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Doc 69 pages part2

Total questions: 144

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

patient complains of constant headaches, frequent palpitations, and high blood pressure (BP). Blood pressure at rest is 150/100 mm hg. However, when performing physical exertion or emotional stress, the patient experiences increased sweating, blood pressure! more, the pulse increases to 130-140 per minute, blood glucose rises to 8.8-10 mmol/L. Blochemical blood test insulin, T3 and T4 levels ……. epinephrine levels are elevated. These signs testify in favor of:

a)

type 2 diabetes metlitus

b)

pheochromocytomas

c)

Tryperaldosteronises

d)

Addisons disease

e)

Hypercortsism

2.

.patient, the development of viral cirrhosis of the liver was complicated by the development of splenomegaly, escites, varicose vein, "Medusa's head*, hemorrholds. The development of these symptoms in circhosis of the liver is due to:

a)

increased blood Outflow from the hepatic veins

b)

lesions of the venous bed in the liver

c)

reduced blood Now through arteriovenous anastomoses

d)

reduction of plasma volume in the portal system

e)

Reduction of venous resistance in the portal system

3.

This drug causes a state of calm, tranquilizing or anxiolytic effect - the ability to reduce the state of drowsiness:

a)

Morphine

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Levodopa

d)

Promedol

e)

Mezapam

4.

patient A. 37 years old, teacher, obesity of the ill degree, complained of severe pain in the area of the right knee joint MRi showed de ernal meniscus, marginal osteophytes. The most important etiological factor in the development of pathology of the musculoskelel

a)

Age

b)

the patient's occupation

c)

male sex

d)

presence of osteophytes

e)

Obesity

5.

A 40-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has recently been treated with methotrexate, Her pl dinydroorotate dehydcogenase, an enzyme involved in pyrimidine synthesis. Which drug was added

a)

Letunamide

b)

Proxicam

c)

Penicillamine

d)

Dexamethasone

e)

Prednisolone

6.

A 70-year-old female present to your office complaining of easy fatigebility, exertional dyspnes and y exemination reveals symmetrically decreased vibratory sensation to the lower extremities. Her hemm hypersegmented noutrophils, MCV-110; megaloblastic, hyperchromic anemia was diagnosed. Which

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Figrastim

c)

Vitimin B12

d)

Erythropoiotin

e)

Iron preparations

7.

The mechanism of action of drugs in this group is associated with the accumulation of monourines ………… nervous system

a)

Nacrotic ahalgesics

b)

Antiparkinson drugs

c)

Antideptessants

d)

Tranquitzers

e)

Neuroleptics

8.

Thiazolindinedones:

a)

PPAR receptor agonists

b)

GLP-1 receptor agonists

c)

Inhibit DPP-4

d)

Block ATP-dependent potassium channels of pancreatic beta cells

e)

Stimulate insulin receptors

9.

Gastroprotector that forms a protective film in an acidic environment on the surface of eroslons and also has a bactericidal effect on Helicobacter pylori: Bisacodyl mebeverine Sodium carbonate mesoprostol bismuth tripotassium dicitrate

a)

Bisacodyl

b)

Sodium carbonate

c)

mesoprostol

d)

mebeverine

e)

bismuth tripotassium dicitrate

10.

patient D., 38 years old. developed laryngeal stenosis after a thermal burn. As a result, the rhythm Of breathing was disrupted. Charactersitic aaythmias in laryngeal stenosis:

a)

Rare deep breathing with difficulty exhaling

b)

Frequent shallow breathing

c)

frequent deep breathing

d)

Prolonged consultive infatuation followed by exhalation retention

e)

Sawing breathing with prolonged and laboured inhalation

11.

Patient with cholelithiasis complained of bloating, emaciation, trequent diarrhea, and vomiting, A large number of muscle fibers and fat droplet and the content of enzymes in the duodenal juice was sharply reduced. The mechanisms of the orcurrence of the above symptoms suggest development of:

a)

eradidic state

b)

Uremic syndrome

c)

Hypertension

d)

…..ic gastric achila

e)

atic insufficiency

12.

specific Immunosuppressive drug that selectively suppresses autoimmune reactions due to specific ……

a)

Auranofin

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Cyclosporin

d)

Mercaptopurine

e)

Inflicimib

13.

Exogenous factor in the occurrence of nephro- and urolithiasis is:

a)

low in calcium

b)

hyperparathyroidism

c)

excess protein in food

d)

constant use of hard water

e)

hypervitaminosis B6

14.

Paraspecific reactions in tuberculosis include:

a)

Simon'sfocus

b)

Leptomeningitis

c)

Cavern

d)

Gon'sfocus

e)

Vasculites

15.

.In the biopsy taken from the uterus of a 45-year-old woman, it was found: irregularly shaped foci of the endometrial stroma were detected in the myometrial tissue, with glandular structures in the stroma.

a)

this pathological process is endometrial glandular hyperplasia

b)

this pathological process is endocervicosis

c)

as a complication, cervical cancer may develop

d)

the endometrium becomes thinner in this pathology

e)

this pathological process is adenomyosis

16.

complications of cholera include;

a)

Myocardal infarction

b)

intestinal gangrene

c)

amyloidoses

d)

Hyalinosis

e)

Uremia

17.

The type stage of secondary tuberculosis that develops before cirrhosis tuberculosis:

a)

fibrous coverous tuberculosis

b)

tubercutona

c)

Assman Redeker pneumonia

d)

acute focal tuberculoses

e)

infitratre tuberculosis

18.

which form of hematogenic tuberculosis develops a necrotic tissue reaction:

a)

kidney tuberculosis

b)

hematogenie disseminated tubercufosis

c)

cone-articular tubercutosis

d)

acute tuberculous sepsis

e)

miliary tuberculosis

19.

.A disease characterized by the development of the appearance of "iron goiter":

a)

Diffuse towc goiter

b)

Rede's thyroiditis

c)

Sporadic goiter

d)

Endemic goiter

e)

Hashimoto's thyroiditis

20.

Name a drug that belongs to thiazolidinediones:

a)

Glargine

b)

Acarbose

c)

Pioglitazone

d)

glimepinde

e)

Repaglinide

21.

Select a synthetic glucocorticosteroid drug that does not contain fluorine atoms:

a)

Prednisolone

b)

Dexamethasone

c)

Fluticasone

d)

Aldosterone

e)

Beclamethasone

22.

The appearance of plague phlyctena is characteristic of which type of plague:

a)

cubonic

b)

sin-bubonic

c)

intestinal

d)

primary septicemic

e)

primary pulmonary

23.

Process occurring in acute hematogenous osteomyelitis: Epiphyscolyas comyelitis: Brodies abscess Sequestration Fistulas Amyloidosis

a)

Epiphyscolyas comyelitis

b)

Sequestration

c)

Brodies abscess

d)

Fistulas

e)

Amyloidosis

24.

Acarbose side effect:

a)

Hepatotoxicity

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Lactic acidosis

d)

lipodystrophy

e)

Flatulence

25.

Detected microscopically in neurons during rabies:

a)

Satellitoss profferation, basophilia

b)

Nigrolysis, fionnolysis, hemosiderosis

c)

Chromatolysis, hydropic degeneration, necrosis

d)

Restitution, colliquation, neuronophagy

e)

Hyperplasia, lipofuscinosis, coagulation

26.

What drugs have anticoagulant effect used in acute thrombosis, thromboembolism, burns. Frostbite, glomerulonephritis and stroke:

a)

Warfarin, syncumar, neodicoumarin

b)

Fraxiparin, sandopaarin, heparin

c)

Aspirin, cyciopidine, pentoxifylline

d)

Thrombin, fibrinogen, fibrin

e)

Rutin, quercetin, galascorbine

27.

Zafirlukast-bronchodilator drug that:

a)

blocks M-cholinoreceptors

b)

stimulates Beta2-adrenoreceptors

c)

stimulation of the respiratory center

d)

provides expectorant action

e)

blocks leukotriene receptors

28.

Saline laxatives:

a)

increase the volume of intestinal contents, used for intestinal obstruction

b)

act on the entire intestine, increase the volume of intestinal contents, used for acute constipation

c)

act on the entire intestine, used for intestinal obstruction

d)

act on the large intestine, used for chronic constipation

e)

act on the small intestine, used for acute constipation

29.

.A patient with Parkinson's disease was prescribed a medication, which caused tachycardia, difficulty urinating, and worsening glaucoma. What drug are we talking about?

a)

Levodopa

b)

Selegiline

c)

Bromocriptine

d)

Amantadin

e)

Trihexyphenidyl

30.

If a large focus of cheesy necrosis appears in the lungs, surrounded by connective tissue, it is:

a)

Cancer

b)

Abscess

c)

Acute cavern

d)

Tuberculoma

e)

Chronic cavern

31.

Which organs are affected by primary tuberculosis with alimentary infection:

a)

colon

b)

liver

c)

esophagus

d)

stomach

e)

jejunum

32.

Pathology developing with thyroid insufficiency glands:

a)

Diabesity insipidus

b)

Graves disease

c)

Cretinism

d)

Type 1 diabetes

e)

Acromegaly

33.

Antiparkinsonian drug with antiviral action:

a)

entacapone

b)

cyclodo!

c)

bromocriptine

d)

amantadine

e)

levodopa

34.

Antihypertensive drug with central neurotropic action:

a)

Metoprolo!

b)

Azamethonium bromide

c)

Losartan

d)

Mulrinone

e)

Methyidopa

35.

What drugs are used to treat Parkinson's disease?

a)

carbamazepine and valproic acid

b)

chlorpromazine and haloperidol

c)

trihexyphenidyl and chlorpromazine

d)

chlorpromazine and levodopa

e)

levodopa and trihexyphenidy!

36.

A 52-year-old man recovering from an acute myocardial infarction develops new-onset chest r that is relieved by leaning forward. The patient is treated with a medication that inhibits COX and COX-2 enzymes via irreversible acetylation, resulting relief of his symptoms. Which of the following agents was most likely used in this patient

a)

Aspirin

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Colchicine

d)

Budesonide

e)

Celecoxib

37.

Bile emulsifies fats and promotes the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. Insufficient bile formation can be eliminated by the drug:

a)

isaphenine

b)

lingonberry leaf

c)

methionine

d)

cholenzim

e)

cholestyramine

38.

calcium channel blocker amlodipine has an antianginal effect due to:

a)

Improves the metabolism of cardiomyocytes

b)

Reducing the work of the heart due to increased preload and myocardial crygen demand

c)

Reflex expansion of coronary vessels and increased oxygen delivery to cardiomyocytes

d)

Reducing the work of the heart due to direct cardiodepressive effects and reducing myocardial oxygen demand

e)

Reducing the work of the heart due to decreased afterload and myocardial oxygen demand

39.

The mechanism of action of this bronchodilator is that it stimulates the release of endogenous norepinephrine from vesicles of the adrenergic synapse, and also blocks enzymes of metabolism of this mediator, identify the drug

a)

ephedrine

b)

isoprenaline

c)

sadbutamol

d)

adrenaline

e)

atropine sulfate

40.

A 66-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to left leg pain. Her left posterior calf is tender and swollen to the knee. The patient has taken daily subcutaneous, lov molecular -weight heparin. Three days ago, complete blood count was normal, but platelet co is now 70,000/mm3. Peripheral blood smear shows decreased platelet number but no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's thrombocytope Platelet removal by splenic macrophages may cause drug Induced thrombocytopenia Non-immune -medicated plateler clumping Uncontrolled activation of the coagulation cascade Decrease bone marrow platelet production bone marrow platelet production

a)

Platelet removal by splenic macrophages may cause drug Induced thrombocytopenia

b)

Non-immune -medicated plateler clumping

c)

Uncontrolled activation of the coagulation cascade

d)

Decrease bone marrow platelet production

e)

bone marrow platelet production

41.

A 44-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has recently been treated with methotrexate. h physician recently added another drug that inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase, an enzyme involved in pyrimidine synthesis. Which drug was added to the patient's regimen?

a)

Piroxicam

b)

Penicillamine

c)

Leflunamide

d)

Prednisolone

e)

Dexamethasone

42.

.Metoclopramide is a centrally acting drug, indicated for nausea and vomiting, hypotension and atony of the gastrointestinal tract. What are its side effects associated with: extrapyramidal disorders and headache?

a)

excitation of serotonin receptors in the central nervous system

b)

excitation of glutamate receptors in the central nervous system

c)

blockade of dopamine receptors in the central nervous system

d)

excitation of dopamine receptors in the central nervous system

e)

blockade of adenosine receptors in the central nervous system

43.

In rheumatoid arthritis, pannus formation results in:

a)

destruction of cartilage

b)

increased angiogenesis

c)

inhibition of the autoimmune process

d)

suppression of fibroblast proliferation

e)

development of osteosclerosis

44.

.Patient A., 37 years old, teacher, obesity of the Ill degree, complained of severe pain in the area the right knee joint. MRI showed degenerative damage of the internal meniscus, marginal osteophytes. The most important etiological factor in the development of pathology of the musculoskeletal system in this case is:

a)

male sex

b)

presence of ostephytes

c)

obesity

d)

the patient's occupation

e)

Age

45.

character of cellular infiltration in valves in acute polypous-warty endocarditis:

a)

histiolymphocytic

b)

eosinophilic

c)

leukocytic

d)

plasmocytic

e)

giant celluiar

46.

What develops with a mild form of adenovirus infection:

a)

Catarrhal rhinolaryngotrachelts

b)

Fibrinous rhinolaryngotracheitis

c)

Putrefactive rhinolaryngotracheitis

d)

Purulent rhinolaryngotracheitis

e)

Hemorrhagic rhinolaryngotracheitis

47.

.In which organs is the primary tuberculosis complex is located:

a)

Intestines and lungs

b)

Heart and joints

c)

Brain and spinal cord

d)

Bones and muscles

e)

Liver and kidneys

48.

.patient with fibrotic cavernous tuberculosis died of chronic pulmonary heart failure. Over the ast few years, pronounced proteinuria has been observed. Choose the correct formulation haracteristic of this situation:

a)

A focus of caseous pneumonia is detected in 1-2 segments of the right lung

b)

The patient is diagnosed with amyloid cardiomegaly

c)

Hematogenic spread of the pathological process is most often observed

d)

The patient has developed primary amyloidosis

e)

In 1-2 segments of the right lung, a cavity filled with a caseous mass with a wall consisting of three layers

49.

.what type of inflammation develops in the intestine in the second stage of dysentery:

a)

diphtheritic

b)

catharrhal

c)

croupous

d)

phiegmonous

e)

ulcerative

50.

Characteriatic complications of typhold fever include

a)

intestinal sear stenosis

b)

cachexia

c)

Amyloidosis

d)

intestinal perforation

e)

pyelonephritis

51.

the characteristic manifestation of the cutaneous form of anthrax is:

a)

lymph nodes are not affected

b)

the entry gate of the infection is not found

c)

the outcome is often unfavorable

d)

development of a carbuncle

e)

development of anthrax phiyctena

52.

.characteristic manifestation of the cutaneous form of anthrax is: lymph nodes are not affected the entry gate of the infection is not found the outcome is often unfavorable development of a carbuncle development of anthrax phlycenta

a)

lymph nodes are not affected

b)

the entry gate of the infection is not found

c)

the outcome is often unfavorable

d)

development of a carbuncle

e)

development of anthrax phlycenta

53.

solitary gummas during syphilis are often located in:

a)

stomach

b)

skin

c)

liver

d)

kidneys

e)

aorta

54.

Pathological processes that develop in pernicious anemia

a)

atrophic gastritis, hepatic heromelanosis

b)

demyelination, pyoid bane marrow

c)

microspherocytosis. splenomegaly

d)

macrocytosis. funkular myelosis

e)

necrotizing angina, atrophic glossitis

55.

A sign of anemia with intravascular hemolysis:

a)

Funicular myelosis

b)

Local hemosiderosis

c)

Splenomegaly

d)

Suprahepatic jaundice

e)

Hyperchromic anemia

56.

The characteristic feature of tertiary syphilis:

a)

primary syphilitic lesion formation

b)

syphilides formation

c)

acute interstitial inflammation develops

d)

gummas formation

e)

hard chancre formation

57.

Characteristics of primary syphilis include:

a)

roseolas formation

b)

chronic interstitial inflammation develops

c)

gummas formation

d)

papules formation

e)

primary syphilitic lesion formation

58.

Papillary growth due to follicular epithelial proliferation, colloid vacuolization, changes in its staining properties, lympho-plasmocytic infiltration of the stroma, lymphoid tissue hyperplasi with germinal centers, myocardial hypertrophy, liver fibrosis, thymomegaly, and adrenal corti layer atrophy are characteristic of:

a)

Graves' disease

b)

Fibrous goiter

c)

Hashimoto's goiter

d)

Endemic goiter

e)

Riedel's goiter

59.

58 years old, with acute myocardial infarction is infused with thrombolytic drug combinant human tissue plasminogen activator with simultaneous administration of heparin. Results of therapy may be the development of reperfusion syndrome in the ischaemic zone. the manifestations of which is:

a)

Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome

b)

no-reflow syndrome

c)

Dressier syndrome

d)

chronic right ventricular failure syndrome

e)

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

60.

The pathology of the brain characteristic for the primary-septic form of anthrax:

a)

purulent meningoencephalitis

b)

brain hematoma

c)

hemorrhagic meningoencephalitis

d)

brain ischemic infarcts

e)

granulomatous meningoencephalitis

61.

patient R., 60 years old, suffers from chronic alcoholism. There is a dilation of the saphenous veins the anterior thoracic and abdominal walls, splenomegaly, the liver is dense and bumpy. The tient will have a decrease in the level of the following in the blood:

a)

amino acids albumin

b)

ammonia

c)

ketone bodies

d)

bilirubin

62.

In traumatic surgical interventions, septic shock with hyperproduction of endotoxins, obstetric DIC syndrome, the development of thrombinemia with the appearance of a large number of loo microthrombi in blood vessels is initiated:

a)

formation of a "tissue factor + factor Vila" complex

b)

activation of the primary anticoagulant system

c)

formation of pathological anticoagulants

d)

activation of the platelet component of haemostasis

e)

decrease in endothelial thromboresistance

63.

Patient V., 20 y.o., is undergoing inpatient treatment for bilateral pneumonia. On admission, breathing is 32-34 per minute, shallow. Intercostal muscles are involved in respiratory movements. As a result of allergic edema of the larynx and vocal cords, the patient developed acute stenosis of the upper respiratory tract. Objectively: pupils are constricted, respiratory r is 8 in 1 minute, exhalation is significantly difficult, blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, pulse is 40 minute. This phase of asphyxia is characterized by:

a)

paralysis of the bulbar respiratory center

b)

gasping breath

c)

Increase in sympathetic nervous system tone

d)

loss of reflexes

e)

Increase the tone of the parasympathetic nervous system

64.

Hyperactivation of ionotropic postsynaptic AMPA receptors in ischemic brains causes:

a)

closure of ion channels for calcium

b)

exit from sodium and water neurons

c)

osmotic cell swelling

d)

magnesium block of NMDA receptors

e)

inhibition of neuronal excitotoxicity mechanisms

65.

Epileptic neurons are characterized by:

a)

absence of glutamate depolarization

b)

low excitability

c)

instability of membranes

d)

hyperpolarization of membranes

e)

low generation of high-frequency discharges

66.

The High prevalence of seizure syndrome in children in the first year of life is explained by the Presence at this age:

a)

immature inhibitory mechanisms of the brain

b)

high hydrophobicity of neurone's

c)

high gamma-aminabutyric acid content

d)

low amplitude electrical activity of the brain

e)

Low in neurotransmitters • aspartate and glutamate

67.

Manifestation of immunodepressive effects of the influenza virus:

a)

dyscirculatory changes

b)

autoimmunization

c)

dystrophic changes in internal organs

d)

spleen hyperplasia

e)

addition of secondary infection

68.

Changes in internal organs during the algid stage of cholera:

a)

atrophy of lymphoid tissue in spleen

b)

splenic hyperplasia

c)

diphtheritic inflammation develops in the intestines

d)

amyloidosis

e)

nephrosclerosis of the kidneys

69.

Gluccocoticoids are produced.

a)

Adernal medulla

b)

Adernal cortex

c)

Beta cells of pancreas

d)

Thyroid follicles

e)

Testicular glandulocytes

70.

Desired pharmacological effect of hymecromone (odeseton):

a)

choleretic

b)

gastroprotective

c)

cholelitholytic

d)

antisecretory

e)

combined antacid

71.

Indicate direct inhibitor of factor Xa, anticoagulant:

a)

Ascorbic acid

b)

Tidopidine

c)

Warfrin

d)

Aminocarpic acid

e)

Rivaroxban

72.

What is the mechanism of action of Sertraline:

a)

Increase GABA activity

b)

Inhibits serotonin reuptake

c)

Blocks a adregnic receptors

d)

Blocks M cholinergic receptors

e)

The concentration of dopamine in CNS decreases

73.

Antihypertensive drug from group of beta blockers:

a)

Verapamil

b)

Metoprolol

c)

Perindopril

d)

Indipamide

e)

Sodium nitroprusside

74.

Bronchodilators include:

a)

Isoprenaline, eufylline, salbutamol

b)

Beclomethasone, ketotifen, ambroxol

c)

Cromolyn sodium, ketotifen, eufylline

d)

Guaifenesin, tusuprex, oxeladin

e)

Cordiamin, ganglioplegic bromide, potassium iodide

75.

A drug that is used to prevent bleeding:

a)

Etamylate

b)

Adrenaline

c)

Acetylsalicylic acid

d)

Warfarin

e)

Streptokinase

76.

Indications for the appointment of this drug are hyperacid conditions, heartburn, and metabolic acidosis. Contraindications include alkalosis and hypokalemia.

a)

sodium bicarbonate

b)

Maalox

c)

Phosphalugel

d)

Almagel

e)

Magnesium oxide

77.

Gastroprotector that forms a protective film in an acidic environment on the surface of erosions and ulcers due to the denaturation of proteins. It also has a bactericidal effect on Helicobacter pylori:

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Bismuth potassium dicitrate

c)

Zinc sulfate

d)

Sodium carbononate

e)

Metronidazole

78.

These drugs have an inhibitory effect on the final stages of hydrochloric acid synthesis, suppress nocturnal and stimulated gastric acid secretion. Omeprazole and its analogs have a prolonged effect, faster symptomatic relief, and promote faster healing of duodenal ulcers. After the abolition of this group of drugs, gastric secretion is restored.

a)

M-cholinoblockers

b)

Uptake pump blockers

c)

Antacids

d)

H2-histamine receptor blockers

e)

Prokinetics

79.

Select a drug used in gastroenterology for the treatment of chronic hepatitis, cholangitis, cholecystitis, habitual constipation. It contains bile, garlic extract, nettle extract, activated carbon, and auxiliary substances.

a)

Festal

b)

Panzinorm

c)

Allochol

d)

Creon

e)

Cholenzyme

80.

Specify a drug whose pharmacodynamic mechanism blocks the cholinergic receptors of parietal cells that produce gastrin, reduce the secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid, has an antispasmodic effect, reduces pain, dyspeptic phenomena, and reduces the tone of smooth muscles.

a)

Atropine

b)

Omeprazole

c)

Cimetidine

d)

Pirenzepine

e)

Ranitidine

81.

Hemostatics, which are natural components of the blood coagulation system:

a)

Thrombin, fibrinogen

b)

Heparin sodium, synclator

c)

Acetylsalicylic acid, aminocaproic acid

d)

Coagulins, thrombin

e)

Menadione sodium bisulfite (vicasol)

82.

Inhibits alpha-glucosidase and slows down the absorption of glucose in the intestine.

a)

Acarbose

b)

exenatide

c)

Glucagon

d)

Nateglinide

e)

Pioglitazone

83.

Having a state of calm, tranquilizing or anxiolytic effect - the ability to reduce the state of internal tension.

a)

Tranquilizers

b)

Neuroleptics

c)

Antidepressants

d)

Psychostimulants

e)

Nootropics

84.

The mechanism of action of Levodopa is:"

a)

MAO inhibitor

b)

Blocking MAO receptors

c)

Increasing dopamine deficiency

d)

Restoration of dopamine deficiency

e)

Dopamine receptor agonist

85.

Patient S. was admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis of coronary heart disease. From the anamnesis, it turned out that he also has bronchial asthma. Which antianginal drugs are contraindicated in this patient?

a)

Nitrates

b)

Cardiac glycosides + nitrates

c)

β-blockers (Beta-blockers)

d)

Calcium channel blockers

e)

Help in slow heart blockers

86.

A person with a history of subfebrile anemia took a drug without a doctor's prescription; after that, the patient developed abdominal pain, jaundice, and dark urine. This is a result of an overdose of which drug? And name a pharmacological antidote to eliminate the overdose.

a)

Paracetamol, acetylcysteine

b)

Aminazine, bemegride

c)

Diazepam, flumazenil

d)

Morphine, naloxone

e)

Aspirin, sodium bicarbonate

87.

A patient with epilepsy was prescribed a drug. Soon after regular use, he developed signs of a disorder in the activity of male sex hormones, which later led to gynecomastia and impotence. What drug did the patient use?

a)

Cimetidine

b)

Finasteride

c)

Spironolactone

d)

Ketoconazole

e)

Digoxin

88.

The mechanism of action of Selegiline is

a)

Blocking NMDA receptors

b)

Regulation of dopamine deficiency

c)

Blocking dopamine receptors

d)

Inhibition of histamine receptors

e)

Inhibition of MAO type B

89.

Effects characteristic of cardiac glycosides:

a)

Positive inotropic, chronotropic, dromotropic, and bathmotropic effects; increased myocardial oxygen demand

b)

Positive inotropic and lusitropic, negative dromotropic and bathmotropic effects

c)

Negative inotropic, dromotropic, and positive bathmotropic, chronotropic effects

d)

Positive inotropic, lusitropic, and bathmotropic; negative chronotropic and dromotropic effects

e)

Negative inotropic, chronotropic, and dromotropic; positive bathmotropic effects

90.

By blocking dopamine receptors in the central nervous system, productive symptoms of psychosis are eliminated. What pharmacological mechanism does this lead to?

a)

Antidepressant

b)

Analgesic

c)

Neuroleptic

d)

Antiparkinsonian

e)

Sleeping pill

91.

depression is treated with following group of drugs:

a)

Neuroleptics

b)

Antidepressant

c)

Tranquillisers

d)

Psychotherapy

e)

Normobiotics

92.

The glycone part in the molecule of cardiac glycosides determines:

a)

Pharmacological effect

b)

Mechanism of action

c)

Side effects

d)

Pharmacokinetics

e)

Pharmacodynamics

93.

strophanthin is used:

a)

Intraaurally

b)

Infusion

c)

Intravenously

d)

Orally

e)

Sublingual

94.

Specific reversible COMT inhibitor with peripheral action:"

a)

Selegiline

b)

Levodopa

c)

Entacapone

d)

Carbidopa

e)

Amantadine

95.

Select a drug prescribed to dissolve cholesterol stones:"

a)

Ursodeoxycholic acid

b)

Nitride

c)

Holosas

d)

Magnesium sulfate

e)

Royer carbon

96.

Typical neuroleptic:

a)

Haloperidol

b)

Atensiol

c)

Clopixolum

d)

Risperidone

e)

Fenistilol

97.

Which of the following drugs induce metabolism of Warfarin and cause a decrease in its plasma concentration?"

a)

Neodicumarin

b)

Fraxiparine

c)

Carbamazepine

d)

Heparin

e)

Sinkumar

98.

Select a drug from the group of monoclonal antibodies to TNF alpha:

a)

Adalimumab

b)

Sulfasalazine

c)

Auranofin

d)

Leflunomide

e)

Cyclophosphamide

99.

Specify a drug for the treatment of iron deficiency anemia:

a)

Folic acid

b)

Iron serous lactate

c)

Sinkumar

d)

Fentanyl

e)

Cyanocobalamin

100.

Indications for prescribing pirenzepine:

a)

Laryngospasm, bronchial asthma, angina

b)

Raynaud's disease, obliterating endarteritis, pheochromocytoma

c)

Menier's disease, mydriasis

d)

Atony of the gastrointestinal tract and bladder, hypertension

e)

Gastric and duodenal ulcers, gastritis

101.

Effectiveness of heparin in patients with low activity of antithrombin: Ill Is:

a)

Increased

b)

Decreased

c)

The Low level of antithrombin III increases heparin efficacy

d)

The high level of antithrombin III decreases heparin efficacy

e)

The level of antithrombin III does not influence heparin efficacy

102.

Patient K. was admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis of coronary heart disease. From the anamnesis it turned out that he also suffers from gout. Which drugs are contraindicated in this patient?

a)

Heparin sodium

b)

Dipyridamole

c)

Activators of K+ channels

d)

Beta-Adrenergic blockers

e)

L-type calcium channel blockers

103.

A patient with chronic iron deficiency anemia took a drug without doctor's prescription; after that the patient developed abdominal pain, nausea, and diarrhea. This is a sign of poisoning with iron supplements. Specify and name a pharmacological antidote to eliminate overdose.

a)

Poisoning with paracetamol, antidote N-acetylcysteine

b)

Poisoning with iron salts, antidote Deferoxamine

c)

Poisoning with neuroleptic drugs, antidote Tiotropium

d)

Poisoning with salicylic acid, antidote sodium bicarbonate

e)

Iron poisoning, antidote deferoxamine

104.

A patient with a gastric ulcer was prescribed a drug. Soon after regular use, he developed signs of a disorder in the activity of male sex hormones: gynecomastia and impotence. What drug did the patient use?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Omeprazole

c)

Pirenzepine

d)

Ranitidine

e)

Bismuth subcitrate

105.

A 70-year-old man comes to the office due to palpitation. He has felt an irregular and fast heartbeat on multiple occasions over the last month. ECG shows irregularly irregular rhythm with absent P waves. The patient started on apixaban. Which of the following is likely to be directly affected as a result of therapy?

a)

Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

b)

Activation of protein C

c)

Gamma-carboxylation of clotting factors

d)

Gamma-carboxylation of clotting factors

e)

Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

106.

Specify a drug whose pharmacodynamics selectively blocks the cholinergic receptors of parietal cells that produce gastrin in the stomach, significantly the secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid, has an antispasmodic effect, reduces pain, dyspeptic phenomena, reduces the healing time of ulcers:

a)

atropine

b)

pirenzepine

c)

omeprazole

d)

pantoprazole

e)

Ranitidine

107.

Patient E. was admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis of coronary heart disease. From the anamnesis it turned out that he also suffers from bronchial asthma. Which drug is contraindicated in this patient?

a)

Nitroglycerin

b)

Isosorbide dinitrate

c)

Propranolol

d)

Verapamil

e)

Amlodipine

108.

Examination of the ventilation function of the lungs revealed a decrease in the volume of forced expiration in 1 second, a decrease in vital capacity. These indicators are typical for:

a)

Bronchial asthma

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Ribcage pleurisy

d)

Hydrothorax

e)

Pulmonary atelectasis

109.

In nephrotic syndrome, increased permeability of the glomerular filter is associated with:

a)

Thickening of basement membrane

b)

Increase in the electrical changes of glomerular capillary wall

c)

Dystrophic changes inshunlyansky-bowmans capsule

d)

Increase in the content of sialoglycoprotein in glomeruli

e)

Destruction of small processes of podocytes and basement membrane

110.

The patient complains of general weakness, nausea, thirst, swelling, infrequent urination. The disease st. otitis. Dally utine output is 600 ml protein is 2.2 g/1. Blood ESR is high. The most probable etiological factor:

a)

adenovirus

b)

Eschenchia coll

c)

Staphylococcus

d)

Streptococcus

e)

Rhinovirus infection

111.

What type of periardial inflammation develops using transmural and subepericardial infraction:

a)

Fibrous

b)

Purulent

c)

Proliferative

d)

serous

e)

serous

112.

A newborn has acute respiratory failure as a result of the development of primary atelectasis and interstitial pulmonary edema has been identified, the development of which is based on:

a)

Pulmonary arterial hypertension

b)

Bronchial patency disorder

c)

Deficiency or reduced surfactant activity

d)

Increasing the surface tension of the alveoli

e)

Impaired diffusion of gases

113.

Thyroid disease characterized by massive lymphoid infiltration with follicle formation, follicular epithelial cells with Hürthle cells:

a)

Sporadic goiter

b)

Diffuse toxic goiter

c)

Riedel's thyroiditis

d)

Hashimoto's thyroiditis

e)

Subacute thyroiditis

114.

Complications of type 2 diabetes mellitus:

a)

Hemolytic anemia

b)

Melanomatosis, liver cirrhosis

c)

Subarachnoid bleeding

d)

Obstructive jaundice

e)

Pyoderma, blindness

115.

Patients with diabetes mellitus often have skin lesions in the form of furunculosis, fungal infections, trophic ulcers, and poor wound healing. What is the reason for these complications?

a)

Development of glucose toxicity

b)

increased synthesis of ketone bodies

c)

Activation of beta-oxidation of fatty acids

d)

Activation of protein catabolism

e)

Activation of lipolysis

116.

In DIC syndrome, the most characteristic type of bleeding (according to Z.S. Barkagan) is:

a)

Vasculitic purpura

b)

Angiomatosis

c)

Haematoma-petechial

d)

Haematoma

e)

Petechial

117.

Aseptic inflammation, destruction, and necrosis of microvessels resulting from the damaging effect of circulating immune complexes are characteristic of:

a)

Werlhof's disease

b)

Rendu-Osler-Weber disease

c)

Schönlein-Henoch disease

d)

Willebrand's disease

e)

Glanzmann’s disease

118.

When a young woman with habitual non-pregnancy was examined, lupus anticoagulant antiphospholipid antibody IgG was found. This is in favor of:

a)

Increased risk of hemorrhagic syndrome

b)

Activation of primary fibrinolysis

c)

Accelerated conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

d)

Increased risk of thrombosis

e)

Elevated antithrombin III levels

119.

Gastroprotector that forms a protective film in an acidic environment on the surface of erosions and ulcers due to the denaturation of ulcer surface proteins and also has a bactericidal effect on Helicobacter pylori:"

a)

Misoprostol

b)

Bismuth tripotassium dicitrate

c)

Bismoclol

d)

Sodium rabeprazolone

e)

Nitoverine

120.

In the early stages of the pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis, the leading role is played by:

a)

Changes in the phenotype of synoviocytes

b)

Autoimmune mechanisms

c)

Destruction of articular cartilage

d)

Infiltration of pannus from synovial lining into cartilage

e)

Infiltration of the synovial membrane by NK cells

121.

In gout, sodium monourate is most commonly deposited as needle-shaped crystals in:

a)

Ventricular lung tissue

b)

Extracellularly in avascular tissue

c)

Myocardium of the left ventricle

d)

Intracellularly in well-vascularized tissues

e)

The white matter of the brain

122.

A man suffered a terminal cardiac arrest due to an electrical injury in which current was passed through a left arm–right leg loop:

a)

Ventricular asystole

b)

Ventricular fibrillation

c)

Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia

d)

Atrial fibrillation

e)

Complete transverse blockade

123.

Diabetic microangiopathies are characterized by:

a)

Lesion of elastic vessels

b)

Generalized chaotaxy

c)

Atherosclerotic lesion

d)

Exudative inflammation

e)

Glucoprotein deposition in the walls of blood vessels

124.

Through its cross-sectional effect, GH (growth hormone) can activate prolactin receptors. As a result, the following may develop:**

a)

Acromegaly

b)

Hypergonadism

c)

Hypotension

d)

Galactorrhea

e)

Diabetes insipidus

125.

Inhibition of fibrinogenesis

a)

Development of fibrosis

b)

Inhibition of the synthesis of growth factors

c)

Inhibition of collagen synthesis

d)

Regression of pancreatic necrosis foci

126.

The main pathogenetic link in the development of peptic ulcer disease is:

a)

Excessive increase in sympathetic nervous system tone

b)

Reduction of resistance of the gastric mucosa

c)

Psycho-emotional stress

d)

Eating disorders

e)

Inflammation of the mucous membrane

127.

Premature contraction of the heart caused by an impulse originating in one part of the intraventricular conducting system or ventricles is:

a)

Ventricular tachycardia

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Atrial flutter

d)

Atrial flutter

e)

Ventricular asystole

128.

A 58-year-old patient with primary arterial hypertension for 10 years experienced severe psycho-emotional stress, followed by a sensation of chest pain with irradiation to the left arm and left side of the neck. The pain lasted 5 minutes and was relieved by nitroglycerin. The most likely cardiovascular pathology is:

a)

Reversible coronary artery disease

b)

Cardiogenic shock

c)

Vasospastic angina pectoris

d)

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

e)

Myocardial infarction

129.

A patient with cirrhosis of the liver developed hemorrhages at injection sites, skin scratches, nose, and gums. The cause of hemorrhagic syndrome in this patient is associated with:

a)

Increase in lysis synthesis

b)

Increased synthesis of antithrombin III

c)

Increase in protein C synthesis

d)

Decreased prothrombin synthesis

e)

Decreased plasmin synthesis

130.

A 56-year-old patient has a gastric ulcer associated with H. pylori. A study of stomach secretory function shows basal secretion of 90 units (normal 40-60 units) and total acidity of 50-100 mM/L. The secretory dysfunction is caused by excessive secretion of:

a)

Cholecystokinin

b)

Histamine

c)

Somatostatin

d)

Serotonin

e)

Dopamine

131.

A patient exhibits edema and thickening of the skin due to hydrophilic glycosaminoglycan accumulation in connective tissues. Other symptoms include decreased mental activity, drowsiness, fatigue, cold intolerance, general weakness, apathy, slow speech, and decreased intellect. These are characteristic of:

a)

Hyperthyroidism

b)

Myxedema

c)

Euthyroidism

d)

Thyrotoxicosis

e)

Basedow’s disease

132.

Complication of recurrent warty endocarditis:"

a)

Thrombosis of leg veins

b)

Mediastinitis

c)

Splenic infarction

d)

Purulent meningitis

e)

Pulmonary venous infarction

133.

The patient died of heart disease. During the autopsy, an irregular oval-shaped, yellow-colored, hemorrhagic section was found on the posterior wall of the left ventricle of the heart. In the center of the focus, the myocardium is torn, and blood is collected in the pericardial sac. Choose the correct statement for this situation."

a)

This pathology is chronic ischemic heart disease; its complication is pulmonary hemosiderosis.

b)

This pathology is chronic ischemic heart disease; its complication is pulmonary edema.

c)

This pathology is acute ischemic heart disease; its complication is pulmonary hemosiderosis.

d)

This pathology is acute ischemic heart disease; its complication is induration of the lungs.

e)

This pathology is acute ischemic heart disease; its complication is hemopericardium.

134.

The method used by a pathologist to determine the etiology of viral encephalitis:"

a)

Polarization

b)

Immunohistochemical

c)

Cytological

d)

Immunobiological

e)

Fluorescent

135.

Selective damage to motor neurons in the gray matter of the anterior horns of the spinal cord in the cervical-thoracic region occurs in:”

a)

Meningoencephalitic type of tick-borne encephalitis

b)

Polyencephalomeningeal type of tick-borne encephalitis

c)

Polioencephalitic type of tick-borne encephalitis

d)

Meningeal type of tick-borne encephalitis

e)

Poliomyelitic type of tick-borne encephalitis

136.

Additional route of tick-borne encephalitis infection (other than transmissive):"

a)

Parenteral

b)

Alimentary

c)

Airborne

d)

Contact household

e)

Sexual

137.

Secondary changes in keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma of the skin:”

a)

Necrosis

b)

Mucinization

c)

Proliferation

d)

Encapsulation

e)

Metastasis

138.

Characteristic symptom of restrictive cardiomyopathy:"

a)

Myocardium color is dirty yellow

b)

Ventricles are not dilated

c)

Ventricles are enlarged

d)

Myocardium appearance is mottled

e)

Left ventricle dilatation

139.

Negative outcome of endocarditis:"

a)

Pericarditis

b)

Development of heart defect

c)

Diffuse cardiosclerosis

d)

Amyloidosis

e)

Scarring

140.

A 45-year-old woman had uterine bleeding, and a diagnostic curettage was taken from the endometrium. Histological analysis showed irregularly shaped glands in the endometrium, and stromal cells were hyperplastic. Choose the correct statement for this case:

a)

This pathological process is adenomyosis.

b)

This pathological process is endocervicosis.

c)

As a complication, uterine polyps often develop

d)

As a complication, uterine cancer may develop.

e)

The endometrium becomes thinner in this pathology

141.

The pathology of the brain characteristic of the primary-septic form of anthrax:

a)

Brain hemorrhage

b)

Hemorrhagic meningoencephalitis

c)

Granulomatous meningoencephalitis

d)

Purulent meningoencephalitis

e)

Brain ischemic infarcts

142.

The main pathological process in thrombocytopenia:

a)

Hemorrhagic syndrome

b)

Hypercoagulation

c)

Immunodeficiency syndrome

d)

Hepatorenal syndrome

e)

Nephrotic syndrome

143.

The patient has a severe course of viral hepatitis B. Consciousness is reduced. Liver odor, hemorrhagic diathesis. In the blood - hyperbilirubinemia, hypoproteinemia, hyperfibrinogenemia. These manifestations are characteristic of:

a)

Child (Hypersplenism) syndrome

b)

Acute liver failure

c)

Hepatic cell coma

d)

Sheehan's syndrome

e)

Wolman's syndrome

144.

Patients with diabetes mellitus often have skin lesions in the form of furunculosis, fungal infections, trophic ulcers, and poor wound healing. The development of glucose toxicity:

a)

Decreased synthesis of ketone bodies

b)

Activation of beta-oxidation of fatty acids

c)

Activation of protein catabolism

d)

Activation of lipolysis