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67 PAGES part 3

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Negative outcome of endocarditis:

a)

Pericarditis

b)

Development of heart defect

c)

Diffuse cardiosclerosis

d)

Amyloidosis

e)

Scarring

2.

A 45-year-old woman had uterine bleeding, and a diagnostic curettage was taken from the endometrium. Histological analysis showed irregularly shaped glands in the endometrium, and stromal cells were hyperplastic. Choose the correct statement for this case:

a)

This pathological process is adenomyosis.

b)

This pathological process is endocervicosis.

c)

As a complication, uterine polyps often develop.

d)

As a complication, uterine cancer may develop.

e)

The endometrium becomes thinner in this pathology.

3.

The pathology of the brain characteristic of the primary-septic form of anthrax:

a)

Brain hemorrhage

b)

Hemorrhagic meningoencephalitis

c)

Granulomatous meningoencephalitis

d)

Purulent meningoencephalitis

e)

Brain ischemic infarcts

4.

The main pathological process in thrombocytopenia:

a)

Hemorrhagic syndrome

b)

Hypercoagulation

c)

Immunodeficiency syndrome

d)

Hepatorenal syndrome

e)

Nephrotic syndrome

5.

The patient has a severe course of viral hepatitis B. Consciousness is reduced. Liver odor, hemorrhagic diathesis. In the blood - hyperbilirubinemia, hypoproteinemia, hyperfibrinogenemia. These manifestations are characteristic of:

a)

Child (Hypersplenism) syndrome

b)

Acute liver failure

c)

Hepatic cell coma

d)

Sheehan's syndrome

e)

Wolman's syndrome

6.

Patients with diabetes mellitus often have skin lesions in the form of furunculosis, fungal infections, trophic ulcers, and poor wound healing. The development of glucose toxicity:

a)

Decreased synthesis of ketone bodies

b)

Activation of beta-oxidation of fatty acids

c)

Activation of protein catabolism

d)

Activation of lipolysis

7.

In hyperthyroidism, the expression of beta-adrenergic receptors in tissues increases under the influence of thyroid hormones:

a)

Develops immune ophthalmopathy

b)

Tremor and muscle weakness occur

c)

Heart blood pressure rises

d)

Basal metabolism is enhanced

e)

Tachycardia

8.

Select a drug used in gastroenterology for the treatment of chronic hepatitis, cholangitis, cholecystitis, habitual constipation caused by tablets containing dry bile, garlic extract, nettle extract, activated carbon, and auxiliary substances.

a)

Sucralfate

b)

Essentiale

c)

Odeston

d)

Allochol

e)

Omeprazol

9.

Examination of the ventilation function of the lungs revealed a decrease in the volume of forced expiration in 1 second, a decrease in vital capacity. These indicators are typical for:

a)

Bronchial asthma

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Fibrous pleurisy

d)

Hydrothorax

e)

Pulmonary atelectasis

10.

A newborn has acute respiratory failure as a result of the development of primary atelectasis and interstitial pulmonary edema. The development of which is based on:

a)

Pulmonary arterial hypertension

b)

Bronchial patency disorder

c)

Deficiency or reduced surfactant activity

d)

Increasing the surface tension of the alveoli

e)

Impaired diffusion of gases

11.

Pathogenetic essence of the epileptic focus:

a)

Reduction of synaptic conduction of impulses

b)

Activation of the determinator structure

c)

Blockade of the potential of dependent Na+ channels

d)

Formation of generators of pathologically enhanced excitation

e)

Activation of GABAergic receptors

12.

An important role in the pathogenesis of ischemic stroke is played by:

a)

Enhanced ATP production

b)

Enhanced calcium output from the neuron

c)

Inhibition of NMDA receptor activity

d)

Increased antioxidants

e)

Glutamate excitotoxicity

13.

At the end of the first week, a patient with ALF has lethargy, muscle hypotonia, and hyporeflexia. Data is characterized by the following disturbances in homeostasis:

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Increasing hyperazotemia

c)

Hyperhydration of the body

d)

Hypouricemia

e)

Increased protein catabolism

14.

The patient has vomiting, increased daytime sleepiness, and urine odor from the mouth. The skin is dry, the tongue is light and has a low specific gravity. Pericarditis and osteoporosis are determined. Reduction of the condition syndrome is achieved by the use of:

a)

Forced diuresis

b)

Infusion of hyperosmolar solutions

c)

Blood transfusion

d)

Hemodialysis

e)

Antibiotic therapy

15.

A patient with sepsis developed acute lung injury accompanied by severe hypoxemia that does not respond to oxygen therapy, a decrease in lung extensibility, and bilateral pulmonary infiltration. In the pathogenesis of this syndrome, an important role is played by:

a)

Reduced permeability of alveolo-capillary membranes

b)

Alveoli hyperventilation

c)

Increased oxygen infiltration

d)

Increased production of inflammatory mediators

e)

Enhanced surfactant synthesis

16.

Hemodynamic factors in the progression of glomerulonephritis include:

a)

Impaired vascular wall permeability

b)

Systemic hypotension

c)

Intraglomerular hypertension

d)

Immunocomplex injury

e)

Slowing of blood flow rate

17.

Impairment of the diffuse properties of the alveolocapillary membrane plays a major role in the development of respiratory:

a)

Poliomyelitis

b)

Bronchial asthma

c)

Laryngeal edema

d)

Alveolar pulmonary edema

e)

Impaired surfactant synthesis

18.

The main link in the pathogenesis of acute respiratory distress syndrome is:

a)

Generalized damage to the capillaries of the lungs and alveolocytes

b)

Excess surfactant production

c)

Abrupt increase in systemic blood pressure

d)

Increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary artery

e)

Increase in oncotic pressure in lung vessels

19.

The mechanism of aortic aneurysm development in syphilis:

a)

Disruption of the aortic elastic layer due to gummatous infiltrate

b)

Disruption of the aortic elastic layer due to atherosclerotic changes

c)

Development of the aneurysm due to thickening of the aortic elastic layer

d)

Disruption of the elastic layer due to high pressure in the aorta

e)

Disruption of the aortic elastic layer due to gumma effect

20.

The characteristic sign of primary syphilis is:

a)

Syphilides formation

b)

Hard chancre formation

c)

Acute interstitial inflammation develops

d)

Gummas formation

e)

Chronic interstitial inflammation develops

21.

Changes identified in the small intestine during the third stage of typhoid fever include:

a)

Scar formation

b)

"Dirty" ulcers

c)

Gangrene

d)

Brain-like swelling

e)

Venous congestion

22.

Immunosuppression in leukemia leads to:

a)

Lesions of thoracic and cervical lymph nodes

b)

Splenomegaly and proliferation of blast cells

c)

Amyloidosis and paranephrotic edema

d)

Myeloma damage to the kidneys and amyloidosis

e)

Ulcerative-necrotic changes and sepsis

23.

Macroscopic changes in the intestinal wall during diphtheritic colitis:

a)

Intestinal wall is thickened

b)

Meissner’s plexus dystrophy

c)

Leukocytic infiltration

d)

Lymphocytic infiltration

e)

Intestinal wall is thinned

24.

Type of generalized hematogenic tuberculosis:

a)

Chronic miliary tuberculosis

b)

Primary pulmonary cavern

c)

Acute tuberculosis sepsis

d)

Growth of primary affect

e)

Formation of caverns

25.

What disease is the expression of the "large mottled lung"?

a)

Occurs during coronavirus infection

b)

Develops as a clear manifestation of adenovirus infection

c)

Detected in severe influenza

d)

Detected in mild influenza

e)

In the case of moderate influenza, it is detected

26.

Source of influenza infection:

a)

Domestic animals

b)

Bats

c)

Birds

d)

Virus carriers

e)

Sick person

27.

What characteristic tissue reaction develops in the lymph nodes of the lungs during tuberculous lymphadenitis?

a)

Fibrinoid necrosis

b)

Dystrophic changes

c)

Purulent inflammation

d)

Caseous necrosis, granuloma

e)

Hemorrhagic inflammation

28.

Patient K. has ischemic stroke. Spastic left-sided paralysis of the upper extremity developed. This indicates damage to which of the following gyrus of the cerebral hemispheres?

a)

Hippocampal

b)

Superior temporal

c)

Postcentral

d)

Inferior frontal

e)

Precentral

29.

Patient N.. 42 years old, complains of pain and swelling in the metacarpophalangeal, wrist, and knee hours. Antibodies to cyclic citrullinated peptide and an increase in rheumatoid factor titer were revere development of this disease, an important role is played by:

a)

Overproduction of osteoprotegerin by osteoblasts

b)

Atrophy of the synovial membrane

c)

Overproduction of anti-inflammatory cytokines

d)

Deficiency of T-suppressor function of lymphocytes

e)

Fragmentation of proteoglycan aggregates

30.

The main informative component of the azotemia index in chronic renal failure is:

a)

Hypophosphatemia and hypocalcemia

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Creatinine and hypokalemia

d)

Hypo- and dysproteinemia

e)

Creatinine and urea

31.

In the pathogenesis of postmenopausal osteoporosis, the following plays an important role:

a)

Inhibition of expression by RANKt osteoblasts

b)

Overexpression of the RANK ligand

c)

Activating the Wnt Signaling Pathway

d)

Overexpression of OPG

e)

Decrease in interleukin production 1: 6

32.

A patient who often suffered from epigastric pain and heartburn had been taking drug X on his o pain disappeared for a short time, but belching of air ("champagne phenomenon") appeared. Rec appeared, and his general health worsened. The patient was hospitalized. An examination reveal patient take to relieve pain and heartburn?

a)

Almagel

b)

Sodium bicarbonate

c)

Maalox

d)

Smecta

e)

Bismuth subnitrate

33.

Inflammatory lung hardening syndrome is characterized by:

a)

Decrease in mucociliary clearance rate

b)

Reduction of mucus production by goblet cells

c)

Enhanced antibacterial activity of mucus

d)

Increased surfactant formation

e)

Reduction of sputum viscosity and adhesion

34.

The postrenal cause of acute renal failure is:

a)

Acute blockage of the ureter by a stone

b)

Uremic coma

c)

Diffuse glomerulonephritis

d)

Collapse

e)

Myocardial infarction

35.

The renal cause of acute renal failure is:

a)

acute blockage of the ureter by a stone

b)

uremic coma

c)

diffuse glomerulonephritis

d)

collapse

e)

myocardial infarction

36.

A modifiable risk factor for coronary heart disease is:

a)

ethnicity

b)

low levels of low-density lipoproteins

c)

female gender

d)

abdominal obesity

e)

family history of cardiovascular diseases

37.

When coronary blood flow is severely impaired, in the myocardium ischemia, damage and necrosis develop active electrode records:

a)

Packer waves 1

b)

ST segment depression

c)

abnormal Q spike

d)

negative T wave

e)

prolongation of the PQ interval

38.

A pathognomonic feature of epileptic neurons is:

a)

inhibition of acetylcholine receptor activity

b)

progressive increase in seizure threshold

c)

generation of low amplitude and frequency action potentials

d)

paroxysmal depolarization shifts of membrane potential

e)

Inhibition of glutamate release

39.

Medicines for the treatment of patients with psychosis:

a)

Tranquilizers

b)

Narcotic analgesics

c)

Antiparkinsonian drugs

d)

Neuroleptics

e)

Antidepressants

40.

In young children, compared to adults, respiratory failure develops more quickly in similar situation:

a)

insufficient development of elastic fibers in lung tissue

b)

low oxygen demand

c)

low aperture

d)

greater depth of breathing, inhalation and exhalation reserves

e)

large diameter of bronchi and trachea

41.

A 47-year-old female patient, in the last 2 months, complained of attacks of suffocation with examination: diffuse cyanosis, distant dry crackles, participation of auxiliary muscles in the a The Tiffno Index is 57%. In the development of this typical form of pathology, the following is:

a)

inhibition of the cholinergic nervous system

b)

enhanced production of vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

c)

decreased production of neurokinin A

d)

activation of alpha adrenergic receptors

e)

activation of beta-2-adrenergic receptors

42.

The factors of acid-peptic aggression in the pathogenesis of peptic ulcer disease include an increase:

a)

production of hydrochloric acid and pepsin

b)

mucosal repair processes

c)

production of bicarbonates

d)

production of prostaglandins E1. €2, F2

e)

mucus formation

43.

A 63-year-old man complains for nausea, vomiting. and a visual sensation of green-yellow circles around diagnosed with heart failure and atrial fibrillation and started appropriate treatment two weeks earlier. Medications most likely caused the symptoms in this patient?

a)

Orthostatic hypotension is caused by taking nitrates

b)

Tachycardia is caused by vasodilators

c)

Digitalis intoxication is caused by taking cardiac glycosides

d)

Angina pectons and 'steal' syndrome

e)

Hypertensive crisis is caused by cardiotonic drugs

44.

D2 dopamine receptor blockers metoclopramide, domperidone, thiethylperazine cause:

a)

antispasmodic effect

b)

emetic effect

c)

antiemetic effect

d)

secretory effect

e)

antisecretory effect

45.

Cholestyramine enters into a complex with bile acids and endotoxins, belongs to the group:

a)

astringent

b)

antiemetic

c)

enveloping

d)

adsorbing

e)

antispasmodics

46.

The bronchodilators of the adrenomimetics group include:

a)

euphylline, theophylline, ketotifen

b)

fenoterol, salbutamol, formoterol

c)

salbutamol, ephedrine. aminophylline

d)

salbutamol, atropine, octadine

e)

Ruticasone, budesonide, isoprenaline

47.

Possible causes of death in severe influenza characterized by general toxicity:

a)

myocardial infarction

b)

hemorrhage into the vital center of the brain

c)

asphyxia developed as a result of true croup

d)

chronic kidney failure (uremia)

e)

acute renal failure

48.

Morphological manifestations of the vasopathic effect of the virus:

a)

anemia

b)

hyperemia

c)

ischemia

d)

sclerosis

e)

fibrinoid necrosis

49.

An increase in the ventilation-perfusion ratio (Va/Q) greater than 1.0 is observed in the following:

a)

accumulation of fluid in the alveoli

b)

pulmonary atelectasis

c)

bronchospasm

d)

chronic bronchitis

e)

spasm of pulmonary arterioles

50.

Shunt (exogenous, false) hepatic coma develops in the following cases:

a)

Portal hypertension

b)

hepatic necrosis

c)

hepatosis

d)

acute hepatitis

e)

splenomegaly

51.

Which drug is not a calcium channel antagonist?

a)

ivabadrin

b)

amlodipine

c)

diltiazem

d)

nifedipine

e)

verapamil

52.

Typical neuroleptic:

a)

Haloperidol

b)

Atenolol

c)

Clozapine

d)

Risperidone

e)

Fenoterol

53.

Specify a drug for the treatment of iron deficiency anemia:

a)

Iron ferrous lactate

b)

Folic acid

c)

Sinkumar

d)

Cyanocobalamin

e)

Pentoxyl

54.

Indications for prescribing pirenzepine:

a)

hypotension, bronchial asthma, angina

b)

Raynaud's disease, obliterating endarteritis, pheochromocytoma

c)

cholecystitis, pancreatitis, cholelithiasis

d)

atony of the gastrointestinal tract and bladder, hypertension

e)

gastric ulcer, and duodenal ulcer, gastritis

55.

Specify an antifibrinolytic agent:

a)

Aminocaproic acid

b)

Thrombin

c)

Gelatin

d)

Streptodecase

e)

Urokinase

56.

Complications of type 2 diabetes mellitus:

a)

Hemolytic anemia

b)

Melanoderma, liver cirrhosis

c)

Gastrointestinal bleeding

d)

Obstructive jaundice

e)

Pyoderma, blindness

57.

Thyroid disease characterized by massive lymphoid infiltration with follicle formation, follicular epithelial cells with increased:

a)

Sporadic goiter

b)

Diffuse tonic goiter

c)

Redel's thyroiditis

d)

Endemic goiter

e)

Autoimmune thyroiditis

58.

Select a drug from the group of monoclonal antibodies to TNF alpha:

a)

Infiximab

b)

Sulfinpyrazone

c)

Auronofin

d)

Leflunomide

e)

Penicillamine

59.

Select a drug prescribed to dissolve cholesterol stones:

a)

ursodeoxycholic acid

b)

ranitidine

c)

holosas

d)

magnesium sulfate

e)

oxyferrocarbon

60.

What type of pericardial inflammation develops during transmural and subepicardial infarction:

a)

Fibrinous

b)

Purulent

c)

Putrefactive

d)

Serous

e)

Catarrhal

61.

When adrenaline acts on beta-2-adrenergic receptors, which are embedded in the cytoplasmic membrane of bronchiole smooth muscle cells, the following occurs:

a)

collapse of the alveoli walls

b)

decreased bronchial tone and dilation

c)

enhancement of mucostase

d)

increase in intracellular calcium in bronchiole smooth muscle

e)

inhibition of mucociliary clearance

62.

What are the pharmacological effects of glucocorticosteroids used in the treatment of rheumatic diseases?

a)

As a replacement therapy

b)

Antiallergic, anti-shock

c)

Anti-inflammatory, anti-shock

d)

Immunosuppressive, anti-shock

e)

Immunosuppressive, anti-inflammatory

63.

Colchicine in an inflamed joint with gout:

a)

Inhibits COX-1 and COX-2

b)

Binds beta tubulin, inhibits mitosis, disrupts leukocyte chemotaxis, and disrupts urate phagocytosis

c)

Activates the enzyme xanthine oxidase

d)

Blocks the enzyme xanthine oxidase

e)

Inhibits phospholipase A-2

64.

Patient S. was admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis of coronary heart disease. From the anamnesis, it turned out that he also has bronchial asthma. Which antianginal drugs are contraindicated in this patient?

a)

Organic nitrates

b)

Ivabradine

c)

Combined β + α blockers

d)

β-adrenergic blockers

e)

Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

65.

Patient O., 32 years old, with infertility, was diagnosed with oligozoospermia caused by a disorder of spermatogenesis. Dysfunction is associated with damage to the following testicular structures:

a)

Seminal vesicles

b)

Albuginea membrane of the testicles

c)

Straight seminiferous tubules

d)

Convoluted seminiferous tubules

e)

Testicular interstitial tissue

66.

Patient R., 56 years old, with acute myocardial infarction, is infused with thrombolytic drugs (rheopolyglucin) with simultaneous administration of heparin. The result of therapy may be the development of reperfusion syndrome, one of the manifestations of which is:

a)

Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome

b)

No-reflow syndrome

c)

Chronic right ventricular failure syndrome

d)

Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome

e)

Dressler syndrome

67.

What is the name of the condition when the action of levodopa becomes irregular (alternating between 'on' and off):

a)

Dystonia

b)

the on-off phenomenon

c)

paresthesis

d)

Cholinergic crisis

68.

In stage 3 of DIC, depletion of plasma factors, activation of fibrinolysis, and thrombocytopenia lead to the development of:

a)

Tissue ischemia

b)

Hemorrhagic syndrome

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Thromboemboli

69.

Which antiplatelet agents according to the mechanism of action belong to potent and orally active thromboxane:

a)
Dipyridamole
b)

Heparin

c)

Pentoxifyline

d)

Diltiazem

e)
  • Ridogrel

  • Ozagrel

  • Terutroban

  • Ifetroban

  • Dazoxiben
    Aspirin can be

70.

Antiplatelet agent, P2Y12 receptor blocker is:

a)

Rivaroxaban

b)

Warfarin

c)

Heparin

d)

Aspirin

e)

Clopidogrel

71.

The direct anticoagulant used for blood preservation:

a)

Sinkumar

b)

Fraxiparine

c)

Sodium citrate