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WorksheetsAssessment Exam 3
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
I recognize that this quiz is an AI monstrosity and probably super jank.
No this should be perfect
Hmmmmm
Yes
Nah
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the right bronchus?
A) Shorter
B) Wider
C) More vertical
D) More horizontal
Which muscle elevates the sternum during inspiration?
Sternomastoid
Rectus abdominis
Trapezius
Latissimus dorsi
Which muscle group elevates the upper ribs during inspiration?
Scalenus
Rectus abdominis
Latissimus dorsi
Gluteus maximus
Which muscles are responsible for elevating the ribs during inspiration?
External intercostals
Internal intercostals
Rectus abdominis
Transversus abdominis
What action does the diaphragm perform during inspiration?
Descends as it contracts
Ascends as it contracts
Remains stationary
Relaxes and ascends
Which muscles depress the ribs during expiration?
Internal intercostals
External intercostals
Diaphragm
Scalenes
Which muscle group depresses the lower ribs and compresses the viscera during expiration?
External oblique and abdominal rectus
Pectoralis major and minor
Deltoid and trapezius
Biceps brachii and triceps brachii
Fine crackles are associated with which respiratory problem?
Pulmonary fibrosis
Asthma
Pneumothorax
Pulmonary embolism
Coarse crackles are associated with which of the following?
Bronchiectasis
Effusion
Lower respiratory tract infection (LRTI)
All of the above
Pleural friction rub is a sign of inflammation of which structure?
Pleura
Pericardium
Liver
Diaphragm
What does a sibilant wheeze indicate?
Narrowing of airway, obstruction, COPD, asthma. HIGH PITCHED
Mucus/fluid in larger airways. obstruction, COPD, asthma. LOW PITCHED
Diminished: consolidation, collapse, effusion
Inflammation of the pleura
Which of the following is a danger sign especially in children and indicates large obstruction in the upper airway?
Sibilant wheeze
Sonorous rhonchi wheeze
Stridor
Diminished
Fill in the blank: Chronic bronchitis is a type of ________ characterized by proliferation of mucus glands in the passageways, causing excessive mucus secretion, inflammation of bronchi with partial bronchial obstruction, and reproductive cough.
COPD
Asthma
Pneumonia
Tuberculosis
Pneumonia is an infection of the _________. RBCs+WBCs pass from blood to alveoli because the alveolar membrane is edematous and porous.
lung parenchyma
liver tissue
renal cortex
cardiac muscle
What is pleuritis?
Inflammation of the pleura
Infection of lung parenchyma
Acute infection of trachea and larger bronchi
Narrowing of airway
How should you auscultate lung sounds?
Listen at apices from C7 to T10
Zig zag down back and chest
Back/posterior before front/anterior of chest
All of the above
What are the expected findings of a barrel chest?
Ribs vertical, chest appears as if held in expiration
Ribs horizontal, chest appears as if held in continuous inspiration
Chest appears sunken
Occurs from asthma
Barrel chest occurs from ______ hyperinflation of lungs.
COPD
Asthma
Pneumonia
Tuberculosis
Where is the Point of Maximum Impulse (PMI) located?
At apex of heart, 5th intercostal at midclavicular line
At base of heart, 2nd intercostal at sternal border
At left lower sternal border
At right upper sternal border
The Point of Maximum Impulse can be palpated where the ______ touches the chest wall.
LV (left ventricle)
RV (right ventricle)
RA (right atrium)
LA (left atrium)
How long should you listen to the Point of Maximum Impulse if the rhythm is irregular?
30 seconds
60 seconds
15 seconds
10 seconds
S3 heart sound occurs when ventricles are resistant to filling during which phase?
Early rapid filling phase
End of diastole
Systole
Presystole
S4 heart sound occurs when ventricles are resistant to filling at the end of ______.
diastole
systole
inspiration
expiration
Where is the temporal pulse assessed?
In front of ear on either side of head
On the inside of the wrist
Behind the knee
On the top of the foot
Where is the carotid pulse palpated?
In groove between sternomastoid and trachea on both sides of neck
On the dorsum of the foot
At the wrist, lateral to the flexor carpi radialis tendon
In the popliteal fossa behind the knee
Where is the brachial pulse assessed?
In the pit of elbow bilaterally (AC)
On the side of the neck (carotid)
On the wrist (radial)
Behind the knee (popliteal)
Where is the radial pulse found?
Under thumbs of hand bilaterally
On the side of the neck
Behind the knee
On top of the foot
Where is the ulnar pulse assessed?
Under pinkies of hand bilaterally (much harder to feel)
On the thumb side of the wrist
At the front of the elbow joint
Behind the knee
Where is the femoral pulse located?
Upper inner thigh, under inguinal ligament
Back of the knee, in the popliteal fossa
Front of the elbow, in the antecubital fossa
Side of the neck, beside the trachea
Where is the popliteal pulse found?
Behind knees bilaterally
On the wrist
On the neck
On the ankle
Where is the dorsalis pedis pulse assessed?
On top of feet bilaterally, hard to feel
On the inside of the wrist
Behind the knee
On the side of the neck
Where is the posterior tibial pulse found?
Medial side of ankles bilaterally between ankle protrusion and back of heel, hard to feel manually, site for Doppler pulses
On the dorsum of the foot between the first and second metatarsal bones
On the lateral side of the wrist, just below the thumb
In the middle of the popliteal fossa behind the knee
What does 1+ edema indicate?
Mild pitting, slight indent, no swelling
Severe pitting, deep indent, visible swelling
No pitting, normal skin appearance
Moderate pitting, indent lasts longer, some swelling
What does 2+ edema indicate?
Moderate pitting, indent subsides rapidly
No pitting, skin returns to normal instantly
Severe pitting, indent lasts for several minutes
Mild pitting, indent disappears quickly
What does 3+ edema indicate?
Deep pitting, indentation remains, leg looks swollen
Mild pitting, no visible swelling
No pitting, normal skin appearance
Slight pitting, disappears rapidly
What does 4+ edema indicate?
Very deep pitting, indentation lasts long time, leg very swollen
Mild pitting, no perceptible swelling of the leg
No pitting, normal skin turgor
Slight indentation, disappears rapidly
Which direction do arteries pump blood?
Away from the heart
Towards the heart
In a circular motion
Nowhere (they do not pump blood)
Is the blood in arteries usually oxygenated or deoxygenated?
Oxygenated
Deoxygenated
Carbonated
Nitrogenated
Are arteries a high or low pressure system?
High pressure system
Low pressure system
No pressure system
Variable pressure system
What type of fibers are found in arteries?
Elastic fibers and muscle fibers
Collagen fibers only
Nerve fibers and adipose tissue
Cartilage fibers and bone cells
What do arteries control in relation to tissues?
Amount of blood delivered to tissues
Amount of oxygen absorbed by tissues
Rate of nerve impulses to tissues
Production of hormones in tissues
Do arteries contract and dilate?
True
False
Which of the following is a function of veins?
Bring oxygen and essential nutrients to tissues
Return deoxygenated blood to the heart
Pump blood away from the heart
Absorb nutrients from the intestines
Veins are more distensible than arteries because of their ability to stretch, known as capacitance vessels.
True
False
Fill in the blank: Contracting skeletal muscles "____" blood proximally back toward the heart.
milk
push
pull
block
Which of the following is a classic sign of atherosclerosis?
A) Turbulent blood flow
B) Firm, brawny edema
C) Irregular border ulcers
D) Increased venous pressure
What does a bruit finding with a patient’s carotid artery indicate?
Turbulent blood flow, indicating partial occlusion (½ to ⅔ occluded lumen)
Normal blood flow with no clinical significance
Complete occlusion of the artery with no blood flow
Presence of a venous thrombus in the carotid artery
Venous stasis is caused by which of the following?
Excessive arterial pressure
Insufficient skeletal muscle contraction
High oxygen levels in veins
Patent lumens
80% of lower leg ulcers are caused by ________.
Venous stasis ulcers
Arterial ulcers
Diabetic ulcers
Pressure ulcers
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of venous stasis ulcers?
A) Firm, brawny edema
B) Increased venous pressure
C) RBCs break down into iron deposits
D) Regular border, no bleeding
Superficial leg veins can be excised without harming circulation as long as femoral and popliteal veins are intact.
True
False
Lymphedema is characterized by chronic, progressive accumulation in protein-rich fluid in interstitial spaces, causing what?
swelling
bleeding
numbness
itching
Which condition frequently follows breast cancer surgery or treatment, resulting from axillary lymph node removal?
Lymphedema
Cellulitis
Fibromyalgia
Osteoporosis
Lymphedema increases local colloid oncotic pressure, which promotes more of what?
fluid leakage
protein synthesis
vasoconstriction
immune cell production
Acute lymphedema is reversible if no tissue damage, but chronic lymphedema is not reversible.
True
False
Arteriosclerosis is characterized by peripheral arteries growing more what?
rigid
flexible
elastic
permeable
Which age group is arteriosclerosis more common in?
older age
teenagers
infants
young adults
Arteriosclerosis leads to a rise in which type of blood pressure?
systolic BP
diastolic BP
mean arterial pressure
pulse pressure
Intermittent claudication can lead to increased risk of which conditions?
DVT, MI, and even COVID risk
Asthma, eczema, and hay fever
Osteoporosis, cataracts, and glaucoma
Appendicitis, tonsillitis, and sinusitis
DVT is characterized by unilateral swelling of which body part?
affected leg
affected arm
affected hand
affected foot
Which symptom is associated with DVT?
tenderness to severe pain
mild discomfort
Possible superficial venous dilation is a feature of which vascular disorder?
DVT
Aortic dissection
Pulmonary embolism
Carotid artery stenosis
What criteria is used for DVT probability assessment?
Wells criteria
Glasgow Coma Scale
APGAR score
Child-Pugh score
A Wells score of 1-2 indicates what chance of DVT?
moderate chance of DVT
high chance of DVT
no chance of DVT
very high chance of DVT
A Wells score of 3+ indicates what chance of DVT?
high chance of DVT
low chance of DVT
no chance of DVT
moderate chance of DVT
Varicose veins are described as dilated and what?
tortuous
fragile
calcified
narrow
What do varicose veins create due to their structure?
incompetent valves
increased blood pressure
thickened artery walls
reduced heart rate
Genetic predisposition is a risk factor for varicose veins.
True
False
Bulging and crooked leg veins are characteristic of which condition?
Varicose veins
Deep vein thrombosis
Cellulitis
Peripheral artery disease
What is Raynaud Phenomenon characterized by?
Episodes of abrupt, progressive color change of fingers in response to cold, vibration, or stress.
Persistent swelling and redness of the entire hand regardless of temperature.
Sudden onset of severe joint pain and deformity in the fingers.
Continuous tingling and numbness in the toes without color change.
Which of the following is NOT a color change seen in Raynaud Phenomenon?
White/pallor
Blue/cyanosis
Green/yellow
Red/rubor
What should be avoided to help manage Raynaud Phenomenon?
The cold
Spicy foods
Sunlight
Warm baths
Raynaud Phenomenon may have an autoimmune component such as rheumatic disease.
True
False
What hormonal change occurs in pregnant women that affects blood pressure?
Hormonal changes cause vasodilation, drop in BP
Hormonal changes cause vasoconstriction, increase in BP
Hormonal changes have no effect on BP
Hormonal changes cause irregular heartbeat
What is a common vascular change in the third trimester of pregnancy?
Varicose veins
Hypertension crisis
Deep vein thrombosis
Aortic dissection
In geriatrics, what happens to peripheral blood vessels with age?
They grow more rigid
They become more elastic
They increase in number
They become less permeable
What is the function of the conjunctiva in the eye?
Transparent protective covering
Controls the amount of light entering the eye
Focuses light onto the retina
Produces tears
What does the cornea cover and protect?
Iris and pupil
Retina and optic nerve
Lens and sclera
Eyelid and tear duct
Which cranial nerves govern eye movement?
CN 2, 3, and 4
CN 3, 4, and 6
CN 1, 2, and 3
CN 4, 5, and 6
What is the function of the sclera?
Tough protective white covering
Helps in focusing light onto the retina
Produces aqueous humor
Controls the size of the pupil
What is the area of sharpest vision in the eye called?
Macula
Cornea
Iris
Lens
Retinal vessel hemorrhage/dilation is used for detecting which conditions?
HTN and DM
Asthma and COPD
Osteoporosis and Arthritis
Hepatitis and Cirrhosis
Cloudiness in the eye can be caused by which of the following?
Cataracts
Glaucoma
Increased IOP
All of the above
Cloudiness in the eye can be caused by which of the following?
Cataracts
Glaucoma
Increased IOP
All of the above
What does PERRLA stand for when documenting an eye exam?
Pupils equal, round, and reactive to light and accommodation
Pupils enlarged, reactive, and respond to laser assessment
Pupils examined, red, and respond to light and activity
Pupils equal, red, and respond to light and accommodation
What is a normal pupillary light reflex?
Normal constriction of pupils when bright light shines on retina
Dilation of pupils when exposed to bright light
No change in pupil size when exposed to light
Constriction of pupils in darkness
What is the direct light reflex?
Pupil with the light on it constricts
Pupil with the light on it dilates
Pupil without the light on it constricts
Both pupils dilate
What is the consensual light reflex?
When the other pupil also constricts when the light is on the other one
When both pupils dilate in response to darkness
When only one pupil constricts regardless of light exposure
When the pupils do not respond to light at all
What is the visual receptive layer where light waves become nerve impulses?
Retina
Cornea
Lens
Iris
What chart is used to test long distance/central vision?
Rosenbaum card
Jager card
Snellen chart
Ishihara chart
For near vision testing, which card is held 18 inches from the face?
Snellen chart
Rosenbaum or Jager card
Ishihara card
Amsler grid
Fill in the blank: As people age, their pupil size ________.
decreases
increases
remains the same
doubles
What is the term for the loss of lens elasticity that makes accommodation for near vision more difficult as people age?
Presbyopia
Myopia
Astigmatism
Cataract
At what age does visual acuity begin to decline?
50
30
65
40
At age 70, transparent fibers in the eye may thicken and yellow, which is the beginning of cataracts.
True
False
What is the normal appearance of the optic disc?
A) Physiologic cup, yellow-orange to pink, round/oval shape
B) Blue, irregular shape
C) White, square shape
D) Red, triangular shape
What is the normal response when testing the 6 cardinal directions of gaze?
Parallel tracking of object with both eyes
Nystagmus in both eyes
Only one eye moves while the other remains stationary
Eyes move in opposite directions
What do the 3 semicircular canals/labyrinth in the ear register?
Angle of head in relation to gravity
Pitch of sound
Amount of earwax
Pressure in the middle ear
What can cause vertigo when there is inflammation in the semicircular canals/labyrinth?
Wrong information is sent to the brain
Increased blood flow to the brain
Excessive production of earwax
Improved balance and coordination
