of the diagram represent?

a)

A specific gene

b)

A specific temperature regime

c)

A population size

d)

A mutation type

71.

According to the diagram, what is the mean percentage of mutated genes in common among replicates of the 32°C temperature treatment?

a)

23.0%

b)

15.5%

c)

30.2%

d)

10.8%

72.

Populations evolved at the same temperature share more mutations than those evolved at different temperatures.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

What does the difference between S_b and S_w indicate in the context of the temperature regimes?

a)

The difference between S_b and S_w was used as a measure of temperature-specific pattern of genomic evolution.

b)

It indicates the average temperature difference between two regions.

c)

It measures the rate of heat transfer in the system.

d)

It represents the difference in humidity levels between two samples.

74.

Based on the information provided, convergent evolution in the context of this experiment refers to:

a)

The process where unrelated organisms independently evolve similar traits due to similar environmental pressures.

b)

The process where related organisms develop different traits due to different environments.

c)

The process where organisms lose traits over time due to lack of use.

d)

The process where organisms evolve in isolation without any influence from their environment.

75.

According to the slide titled 'Origin of Complex Traits', what is one way complex structures could have evolved? Fill in the blank: Intermediate Stages with Function ______ to Modern Function.

a)

Similar

b)

Unrelated

c)

Opposite

d)

Random

76.

According to the slide titled 'Origin of Complex Traits', what is another way complex structures could have evolved? Fill in the blank: Novel Structures and ______.

a)

Exaptations

b)

Mutations

c)

Duplications

d)

Adaptations

77.

According to the slide, what did Darwin say about the formation of the eye by natural selection?

a)

He thought it was easily explained

b)

He thought it was absurd in the highest possible degree

c)

He thought it was a simple process

d)

He thought it was not possible

78.

What is hypothesized about the evolution of the eye according to the slide?

a)

The eye evolved suddenly

b)

The eye evolved through a series of small changes, each more beneficial than the last

c)

The eye did not evolve

d)

The eye evolved only in mammals

79.

Possible intermediates in the evolution of the eye can be seen among extant organisms.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Based on the diagram, which organism has an eye structure most similar to a pinhole camera, casting a sharp image on the retina at the expense of a loss in brightness?

a)

Octopus

b)

Nautilus

c)

Patella

d)

Murex

81.

Fill in the blank: The ________ uses a lens to focus light on the retina, much like a vertebrate eye.

a)

Octopus

b)

Earthworm

c)

Jellyfish

d)

Starfish

82.
Question Image

Match the following mollusks to their eye structure as shown in the diagram:

a)

Eye with lens and retina

1.

Octopus

b)

Pinhole camera-like eye

2.

Nautilus

c)

Simple eye that can distinguish between light and dark

3.

Patella

d)

Indented eye cup that can detect the direction of a light source

4.

Murex

83.

What is an exaptation in evolutionary biology?

a)

A trait that is lost over time

b)

A trait originally selected for one function, but later co-opted for a different function

c)

A trait that never changes its function

d)

A trait that is only found in modern species

84.

Feathers currently play a prominent role in flight but pre-date it, and likely evolved only once.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

According to the diagram, which group is most closely related to modern birds?

a)

Allosaurus

b)

Sinosauropteryx

c)

Archaeopteryx

d)

Tyrannosaurus

86.

Fill in the blank: Some traits were originally selected for one function, but later ______ for a different (selectively advantageous) function.

a)

co-opted

b)

eliminated

c)

ignored

d)

mutated

87.

Feathers are an example of an exaptation because:

a)

they originally evolved for insulation and were later adapted for flight.

b)

they were always used for flight in birds.

c)

they are only found in modern birds.

d)

they evolved solely for display purposes.

88.

What is gene sharing?

a)

A protein that serves one function in one part of the body is recruited to perform a new and different function

b)

A gene that is shared between two individuals

c)

A protein that only serves one function in the body

d)

A gene that is not expressed in the body

89.

Fill in the blank: The crystallin δ is found in _______ and its enzyme function is argininosuccinate lyase.

a)

Birds and reptiles

b)

Mammals

c)

Amphibians

d)

Fish

90.

Fill in the blank: The crystallin ε is found in _______ and its enzyme function is lactate dehydrogenase D4.

a)

Birds and crocodiles

b)

Mammals

c)

Amphibians

d)

Fish

91.

Fill in the blank: The crystallin τ is found in _______ and its enzyme function is α-Enolase.

a)

Lamprey, fish, reptiles, and birds

b)

Mammals only

c)

Insects and amphibians

d)

Plants and fungi

92.

Fill in the blank: The crystallin λ is found in _______ and its enzyme function is hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase.

a)

Rabbit

b)

Human

c)

Dog

d)

Cat

93.

Fill in the blank: The crystallin ζ is found in _______ and its enzyme function is alcohol dehydrogenase.

a)

Guinea pig

b)

Rabbit

c)

Dog

d)

Cat

94.

Fill in the blank: The crystallin α is found in _______ and its enzyme function is small heat shock protein homologs.

a)

Vertebrates

b)

Insects

c)

Fungi

d)

Plants

95.

Fill in the blank: The crystallin Ω is found in _______ and its enzyme function is aldehyde dehydrogenase homolog.

a)

Cephalopods

b)

Mammals

c)

Reptiles

d)

Birds

96.

Fill in the blank: Gene duplication is the formation of an extra ______ of a gene.

a)

copy

b)

mutation

c)

chromosome

d)

protein

97.

According to the classical model shown in the diagram, what are the possible outcomes for gene A' after gene duplication?

a)

Maintains function

b)

Accumulates mutations

c)

Becomes non-functional or gains a new function

d)

All of the above

98.

A signaling protein could evolve to match a receptor that has not yet risen (or vice versa) through which evolutionary process?

a)

By random mutations and natural selection leading to co-evolution

b)

By direct communication between unrelated species

c)

By intentional genetic engineering in nature

d)

By immediate adaptation without genetic changes

99.

According to the diagram, what hormone binds to the M receptor?

a)

Cortisol

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Insulin

d)

Glucagon