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Chapter 10 Review Assignment

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Biotechnology is the artificial modification of _______ material to produce new functions or compounds.

a)

genetic

b)

plastic

c)

mineral

d)

thermal

2.

Traditional use of biotechnology in agriculture is _______ breeding.

a)

selective

b)

random

c)

chemical

d)

mechanical

3.

Modern biotechnology involves manipulation of DNA at which level?

a)

Cellular level

b)

Molecular level

c)

Organism level

d)

Population level

4.

Since when has modern biotechnology, involving manipulation of DNA at the molecular level, been in use?

a)

1950s

b)

1960s

c)

1970s

d)

1980s

5.

Which of the following is a major application of biotechnology in medicine?

a)

Genetically modified crops

b)

Vaccines and antibiotics

c)

Fermentation

d)

Enzymes in detergents

6.

What are the main tasks in biotechnology related to nucleic acids?

a)

Extract, manipulate, analyze nucleic acids (DNA and RNA)

b)

Synthesize proteins from carbohydrates only

c)

Measure the pH of cell membranes

d)

Study the behavior of lipids in water

7.

Nucleotides are made up of which three components?

a)

Sugar, phosphate, nitrogenous base

b)

Sugar, lipid, amino acid

c)

Phosphate, fatty acid, protein

d)

Nitrogenous base, carbohydrate, enzyme

8.

Which of the following is double-stranded and has complementary base pairing with hydrogen bonds?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

mRNA

d)

Genome

9.

What is the complete DNA set in a eukaryotic nucleus called?

a)

Genome

b)

Chromosome

c)

Gene

d)

Nucleolus

10.

Which type of nucleic acid is single-stranded and exits the nucleus or cytoplasm?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Genome

d)

Thymine

11.

What is the key focus in gene expression studies?

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

Lipids

d)

Carbohydrates

12.

Which nucleobase is found in RNA but not in DNA?

a)

Thymine

b)

Uracil

c)

Adenine

d)

Guanine

13.

What is the first step in the isolation of nucleic acids (DNA extraction)?

a)

Cell lysis: detergent disrupts membrane

b)

DNA precipitation with alcohol

c)

RNA removal by RNase

d)

Protein digestion with protease

14.

Which enzyme is used to destroy proteins during DNA extraction?

a)

Amylase

b)

Protease

c)

Lipase

d)

Ligase

15.

During DNA extraction, what is the purpose of centrifugation?

a)

To separate debris so that DNA remains in the liquid (supernatant).

b)

To break down the DNA into smaller fragments.

c)

To add color to the DNA solution.

d)

To increase the temperature of the sample.

16.

Ethanol is used in the DNA extraction process to ________ DNA as viscous strands.

a)

isolate (precipitate)

b)

dissolve

c)

degrade

d)

color

17.

What forms viscous strands that can be spooled on a glass rod during DNA extraction?

a)

DNA

b)

Protein

c)

Lipid

d)

Starch

18.

What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?

a)

To separate nucleic acid fragments by size and charge

b)

To amplify DNA

c)

To sequence proteins

d)

To synthesize RNA

19.

Which direction does DNA/RNA move when an electric field is applied in gel electrophoresis?

a)

Positive to negative end

b)

Negative to positive end

c)

Top to bottom

d)

Left to right

20.

In gel electrophoresis, smaller fragments travel _______ through the gel than larger ones.

a)

faster

b)

slower

c)

sideways

d)

backwards

21.

What is used to visualize DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis?

a)

Heat

b)

Staining and UV light

c)

Sound waves

d)

Magnetic field

22.

In gel electrophoresis, what does a band represent?

a)

A specific fragment size

b)

A varied fragment size

c)

A protein

d)

An enzyme

23.

Uncut DNA appears as a _______ band at the top of the gel in gel electrophoresis.

a)

large

b)

small

c)

faint

d)

multiple

24.

What is the main purpose of the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique?

a)

To destroy DNA

b)

To rapidly amplify specific DNA regions

c)

To sequence proteins

d)

To create RNA from DNA

25.

Which of the following is NOT required for a PCR reaction?

a)

DNA sample

b)

Primers (short DNA sequences)

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Free Nucleotides (A, T, C, G)

26.

Fill in the blank: PCR requires a heat-stable enzyme called _________.

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Ligase

c)

Helicase

d)

Primase

27.

Which of the following is an application of PCR?

a)

Forensics

b)

Cooking

c)

Painting

d)

Welding

28.

PCR can be used for paternity testing.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

During the PCR process, what is the role of primers?

a)

Primers are short DNA sequences that provide a starting point for DNA synthesis.

b)

Primers are enzymes that synthesize new DNA strands.

c)

Primers are long RNA molecules that degrade DNA.

d)

Primers are proteins that unwind the DNA helix.

30.

What is cloning?

a)

Creating a genetic copy

b)

Mixing two genes

c)

Destroying DNA

d)

Producing energy

31.

What does reproductive cloning involve?

a)

Copying small DNA fragments

b)

Whole organism

c)

Producing insulin

d)

Mixing genes

32.

Molecular cloning is the process of ________ small DNA fragments.

a)

copying

b)

destroying

c)

coloring

d)

shrinking

33.

In the context of cloning human genes, what major breakthrough used bacterial plasmids to treat diabetes?

a)

Human genome sequencing

b)

Synthetic insulin production from cloned DNA

c)

Discovery of bacteria

d)

Invention of the microscope

34.

What is inserted into the plasmid during the molecular cloning process?

a)

Human genome

b)

Gene of interest

c)

Bacteria

d)

Insulin

35.

What is the main purpose of molecular cloning?

a)

To destroy genes

b)

To replicate and study genes, produce proteins (e.g., insulin)

c)

To mutate DNA

d)

To create viruses

36.

Which enzymes act as molecular scissors that recognize specific palindromic sequences and make staggered cuts leaving sticky ends?

a)

Ligase

b)

Polymerase

c)

Restriction enzymes

d)

Helicase

37.

Sticky ends allow easy insertion of a DNA fragment into a ________ vector from bacteria for recombination.

a)

plasmid

b)

chromosome

c)

ribosome

d)

mitochondria

38.

Recombinant DNA (plasmid) is introduced into bacterial host for ________.

a)

replication

b)

digestion

c)

photosynthesis

d)

fermentation

39.

As bacteria divide, foreign DNA is copied with plasmid DNA and produces ________ proteins.

a)

recombinant

b)

native

c)

denatured

d)

incomplete

40.

The role of bacterial plasmids and restriction enzymes in molecular cloning is:

a)

to insert and cut DNA fragments for gene cloning

b)

to synthesize proteins directly from DNA

c)

to replicate RNA molecules in the cytoplasm

d)

to degrade unwanted proteins in the cell

41.

In this six-nucleotide restriction enzyme recognition site, notice that the sequence of six nucleotides reads the same in the 5' to 3' direction on one strand as it does in the 5' to 3' direction on the complementary strand. This is known as a _________.

a)

palindrome

b)

inversion

c)

translocation

d)

duplication

42.

What is the function of the ampicillin resistance gene in the plasmid during molecular cloning?

a)

To allow bacteria to survive in the presence of ampicillin

b)

To make the plasmid blue

c)

To destroy foreign DNA

d)

To cut the DNA

43.

In molecular cloning, a DNA fragment is inserted into a plasmid vector from bacteria for recombination.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

What happens to recombinant DNA (plasmid) after it is created in the molecular cloning process?

a)

It is introduced into a bacterial host for replication.

b)

It is immediately destroyed by restriction enzymes.

c)

It is used directly for protein synthesis in vitro.

d)

It is sent for DNA sequencing without further processing.

45.

What is the role of bacterial plasmids and restriction enzymes in molecular cloning?

a)

They are used to recombine bacterial DNA with human gene selected for cloning and gene expression.

b)

They are used to break down proteins into amino acids.

c)

They are responsible for the replication of viral RNA in host cells.

d)

They are used to synthesize carbohydrates from simple sugars.

46.

What is the definition of reproductive cloning?

a)

Creation of a genetically identical copy of a multicellular organism using biotechnology

b)

Creation of a genetically different organism using sexual reproduction

c)

Creation of a genetically identical copy using natural reproduction

d)

Creation of a genetically identical copy using mutation

47.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the process of nuclear transfer cloning?

a)

Remove nucleus from egg cell

b)

Insert diploid nucleus from donor somatic cell

c)

Stimulate egg to divide and develop into an embryo

d)

Fertilize egg with sperm

48.

Fill in the blank: The first success in reproductive cloning was Dolly the sheep, cloned in ____ and lived for 6 years.

a)

1996

b)

1999

c)

2001

d)

1992

49.

What is a key requirement for early development in nuclear transfer cloning?

a)

Donor sperm

b)

Egg cytoplasm

c)

Artificial hormones

d)

Extra chromosomes

50.

Which of the following is an application of reproductive cloning?

a)

Cloning animals such as goats and horses

b)

Producing genetically modified crops

c)

Creating new species

d)

Treating bacterial infections

51.

Fill in the blank: Notable scientists Freda Miller and Elaine Fuchs discovered _________.

a)

skin stem cells

b)

insulin

c)

penicillin

d)

DNA structure

52.

Which of the following is an ethical concern related to reproductive cloning?

a)

Cloning humans

b)

Increasing crop yield

c)

Reducing pollution

d)

Improving animal nutrition

53.

Stem cell research for therapeutic use is an application of reproductive cloning.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

What is the process called when the nucleus is removed from a donor egg cell?

a)

Enucleation

b)

Fertilization

c)

Transcription

d)

Translation

55.

The nucleus for cloning Dolly was taken from which type of cell?

a)

Skin cell

b)

Mammary cell

c)

Blood cell

d)

Egg cell

56.

What is recombinant DNA?

a)

DNA that is naturally occurring in organisms

b)

Foreign DNA inserted via vectors through molecular cloning

c)

DNA that is only found in plants

d)

DNA that cannot be modified

57.

A GMO (Genetically Modified Organism) is an organism that ________ recombinant DNA.

a)

receives

b)

destroys

c)

ignores

d)

replicates

58.

What is a transgenic organism?

a)

An organism that cannot be genetically modified

b)

A GMO that carries DNA from a different species

c)

A plant that produces its own DNA

d)

A bacteria that is not used in research

59.

Genetic engineering has been used in bacteria, plants, and animals since the 1970s.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Two purposes of genetic engineering applications are:

a)

Producing medicines and improving crop yields

b)

Building bridges and designing cars

c)

Generating electricity and purifying water

d)

Teaching languages and writing novels

61.

Reverse genetics involves gene mutation, deletion, or ________ to study gene function.

a)

overexpression

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

replication

62.

What is the function of restriction endonuclease in genetic engineering?

a)

It repairs DNA

b)

It cuts DNA at specific sites

c)

It synthesizes new DNA

d)

It transports DNA into the cell

63.

Genetic testing detects heritable diseases before treatment.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

What is an example of genetic diagnosis?

a)

BRCA testing for breast & ovarian cancer.

b)

Blood glucose testing for diabetes.

c)

ECG for heart rhythm analysis.

d)

X-ray for bone fractures.

65.

Prenatal testing screens embryos for ________.

a)

disease-causing genes

b)

eye color

c)

height

d)

musical ability

66.

Gene therapy introduces healthy (non-mutated) genes into affected cells.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Gene therapy is delivered via ______ vectors, such as adenovirus.

a)

viral

b)

bacterial

c)

fungal

d)

chemical

68.

What is the main aim of gene therapy in genetic disorders?

a)

To replace missing or faulty proteins in genetic disorders.

b)

To increase the rate of cell division in all cells.

c)

To introduce new diseases to study their effects.

d)

To enhance physical appearance regardless of genetics.

69.

What is the main purpose of vaccines?

a)

To prevent illness by boosting the immune response before natural exposure to the pathogen.

b)

To cure diseases after infection has occurred.

c)

To provide immediate pain relief from symptoms.

d)

To replace the need for a healthy diet and exercise.

70.

Which of the following statements is true about modern vaccines?

a)

They are produced using only weakened microbes.

b)

They are produced through biotechnology.

c)

They do not use microbial genes.

d)

They are not effective against viruses.

71.

What is the role of recombinant yeast cells in the production of the HB vaccine?

a)

Recombinant yeast cells multiply and produce HB antigen in the fermentation tank.

b)

Recombinant yeast cells act as adjuvants to enhance immune response.

c)

Recombinant yeast cells are used to purify the HB vaccine after production.

d)

Recombinant yeast cells are used to inactivate the HB virus in the vaccine.

72.

What do antibiotics do?

a)

Kill viruses

b)

Kill bacteria

c)

Kill plants

d)

Kill animals

73.

Antibiotics such as penicillin are naturally produced by which type of microorganisms?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Fungi

c)

Viruses

d)

Algae

74.

A biomarker would be best defined by which of the following?

a)

the color coding of different genes

b)

a protein that is uniquely produced in a diseased state

c)

a molecule in the genome or proteome

d)

a marker that is genetically inherited

75.

Which branch of biology involves the study of entire genomes, including all genes, their sequences, and interactions, and is made possible by advances in DNA sequencing technology?

a)

Molecular biology

b)

Microbiology

c)

Genomics

d)

Physiology

76.

What is genome mapping?

a)

The process of editing genes to cure genetic diseases

b)

The study of how organisms interact with their environment

c)

The method of identifying the locations of genes and sequences on a DNA molecule

d)

The analysis of protein structures and their functions

77.

Which use of biotechnology most benefits agriculture?

a)

producing human vaccines

b)

producing disease/insect resistant crops

c)

producing new medicines from bacteria

d)

producing enzymes to eliminate pollutants

78.

What are some examples of biotechnology being used in agriculture?

a)

Crop irrigation

b)

DNA fingerprinting

c)

Gentically modified crops

d)

Crop rotation

79.

What is this technique an example of?

a)

chromatography

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

genetic engineering

80.

What is metagenomics primarily used to study?

a)

The genetic material of entire microbial communities from environmental samples

b)

The DNA of a single isolated organism

c)

The structure of eukaryotic chromosomes

d)

The process of protein synthesis in plants

81.

What is the primary goal of a Genome-Wide Association Study (GWAS)?

a)

To identify genetic variants associated with specific traits or diseases

b)

To clone entire genomes

c)

To produce recombinant proteins

d)

To sequence only mitochondrial DNA

82.

Which type of genetic marker is most commonly used in GWAS?

a)

Plasmids

b)

Restriction enzymes

c)

Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs)

d)

Short tandem repeats (STRs)

83.

Which of the following best describes the mitochondrial genome in humans?

a)

A linear DNA molecule found in the chloroplast

b)

A circular DNA molecule found in the mitochondria

c)

A linear DNA molecule found in the nucleus

d)

A circular RNA molecule found in the cytoplasm

84.

What is a unique feature of mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) inheritance in most animals?

a)

It is inherited equally from both parents

b)

It is randomly inherited from either parent

c)

It is inherited only from the father

d)

It is inherited only from the mother

85.

Which of the following is a common application of mitochondrial genomics?

a)

Tracing maternal ancestry and population migrations

b)

Measuring protein synthesis rates

c)

Determining blood glucose levels

d)

Identifying bacterial species in soil

86.

Which of the following best describes proteomics?

a)

The study of DNA sequences

b)

The large-scale study of proteins, including their structures and functions

c)

The study of lipid synthesis

d)

The analysis of carbohydrate metabolism

87.

Which technique is commonly used to separate proteins in proteomics research?

a)

Gel electrophoresis

b)

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

c)

DNA sequencing

d)

Restriction digestion

88.

What is the main goal of proteomics in biological research?

a)

To study the structure of cell membranes

b)

To analyze mRNA expression only

c)

To clone genes of interest

d)

To identify and quantify all proteins expressed in a cell or organism

89.

What is the primary function of the Cas9 protein in the CRISPR/Cas9 system?

a)

To degrade proteins

b)

To cut DNA at a specific location

c)

To synthesize RNA molecules

d)

To replicate DNA strands

90.

Which of the following is a major application of CRISPR/Cas9 in biotechnology?

a)

RNA splicing

b)

Cellular respiration

c)

Protein folding

d)

Gene editing