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Cybersecurity 1-112

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a rogue wireless hotspot also known as?

a)

Ghost network

b)

Evil twin

c)

Fake access point

d)

Phantom router

2.

What is the primary goal of a rogue wireless hotspot?

a)

Speed up network traffic

b)

Provide free internet

c)

Steal user data

d)

Broadcast advertisements

3.

What kind of malware encrypts corporate data for financial gain?

a)

Worm

b)

Spyware

c)

Adware

d)

Ransomware

4.

How is ransomware commonly spread within organizations?

a)

Fake software updates

b)

USB drives

c)

Malicious email attachments

d)

Social media links

5.

What was the Stuxnet worm specifically targeting?

a)

Banking software

b)

Government email servers

c)

Step 7 software by Siemens

d)

Online marketplaces

6.

What did the Stuxnet worm infect to reach its target?

a)

Cloud drives

b)

USB drives

c)

Email servers

d)

Routers

7.

Which type of infrastructure can be targeted by nation-state malware?

a)

Online stores

b)

Mobile applications

c)

Power grids and water systems

d)

Social media platforms

8.

Why do hackers use rogue access points?

a)

To improve wireless range

b)

To increase download speeds

c)

To deceive users and hijack sessions

d)

To block legitimate access points

9.

Which type of attack uses encryption to demand money from victims?

a)

Phishing

b)

Ransomware

c)

DDoS

d)

Keylogging

10.

Which of the following is most likely to create sophisticated malware?

a)

Individual hackers

b)

Script kiddies

c)

Nation-states

d)

Startup companies

11.

What term is used for low-skilled individuals who launch attacks using existing tools?

a)

Hacktivists

b)

Script kiddies

c)

Black hats

d)

Threat hunters

12.

Which group uses cyberattacks to promote political or social ideologies?

a)

Hacktivists

b)

Terrorists

c)

White hats

d)

Developers

13.

Which motivation is most common among cybercriminals?

a)

Fame

b)

Learning

c)

Financial gain

d)

Entertainment

14.

What do organized crime groups often target?

a)

Social media profiles

b)

Bank accounts and personal data

c)

Open-source repositories

d)

Tech conference attendees

15.

Nation-states often engage in what type of cyber activities?

a)

Phishing

b)

Industrial espionage

c)

DDoS

d)

Tech support scams

16.

What is the purpose of stealing intellectual property?

a)

Entertainment

b)

Educational use

c)

Trade advantage

d)

News reporting

17.

Which threat actor is most likely to conduct DDoS attacks for protest?

a)

Terrorists

b)

Hacktivists

c)

Cyber soldiers

d)

Freelancers

18.

What does IoT stand for?

a)

Internet of Technology

b)

Internal Office Tools

c)

Internet of Things

d)

Interface of Transport

19.

Why are IoT devices often vulnerable to attacks?

a)

Too expensive to hack

b)

Lack of user interaction

c)

Outdated or non-updatable firmware

d)

Encrypted storage

20.

What group typically performs malware reverse engineering and threat hunting?

a)

Tier 1 analysts

b)

SOC managers

c)

Tier 3 analysts

d)

Software developers

21.

Which threat actor is known for causing fear and disruption, especially in public services?

a)

Financial attackers

b)

Hacktivists

c)

Terrorist groups

d)

Amateurs

22.

Which threat actor typically targets other countries for political reasons?

a)

Amateurs

b)

State-sponsored groups

c)

Developers

d)

Hacktivists

23.

How do amateurs usually launch their attacks?

a)

By purchasing zero-day exploits

b)

By creating custom malware

c)

Using publicly available tools

d)

With insider help

24.

Which group may be motivated by ideology rather than money?

a)

Organized criminals

b)

Hacktivists

c)

Nation-states

d)

Internal staff

25.

What is a key risk associated with smart home devices?

a)

High price

b)

Fragility

c)

Easy software upgrade

d)

Security flaws

26.

What does PII stand for?

a)

Personal Internet Information

b)

Public Identity Information

c)

Personally Identifiable Information

d)

Protected Internal Info

27.

What is an example of PII?

a)

Company logo

b)

Server IP

c)

Credit card number

d)

Antivirus software

28.

What is PHI a subset of?

a)

PSI

b)

Financial data

c)

PII

d)

Biometrics

29.

What does PHI stand for?

a)

Public Health Interface

b)

Protected Health Information

c)

Personal Healthcare Insurance

d)

Private Human Identity

30.

What kind of data is included in PSI?

a)

Login credentials

b)

Server uptime

c)

Physical address

d)

System temperature

31.

What are EMRs?

a)

Electronic Medical Records

b)

Emergency Medical Results

c)

Email Monitoring Reports

d)

E-marketing Regulations

32.

What can stolen PII be used for?

a)

Updating software

b)

Fake credit applications

c)

Legal reporting

d)

Product reviews

33.

What is a consequence of losing customer trust due to data breaches?

a)

Improved customer loyalty

b)

Better brand recognition

c)

Lost competitive advantage

d)

Free advertisement

34.

Why is the loss of trust harmful to companies?

a)

It causes legal violations

b)

It results in employee turnover

c)

It affects customer retention and loyalty

d)

It causes server crashes

35.

How can nation-state attacks impact national security?

a)

By hacking school databases

b)

By leaking cartoons

c)

By disrupting essential services

d)

By slowing websites

36.

Which area is commonly targeted by state-supported hackers?

a)

Games

b)

Energy grids

c)

Restaurants

d)

E-books

37.

Why might attackers go after PHI data?

a)

It is easy to find

b)

It is not protected

c)

It is valuable on black markets

d)

It can be easily deleted

38.

What can the theft of PSI lead to?

a)

Free internet access

b)

Faster browsing

c)

Unauthorized system access

d)

Discount coupons

39.

What is a primary goal of cyber attackers targeting sensitive data?

a)

Learning new skills

b)

Selling it for profit

c)

Testing systems

d)

Upgrading devices

40.

What can happen when attackers target a nation's financial systems?

a)

Population growth

b)

National growth

c)

Economic collapse

d)

Better security

41.

What are the three main elements of a SOC?

a)

People, budgets, applications

b)

People, processes, technologies

c)

Policies, firewalls, routers

d)

Networks, VPNs, protocols

42.

What is the role of a Tier 1 Alert Analyst?

a)

Handle malware forensics

b)

Develop SOC policies

c)

Monitor incidents and open tickets

d)

Manage budgets and equipment

43.

What is the purpose of SIEM?

a)

File backup

b)

Data filtering and threat detection

c)

VPN tunneling

d)

Physical surveillance

44.

What does SOAR stand for?

a)

Security Online Access and Response

b)

Security Operations Automated Response

c)

Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response

d)

Secure Operations and Risk

45.

What metric measures the time from breach to detection?

a)

MTTC

b)

MTTD

c)

MTTR

d)

SLA

46.

What does MTTR stand for?

a)

Mean Time to Respond

b)

Maximum Time to Repair

c)

Malware Type to Remove

d)

Managed Threat Response

47.

Which of the following best describes "dwell time"?

a)

Time a system takes to boot

b)

Time an attacker remains undetected

c)

Time needed to resolve incidents

d)

Time to configure firewalls

48.

What is the role of a Tier 3 analyst?

a)

Respond to phishing emails

b)

Hunt for and reverse engineer threats

c)

Configure routers

d)

Set network permissions

49.

Why is balancing security and availability important?

a)

To meet legal compliance

b)

To avoid budget overspending

c)

To prevent disruptions to business

d)

To pass audits

50.

What type of metrics are KPIs in the SOC context?

a)

Legal metrics

b)

Financial statistics

c)

Performance indicators

d)

Marketing indicators

51.

What is often the first step to gaining cybersecurity experience?

a)

Becoming a consultant

b)

Starting a business

c)

Internships

d)

Working as a lawyer

52.

What organization is known to offer scholarships to close the cybersecurity skills gap?

a)

Apple

b)

Google

c)

Cisco

d)

Tesla

53.

What type of agencies do companies use to hire short-term cybersecurity help?

a)

Head hunters

b)

Staffing consultants

c)

Temporary agencies

d)

Government bureaus

54.

Agencies do companies use to hire short-term cybersecurity help?

a)

Head hunters

b)

Staffing consultants

c)

Temporary agencies

d)

Government bureaus

55.

Which job is considered a potential first step into cybersecurity?

a)

Game developer

b)

Support desk agent

c)

Hardware technician

d)

Network installer

56.

What is a benefit of scholarships and awards in cybersecurity?

a)

Increased product sales

b)

Closing the skills gap

c)

Reducing salary expectations

d)

Promoting AI

57.

What should you do during a temporary position to increase the chance of permanent hire?

a)

Request pay raises

b)

Work remotely

c)

Demonstrate skills and commitment

d)

Avoid training

58.

What is a key advantage of working in a call center before joining a SOC?

a)

Understanding cyber insurance

b)

Building people management experience

c)

Learning basic network troubleshooting

d)

Avoiding technical work

59.

Why do employers value internships?

a)

They reduce office space needs

b)

They allow for fast recruitment

c)

They offer a chance to evaluate skills

d)

They save on internet bills

60.

Which of the following is least likely to help someone become a cybersecurity defender?

a)

Internships

b)

Awards

c)

Ignoring training

d)

Entry-level jobs

61.

What is a good way to find cybersecurity internships?

a)

Craigslist

b)

Social media influencers

c)

Job portals like LinkedIn and Glassdoor

d)

Chat rooms

62.

What does DOS stand for?

a)

Disk Operating Software

b)

Data Operation System

c)

Disk Operating System

d)

Desktop Operating System

63.

What interface did MS-DOS use?

a)

Graphical

b)

Voice command

c)

Command line

d)

Touch screen

64.

Which company developed MS-DOS?

a)

Apple

b)

Microsoft

c)

IBM

d)

Linux Foundation

65.

What Windows version was the first to use GUI over MS-DOS?

a)

Windows XP

b)

Windows 95

c)

Windows 1.0

d)

Windows 7

66.

What key feature distinguishes 64-bit from 32-bit OS?

a)

Power usage

b)

RAM compatibility

c)

Address space

d)

Screen resolution

67.

What was the last standalone version of Windows according to Microsoft?

a)

Windows 8

b)

Windows XP

c)

Windows 10

d)

Windows 11

68.

What command shows a list of files in the current directory in MS-DOS?

a)

show

b)

ls

c)

dir

d)

cd

69.

Which MS-DOS command is used to delete files?

a)

remove

b)

erase

c)

del

d)

kill

70.

What does the "cd .." command do?

a)

Opens current directory

b)

Moves up one directory level

c)

Deletes a folder

d)

Creates a file

71.

What is the Windows command line tool called?

a)

CLI

b)

cmd

c)

shell

d)

terminal

72.

What is the kernel in Windows responsible for?

a)

Managing wallpaper settings

b)

Handling I/O and memory

c)

Logging into websites

d)

Browsing the internet

73.

What is the purpose of the HAL?

a)

Hide admin logs

b)

Interface between software and user

c)

Handle communication between hardware and kernel

d)

Monitor apps

74.

What is NTFS?

a)

A type of Windows firewall

b)

A command in cmd

c)

A Windows file system

d)

A network monitoring tool

75.

What is stored in the Master File Table (MFT)?

a)

Encryption keys

b)

File and directory locations

c)

Printer drivers

d)

Log files

76.

Which file format does NTFS use to add hidden malicious code?

a)

.bat

b)

.txt

c)

Alternate Data Streams (ADS)

d)

.dll

77.

What is BIOS responsible for during boot?

a)

Displaying GUI

b)

Executing POST and loading MBR

c)

Encrypting hard drive

d)

Opening login screen

78.

What process reads the BCD during startup?

a)

cmd.exe

b)

Winlogon.exe

c)

Bootmgr.exe

d)

kernel32.dll

79.

What does KMCS ensure during boot?

a)

Windows updates

b)

Driver authenticity

c)

Firewall rules

d)

Network speed

80.

What tool can be used to edit Windows startup options?

a)

netstat

b)

regedit

c)

Msconfig

d)

BIOS

81.

What startup type loads only basic drivers and services?

a)

Normal

b)

Safe mode

c)

Selective

d)

Diagnostic

82.

What registry key stores system-related information?

a)

HKCU

b)

HKCR

c)

HKLM

d)

HKCC

83.

What kind of file system is EXT commonly used in?

a)

macOS

b)

Windows

c)

Linux

d)

Android only

84.

Which Windows file system supports long filenames and large file sizes?

a)

FAT16

b)

exFAT

c)

HFS+

d)

NTFS

85.

What does the registry store?

a)

BIOS settings

b)

User files

c)

System configuration data

d)

IP addresses

86.

What is used to navigate and edit the Windows registry?

a)

WMI

b)

RAMMap

c)

regedit

d)

netstat

87.

What is the best practice regarding Administrator accounts?

a)

Always use it for browsing

b)

Avoid using it unless necessary

c)

Set it with no password

d)

Rename it to 'guest'

88.

What Windows tool manages local users and groups?

a)

lusrmgr.msc

b)

netstat

c)

taskmgr

d)

msconfig

89.

What command opens the Command Line Interface (CLI)?

a)

search.exe

b)

run.cmd

c)

cmd.exe

d)

regedit

90.

Which scripting tool is more advanced than CLI?

a)

Terminal

b)

PowerShell

c)

BIOS

d)

netstat

91.

What file extension do PowerShell scripts use?

a)

.sh

b)

.bat

c)

.exe

d)

.ps1

92.

What does WMI stand for?

a)

Windows Media Interface

b)

Windows Management Instrumentation

c)

Wireless Machine Interface

d)

Web Management Interface

93.

What does the net view command do?

a)

Sets user passwords

b)

Displays open ports

c)

Shows networked devices

d)

Deletes network logs

94.

What tab in Task Manager shows resource usage over time?

a)

Details

b)

Performance

c)

Users

d)

Services

95.

What does the Analyze Wait Chain function do?

a)

Ends tasks

b)

Prioritizes services

c)

Detects stalled processes

d)

Monitors startup apps

96.

What protocol does Windows use for file sharing?

a)

FTP

b)

SMB

c)

SNMP

d)

SSH

97.

What is UNC format used for?

a)

Encryption

b)

DNS resolution

c)

File path addressing

d)

IP address blocking

98.

What does RDP stand for?

a)

Remote Device Policy

b)

Restricted Data Protocol

c)

Remote Desktop Protocol

d)

Registry Deployment Protocol

99.

Which command helps test DNS functionality?

a)

ping

b)

nslookup

c)

ipconfig

d)

route

100.

What is the purpose of netsh?

a)

Configure registry

b)

Modify network settings

c)

Edit firewall rules

d)

Check BIOS

101.

What is the significance of administrative shares?

a)

Used for public sharing

b)

Hidden system shares (e.g., C$)

c)

Media streaming

d)

Backup software only

102.

What command helps view active TCP connections?

a)

tasklist

b)

ipconfig

c)

netstat

d)

ping

103.

What switch shows the PID in netstat?

a)

-a

b)

-b

c)

-o

d)

-abno

104.

What tool records logs for system and security events?

a)

WMI

b)

Event Viewer

c)

Task Manager

d)

File Explorer

105.

What does Windows Defender provide?

a)

Web browsing

b)

Malware protection

c)

Backup service

d)

GUI customization

106.

What does a service pack include?

a)

Malware definitions

b)

Licensing updates

c)

Grouped security updates

d)

Registry snapshots

107.

Which log category contains login events?

a)

Application

b)

Security

c)

System

d)

Setup

108.

What command enables manual malware scan with Defender?

a)

scan.exe

b)

viruscheck

c)

mpcmdrun

d)

cleanstart

109.

What does a firewall do?

a)

Blocks spam emails

b)

Filters network traffic

c)

Backs up files

d)

Monitors keyboard usage

110.

Where are Windows Firewall settings found?

a)

Task Manager

b)

Control Panel

c)

netsh firewall

d)

BIOS

111.

What type of rule can be configured in advanced firewall settings?

a)

Uptime

b)

DNS cache

c)

Inbound/outbound traffic rules

d)

Application logs

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