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MLT 1203 Clinical Microscopy Exam 2 Review Ch 6-10

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which would compromise the proper care of reagent strips?

a)

Checking the expiration date

b)

Storing in a clear container

c)

Preventing exposure to toxic fumes

d)

Storing with a desiccant

2.

Reagent strip chemical tests may be inaccurate if the specimen is:

a)

Mixed before delivery

b)

Tested immediately after refrigeration

c)

Tested immediately after it is voided

d)

Collected by catheter

3.

Quality control must be

a)

Run at the beginning of each shift

b)

Run only when a new bottle is opened

c)

Run once a week

d)

Run using distilled water

4.

The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is:

a)

A. A double indicator reaction

b)

B. The protein error of indicators

c)

C. The diazo reaction

d)

D. A Greiss reaction

5.

The normal range of urine pH is:

a)

4.5 to 6.0

b)

5.0 to 7.0

c)

4.5 to 8.0

d)

4.5 to 9.0

6.

A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0 indicates that the patient should be:

a)

Tested further for metabolic or respiratory alkalosis

b)

Changed to a high meat diet to lower the pH

c)

Placed on medication to lower the pH

d)

Asked to collect a new specimen

7.

Which of the following is a cause of prerenal proteinuria?

a)

Prostatitis

b)

Multiple myeloma

c)

Preeclampsia

d)

Diabetes mellitus

8.

15. The protein section of the reagent strip is most sensitive to:

a)

Albumin

b)

Globulin

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Myoglobin

9.

To detect the presence of early renal disease, diabetic patients are tested for:

a)

Bence Jones protein

b)

Microalbuminuria

c)

Orthostatic protein

d)

Glucose and ketones

10.

A possible cause of postrenal proteinuria is:

a)

Prostatitis

b)

Multiple myeloma

c)

Glomerulonephritis

d)

Posture

11.

The principle of the reagent strip test for protein is the:

a)

Acid precipitation of protein

b)

Salting out of proteins

c)

pH effect on bromothymol blue

d)

Protein “error of indicators”

12.

Which of the following best describes the chemical principle of the protein reagent strip?

a)

Protein reacts with an immune complex on the pad, which results in a color change.

b)

Protein causes a pH change on the reagent strip pad that results in a color change.

c)

Protein accepts hydrogen ions from an indicator dye, which results in a color change.

d)

Protein causes protons to be released from a polyelectrolyte, resulting in a color change.

13.

Microalbumin tests are frequently used to screen patients with:

a)

Fanconi’s syndrome

b)

Porphyrinuria

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Diabetes insipidus

14.

The chemical reaction for the reagent strip reaction for glucose uses a:

a)

Double sequential enzyme reaction

b)

Sodium nitroprusside reaction

c)

Diazonium salt reaction

d)

Pyrrole amino acid ester reaction

15.

Which of the following will not interfere with glucose detection in a urine specimen?

a)

Galactose

b)

Ascorbic acid

c)

Bleach

d)

Old specimen

16.

While performing a Clinitest, you observe that the color changes rapidly from blue to orange and then back to blue. You should:

a)

Report the test as negative, because the final reaction color is blue

b)

Report the test as negative, because the brief orange color was contamination

c)

Repeat the test using fewer drops of urine to check for “pass through”

d)

Repeat the test using more drops of urine to prevent “pass through”

17.

Which of the following is not a ketone produced in normal adult metabolism?

a)

Acetone

b)

Phenylketones

c)

Acetoacetic acid

d)

Beta-hydroxybutyric acid

18.

Reagent strip reactions for ketones react primarily with:

a)

Acetone

b)

Acetoacetic acid

c)

Beta-hydroxybutyric acid

d)

Phenylacetone

19.

Excessive fat metabolism is indicated by the urinary presence of:

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Glucose

c)

Ketones

d)

Protein

20.

Sodium nitroprusside and an alkaline buffer are used to test for:

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Ketones

c)

Glucose

d)

Protein

21.

Reagent strip reactions for blood are based on the:

a)

Peroxidase activity of hemoglobin

b)

Oxidation of hemoglobin peroxidase

c)

Reaction of hemoglobin with bromothymol blue

d)

Reduction of a chromogen by hemoglobin

22.

Myoglobinuria may be caused by:

a)

A. A “crushing” injury

b)

B. Incompatible blood transfusions

c)

C. Chronic renal disease

d)

D. Biliary obstruction

23.

The chemical principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is that bilirubin:

a)

Causes a color change when it binds to a buffered pH indicator

b)

Combines with a diazonium salt to form a colored complex

c)

Is oxidized to biliverdin

d)

Causes a pH change detected by the reagent pad indicator

24.

Ascorbic acid interferes with the reactions for bilirubin and nitrite by:

a)

Reducing the oxidized chromogen

b)

Binding with the diazonium salt

c)

Neutralizing the buffer

d)

Oxidizing the aromatic amine

25.

Urobilinogen is formed from the:

a)

Conjugation of bilirubin in the liver

b)

Reduction of conjugated bilirubin in the bile

c)

Reduction of bilirubin by intestinal bacteria

d)

Oxidation of urobilin by intestinal bacteria

26.

Tests for nitrite tend to be positive:

a)

When gram-positive bacteria are present

b)

When the urine sits in the bladder for less than 2 hours

c)

When gram-negative bacteria are present

d)

When a renal transplant rejection occurs

27.

The reagent strip test for nitrite is based on the:

a)

Reduction of urea

b)

Reaction of nitrite with the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria

c)

Reduction of nitrate in urine to nitrite by bacteria

d)

Reaction of bacterial nitrite with an aromatic amine to produce a pH change

28.

Reagent strip reactions for white blood cells are based on the detection of:

a)

Bacterial peroxidase activity

b)

Esterase activity

c)

Reduction of indoxyl blue

d)

Binding of a diazonium salt

29.

A false-negative LE reaction may be caused by:

a)

The presence of eosinophils and basophils

b)

Increased bacteria

c)

Lysed leukocytes

d)

Failure to wait 2 minutes to read the reaction

30.

In review of the following results, what do the results most likely suggest?

a)

The results most likely suggest a significant correlation.

b)

The results most likely suggest no relationship.

c)

The results most likely suggest a measurement error.

d)

The results most likely suggest a random occurrence.

31.

Given the following urinalysis results: Clarity: Clear Specific gravity: 1.028 pH: 5.0 Glucose: Negative Ketones: Large Bilirubin: Negative Urobilinogen: 0.2 Nitrite: Negative Leukocyte esterase: Negative Which of the following is most likely?

a)

A. A child with uncontrolled diarrhea and vomiting

b)

B. An uncontrolled diabetic patient

c)

C. An adult maintaining adequate fluid intake

d)

D. A woman with a urinary tract infection

32.

What do the urine results suggest? Color: Yellow Clarity: Cloudy Specific gravity: 1.019 pH: 8.0 Protein: Trace Glucose: Negative Ketones: Negative Bilirubin: Negative Blood: Negative Urobilinogen: 0.1 EU Nitrite: Positive Leukocyte esterase: Positive

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Unsatisfactory specimen

c)

Urinary tract infection

d)

Normal female specimen

33.

The urinalysis result most closely associated with renal disease is a positive:

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Glucose

c)

Nitrite

d)

Protein

34.

The recommended centrifugation setting for preparation of the urine sediment is:

a)

400 RPM for 10 minutes

b)

1,000 RPM for 5 minutes

c)

400 RCF for 5 minutes

d)

1,000 RCF for 10 minutes

35.

The purpose of scanning the perimeter of urine sediment placed under a conventional glass slide is to:

a)

Identify types of casts

b)

Detect renal tubular epithelial cells

c)

Evaluate the overall sediment composition

d)

Detect the presence of casts

36.

Which of the following are reported as the quantity per low-power field?

a)

Casts

b)

Red blood cells

c)

White blood cells

d)

Bacteria

37.

Substances found in the urinary sediment that can be confirmed using polarized light are:

a)

WBCs

b)

Yeast

c)

Ketone bodies

d)

Lipids

38.

Identification of oval fat bodies can be verified using:

a)

Bright-field microscopy

b)

Phase contrast

c)

Polarized light

d)

Interference-contrast microscopy

39.

Using a bright-field microscope, the final magnification of a high-power field is:

a)

10×

b)

40×

c)

400×

d)

1,000×

40.

To increase the probability of detecting urine sediment constituents that have a low refractive index, clinical laboratories often use:

a)

Phase-contrast microscopy

b)

Polarizing microscopy

c)

Interference-contrast microscopy

d)

Bright-field microscopy

41.

The presence of crenated RBCs in the urine sediment is associated with:

a)

Trauma

b)

Hypersthenuria

c)

Hyposthenuria

d)

Urinary tract infection

42.

Glitter cell is a term used to describe a specific type of:

a)

Ketone body

b)

Renal tubular epithelial cell

c)

Neutrophil

d)

Oval fat body

43.

An increase in urinary WBCs is called:

a)

Pyelonephritis

b)

Cystitis

c)

Urethritis

d)

Pyuria

44.

Urine sediments containing increased WBCs should be observed closely for the presence of:

a)

Hyaline casts

b)

Granular casts

45.

Eosinophils are found in the urine in cases of:

a)

Nephrotic syndrome

b)

Cystitis

c)

Acute interstitial nephritis

d)

Renal lithiasis

46.

The type of cells that line the bladder and ureters are called:

a)

Squamous

b)

Renal tubular

c)

Transitional

d)

Basal

47.

In ascending order, the location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract is:

a)

Squamous, transitional, renal tubular

b)

Transitional, renal tubular, squamous

c)

Renal tubular, transitional, squamous

d)

Squamous, renal tubular, urothelial

48.

Which of the following cells found in increased numbers in the urine sediment is only indicative of nephron damage?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

WBCs

c)

Squamous epithelial cells

d)

Renal tubular cells

49.

Collection of a midstream clean-catch specimen will alleviate contamination by:

a)

Renal tubular epithelial cells

b)

RBCs

c)

Transitional epithelial cells

d)

Squamous epithelial cells

50.

Which of the following cells can be found in both a vaginal wet prep and in urine sediment?

a)

Yeast cell and clue cell

b)

Transitional and renal epithelial cell

c)

Clue cell and hyaline casts

d)

Renal and squamous cells

51.

The primary factor that favors the formation of urinary casts is:

a)

Urinary stasis

b)

High pH

c)

Positive blood

d)

Low specific gravity

52.

The major constituent of urinary casts is:

a)

Lipoprotein

b)

Bence Jones protein

c)

Uromodulin protein

d)

Amino acids

53.

Sediment constituents that are used to differentiate between upper and lower urinary tract infections are:

a)

WBCs

b)

Bacteria

c)

RBCs and WBCs

d)

WBC casts

54.

Waxy casts can be found in the urine sediment:

a)

In patients with renal failure

b)

Of an alkaline urine

c)

Whenever abnormal protein is present

d)

When urine is not correctly preserved

55.

the:

a)

RBC

b)

RBC cast

c)

WBC cast

d)

Hyaline cast

56.

To distinguish a cellular cast from a clump of cells, the clinical laboratory scientist should:

a)

Check for dysmorphic cells

b)

Look carefully for a cast matrix

c)

Determine whether free-standing cells are present

d)

Examine the sediment using polarizing microscopy

57.

Nonpathogenic or “normal” crystals found in acidic urine include:

a)

Calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous urates

b)

Calcium oxalate, uric acid, sulfonamides

c)

Uric acid, amorphous urates, triple phosphate

d)

Uric acid, calcium carbonate, bilirubin

58.

Which of the following crystals can usually be found in an alkaline urine?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Cystine

d)

Ammonium biurate

59.

Abnormal crystals are most frequently seen in urine that is:

a)

Acid

b)

Neutral

c)

Alkaline

d)

Collected for 24 hours

60.

Crystals found in the urine that are associated with pathogenic disease include:

a)

Calcium oxalate and uric acid

b)

Leucine and tyrosine

c)

Heavy amorphous phosphates

d)

Triple phosphate and ammonium biurate

61.

Which of the following crystals is associated with ethylene glycol (Antifreeze) ingestion?

a)

Uric acid

b)

Calcium oxalate monohydrate

c)

Triple phosphate

d)

Calcium oxalate dihydrate

62.

Which crystal appears to have notched corners?

a)

Ammonium biurate

b)

Cholesterol

63.

Diseases affecting the glomerulus are primarily caused by:

a)

Trauma

b)

Diabetes

c)

Immunological disorders

d)

Toxic chemicals

64.

Which does not cause damage to the glomerulus?

a)

Increased filtration of electrolytes

b)

Deposition of immune complexes

c)

Deposition of amyloid materials

d)

Cellular infiltration

65.

The presence of which of the following crystals can be associated with nephrotic syndrome?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Cystine

d)

Ampicillin

66.

Oval fat bodies and fatty casts are characteristic urine sediment constituents in patients with:

a)

Chronic glomerulonephritis

b)

Acute interstitial nephritis

c)

Nephrotic syndrome

d)

Wegener’s granulomatosis

67.

Which inherited renal disorder manifests itself in the development of gout in teenage years?

a)

Fanconi syndrome

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Uromodulin-associated kidney disease

d)

Chronic glomerulonephritis

68.

Which of the following renal disorders is most likely to be inherited?

a)

Nephrotic syndrome

b)

Acute interstitial nephritis

c)

Acute tubular necrosis

d)

Fanconi syndrome

69.

The presence of increased renal tubular epithelial cell casts is most indicative of:

a)

Nephrotic syndrome

b)

Fanconi syndrome

c)

Acute tubular necrosis

d)

Acute pyelonephritis

70.

Infection of the bladder is termed:

a)

Pyelitis

b)

Nephritis

c)

Cystitis

d)

Bacteriuria

71.

Cystitis can be differentiated from pyelonephritis by:

a)

Performing a cystoscopy

b)

The presence of white blood cell casts

c)

Performing blood cultures

d)

The presence of bacteriuria

72.

The finding of bacterial casts can be associated with:

a)

Acute pyelonephritis

b)

Acute interstitial nephritis

c)

Cystitis

d)

Acute glomerulonephritis