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TSAC-F Testing, Assessment, and Evaluation

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following methods focuses on people who complete a JST in the fastest time, thereby having a greater work capacity? P147

a)


Normative Reference Approach

b)

Absolute Comparison Method

c)

Differential Scoring Technique

d)

Rating of Performance Method

2.

What is the minimum time a Marine must maintain the flexed-arm hang to meet the muscular strength standard? P151

a)

15 sec

b)

20 sec

c)

10 sec

d)

25 sec

3.

In a physical fitness evaluation for a tactical athlete, what muscular quality is measured by the number of push-ups completed within two minutes? P137

a)

Strength

b)

Power

c)

Endurance

d)

Speed

4.

During a comprehensive fitness assessment, when should the muscular endurance test be administered? P144

a)


At the beginning of the testing session, before any other tests

b)

After agility and maximal strength tests but before fatiguing anaerobic and aerobic capacity tests

c)

Immediately after the aerobic capacity test

5.

What is the first consideration for a TSAC facilitator when creating a training plan for military personnel? P528

a)

Injury histroy

b)

Aerobic fitness

c)

Training goals

d)

Unit mission

6.

Your tactical athlete just completed an agility assessment using the T-test. According to proper test sequencing, which of the following assessments should be performed next? P144

a)

1RM bench press

b)

Push up test

c)

300 meter sprint

7.

The Canadian Armed Forces awards a performance pin to the top 0.1% of tactical athletes. This type of incentive is most likely to appeal to which form of motivation? P146

a)


Introjected motivation

b)

External motivation

c)

Identified motivation

8.

In the order of exercise testing, which type of test comes after a maximum power and strength test? P144

a)


Muscular endurance

b)

Non-fatiguing

c)

Sprint

d)

Fatiguing anaerobic capacity

9.

The T-test is a predictive field test that is used to measure which of the following physical characteristics? P139

a)


Muscular endurance

b)

Aerobic fitness

c)

Muscular power

d)

Agility

10.

Which of the following is not typically used as a field test for flexibility in tactical athletes? P139

a)

Y balance test

b)

Sit and reach

c)

T test

11.

Ensuring that a test measures the ability it is intended to measure is known as what? P142-143

a)

Construct validity

b)

Test retest reliability

c)

Content validity

12.

Which of the following tests is not typically used to assess muscular power? P139

a)

Standing broad jump

b)

Incremental dynamic lift

c)

Vertical jump

13.

Which of the following is not considered a core component of long-term tactical athlete development, as adapted from Scofield and Kardouni? P136

a)


Sustaining both general and occupational physical preparedness for long-term readiness

b)

Applying occupation-specific strength and conditioning programs to enhance job performance

c)

Maintaining aerobic conditioning as the primary focus throughout the career span

14.

How many 1RM attempts should be made before finding one's true 1RM value? P418

a)

3-5 attempts

b)

6-8 attempts

c)

1-2 attempts

15.

Which of the following is not a primary purpose of physical assessments for tactical athletes? P136

a)


Diagnosing chronic diseases and prescribing medical treatment

b)

Determining suitability for physically demanding occupational roles

c)

Evaluating physical preparedness to perform job-specific tasks

16.

A trainer selects agility tests in order to assess a group of tactical athletes. Of the following, which test measures agility? p139

a)

Standing broad jump

b)

T test

c)

40 yard dash

17.

Which of the following is not a limitation to using difference scores to judge the effectiveness of a training program? P149-150

a)


Athletes may purposefully fail to give maximum effort in the pretraining tests in order to boost scores

b)

Athletes may incorrectly calculate their pretest and posttest scores

c)

Untrained athletes may improve far more than previously trained athletes

18.

What would be the median of the following scores?

2, 9, 3, 7, 3, 6, 2, 12

P146-147

a)

3

b)

6

c)

4.5

19.

Which of the following is not considered a predictive field test for assessing occupational readiness in tactical populations? P138

a)


Ladder climb with load

b)

Casualty evacuation while wearing full gear

c)

VO₂ max treadmill test

20.

To effectively motivate tactical athletes using rewards, which of the following best aligns with Self-Determination Theory? P146

a)

Rewards are most effective when they are realistic, aligned with personal goals, and reinforce internal values

b)

Rewards should highlight superiority and create competitive pressure to enhance performance

c)

Rewards should be frequent and performance-based, regardless of personal meaning, to maintain consistency

21.

Which of the following is not one of the pros of job-simulation tests? P142

a)


May be a learning curve with performance

b)

Facilitates training for the job

c)

Easily understood by the workforce

d)

Has high face validity

22.

Which of the following tests is not typically used to assess muscular strength in tactical populations? P139

a)

Pull up test

b)

Handgrip dynamometer

c)

Burpee test

23.

Which of the following best describes the concept of physical preparedness for tactical athletes? P136

a)


Following a structured training program that develops cardiovascular endurance and muscular strength

b)

The ability to complete job-specific fitness tests at a passing level

c)

A combination of health, physical capacity, and skill that supports effective performance under unpredictable and demanding job conditions

24.

Why was the Physical Achievement Test introduced by the military in 1957? P139

a)


To evaluate physical readiness in combat units after basic training, since the Physical Fitness Test (PFT) was no longer mandatory

b)

To replace the Army Physical Fitness Test as the standard for new recruits

c)

To assess technical and tactical skills alongside physical abilities in advanced combat training

25.

Which of the following refers to a test’s ability to consistently produce the same results under the same conditions? P142

a)

Validity

b)

Reliability

c)

Specificity

26.

Which of the following best reflects the guideline for scheduling physical readiness testing within a tactical training program? P145

a)


Testing should align with peak operational demands to measure performance in real-world conditions

b)

Testing should be timed with training cycles and operational tempo to avoid fatigue-related performance suppression

c)

Testing should occur at random intervals to capture realistic, unscripted performance under stress

27.

A tactical athlete trains daily because they believe completing the program will improve job performance and reflects their personal values. What type of extrinsic motivation does this represent? P146

a)


Introjected regulation

b)

External regulation

c)

Identified regulation

28.

Which of the following tests should be used to assess one's anaerobic capacity? P144

a)

300 m run

b)

40 yard dash

c)

Countermovement vertical jump

29.

Which of the following is known as the circumstance in which a group of differences in performance relative to common standards results in a disproportionate failure rate in a subgroup? P148

a)

Adverse impact

b)

Competency equilibrium

c)

Skill uniformity

d)

Performance parity

30.

Which of the following is not one of the physical fitness requirements for the military? P136

a)


Running broad jump

b)

12-foot fence climb

c)

Hand grenade throw

d)

100-yard dash

31.

What is the median of these scores?

12, 4, 5, 12, 10, 8, 11, 10

P146-147

a)

9

b)

10

c)

11

d)

12

32.

Which of the following fitness tests continues to be used by most U.S. firefighting departments? P137

a)


Candidate Physical Ability Test

b)

Emergency Response Fitness Assessment

c)

Tactical Response Physical Evaluation

d)

Operational Firefighting Competency Exam

33.

Which of the following is the most effective method for assessing muscular strength in a tactical athlete? P140

a)


Number of push-ups performed in two minutes

b)

Total number of repetitions with 60% of body weight on the bench press

c)

Maximum weight lifted in a 1-repetition maximum (1RM) test

34.

Which of the following is not a component of the U.S. Marine Corps Combat Fitness Test (CFT)? P153

a)


800-yard movement to contact course

b)

1.5-mile run

c)

Maneuver under fire course

35.

A tactical athlete performs a battery of tests in order to assess her physical performance. Which of the following would be the correct order for tests? P143-144

a)


40-yard sprint, vertical jump, 12-minute run

b)

Vertical jump, 40-yard sprint, 12-minute run

c)

12-minute run, vertical jump, 40-yard sprint

36.

When testing upper body 1RM, how much weight is usually added to the load after a successful one-repetition attempt? P140

a)

30-40 pounds

b)

5-10 pounds

c)

9-20 pounds

37.

Which type of test is insufficiently sensitive for predicting extended load carriage capacity? P543-547

a)

Body composition

b)

Strength

c)

Power

d)

Aerobic fitness

38.

What is a key limitation of relying solely on fitness-component tests to assess tactical readiness? P149

a)


They provide too much emphasis on flexibility and mobility over strength and power

b)

They underestimate improvements in neuromuscular coordination and reaction time

c)

They may cause tactical athletes to prioritize test preparation over operational preparedness

39.

According to U.S. Navy fitness standards, what is the maximum allowable body fat percentage for a 22-year-old female service member? P154

a)

23%

b)

30%

c)

34%

d)

40%

40.

In the Margaria-Kalamen test, what is the height requirement for the steps? P136-137

a)

10 inches

b)

12 inches

c)

7 inches

d)

9 inches

41.

Which of the following is the proper sequence for conducting tests in a physical fitness battery for tactical athletes? P143

a)


40-yard sprint, 1RM bench press, 300-meter run, T-test

b)

1RM bench press, T-test, 300-meter run, 40-yard sprint

c)

T-test, 1RM bench press, 40-yard sprint, 300-meter run

d)

300-meter run, 40-yard sprint, T-test, 1RM bench press

42.

An athlete is attending a training session with his trainer and is instructed to prepare for a battery of tests. What performance measurement is being tested during the 12-minute run? P139-140

a)


Anaerobic capacity

b)

Local muscular endurance

c)

Aerobic capacity

43.

Which of the following represents the minimum fitness standards for a 22-year-old male in terms of body fat percentage for the US Navy? P154

a)

18%

b)

23%

c)

28%

d)

32%

44.

A trainer is planning to evaluate a group of new tactical athletes. All of the following should be used to generate an athletic profile except: P145

a)

Select tests that are closely related to the parameters of the sport

b)

Administer the test to as few athletes as possible

c)

Choose valid and reliable tests

45.

Which of the following represents the correct order of testing in a physical fitness battery to ensure valid and reliable results? P139,143

a)


300 m (328 yd) run, 40 yd (37 m) sprint, T-test, 1RM bench press

b)

T-test, 1RM bench press, 40 yd (37 m) sprint, 300 m (328 yd) run

c)

1RM bench press, T-test, 300 m (328 yd) run, 40 yd (37 m) sprint

46.

Which of the following is not a predictive field test to measure flexibility? P139

a)


Sit and reach

b)

Y balance

c)

Functional movement screen

d)

Beep test

47.

An athlete completes a battery of tests in order to compare his performance to those scoring below him. What type of descriptive data would best describe his results? P147-148

a)


Percentile rank

b)

Central tendency

c)

Variability

48.

To ensure consistency and fairness across all participants during physical testing, how should test instructions and demonstrations be prepared? P144

a)

Script

b)

Presentation deck

c)

Memorandum

49.

After Kara performs her first standing long jump, where at the foot is a marker placed to determine the length she has jumped? P139

a)


There is no marker placed until the third attempt

b)

The toes

c)

The heel

50.

Which of the following is a pro of fitness-component tests? P142

a)


Tend to have limited predictive power

b)

Tests are twice removed from the job

c)

Data can be used for test results that facilitate exercise prescription

d)

Applied standard is typically age and gender stratifies

51.

According to the 1974 NFPA Standard 1001, which of the following was included as a minimum physical fitness requirement for entrance into fire service? P137

a)


Walking a 20-foot beam while carrying 20 pounds of hose

b)

Running two miles in under 15 minutes

c)

Performing 50 push-ups in 60 seconds

52.

To pass the physical fitness requirements test to enter into fire service, how much weight will your tactical athlete need to lift and carry for 100 feet without stopping? P137

a)

115 lb

b)

105 lb

c)

95 lb

d)

125 lb

53.

When testing athletic abilities, the testing must be reliable. What is reliability? P142-143

a)


The extent to which test scores are associated with some other measure of the same ability

b)

The measure of the degree of consistency or repeatability of a test

c)

The degree to which a test or test item measures what it is supposed to measure

54.

A tactical athlete is recovering from a lower-body injury and cannot complete a standard 1.5-mile run to assess aerobic capacity. Which of the following tests is the most appropriate alternative? P143

a)


Wingate anaerobic cycling test

b)

Stationary cycling VO₂ submaximal test

c)

Reactive strength index test

55.

After completing the first warm-up set during a one-repetition maximum (1RM) muscular strength test, how much weight should typically be added for subsequent sets? P140

a)


4 to 9 kg (9 to 20 lbs) for upper body; 14 to 18 kg (31 to 40 lbs) for lower body

b)

6 to 12 kg (13 to 26 lbs) for upper body; 18 to 22 kg (40 to 48 lbs) for lower body

c)

2 to 5 kg (4 to 11 lbs) for upper body; 8 to 12 kg (18 to 26 lbs) for lower body

56.

What is the recommended order for conducting multiple physical fitness tests in a single session to ensure valid and reliable results? P144

a)


Maximum power → Nonfatiguing tests → Sprint → Muscular endurance → Agility → Aerobic capacity → Anaerobic capacity

b)

Nonfatiguing tests → Agility → Maximum power and strength → Sprint → Muscular endurance → Anaerobic capacity → Aerobic capacity

c)

Aerobic capacity → Muscular endurance → Agility → Nonfatiguing tests → Sprint → Maximum power → Anaerobic capacity

57.

Which test is used to assess muscular strength for tactical athletes? P151

a)


300 yard shuttle

b)

Vertical jump

c)

Beep test

d)

3RM squat

58.

Which of the following is considered one of the best predictors of physical performance while wearing versus not wearing body armor among military personnel? P139

a)


Muscle strength

b)

Muscle endurance

c)

Body fat

d)

Training program

59.

What type of extrinsic motivation is characterized by a person being driven by social recognition, such as receiving a medal or T-shirt to acknowledge an accomplishment? P145

a)

Introjected

b)

Identified

c)

External

60.

Which of the following factors most directly determines how often physical fitness tests should be administered to tactical athletes? P145

a)


The number of personnel available to administer the test

b)

The athlete’s age and gender

c)

The purpose of the test being conducted

61.

How long are each of the sides of the hexagon test? P380-387

a)

20 in

b)

24 in

c)

24 feet

d)

20 feet

62.

According to U.S. Army standards, what is the minimum number of push-ups required for a 22-year-old male to pass the muscular endurance test? P151

a)

19

b)

42

c)

50

d)

60

63.

Which of the following is not one of predictive field tests for muscular strength? P139

a)

Pull up

b)

Incremental dynamic lift

c)

Burpee

d)

Push up

64.

Which of the following best explains a key reason for including a warm-up prior to a physical performance test? P145

a)


It minimizes post-exercise soreness by increasing blood lactate levels

b)

It improves movement efficiency and provides insight into participant readiness

c)

It reduces central nervous system fatigue during the final stages of the test

65.

Which of the following best describes how aerobic endurance is typically measured during a fitness assessment? P139

a)


The volume of oxygen consumed per kilogram of body weight per minute

b)

The amount of carbon dioxide expelled per breath

c)

The number of laps completed in 12 minutes

66.

During a one-repetition maximum (1RM) strength test for a tactical athlete, what is the recommended starting weight for the first warm-up set relative to the athlete’s predicted 1RM? P140

a)

50%

b)

30%

c)

40%

d)

20%

67.

Which of the following is not one of the components of a fitness assessment for tactical athletes? P138

a)


Cognitive reasoning test

b)

Evaluation of general fitness

c)

Evaluation of occupational fitness

d)

Health screening

68.

Which of the following is not typically included as a minimum physical standard in traditional military physical fitness tests? P136

a)

Running broad jump

b)

1.5 mile run

c)

100 yard dash

69.

What is the key principle for achieving the desired training effect to ensure job relevance? P554

a)

Specificity

b)

Attainability

c)

Measureability

d)

Vaariability

70.

What form of extrinsic motivation involves the desire for social acknowledgment through awards like medals or accomplishment-themed t-shirts? P146

a)

Participartory

b)

Introjected

c)

Identified

d)

External

71.

Activities lasting between 30 and 90 seconds are most likely testing what performance variable? P144

a)

Anaerobic capacity

b)

Local muscular endurance

c)

Aerobic capacity

72.

Which environmental condition is the human body unable to adapt to? P527

a)

Humod

b)

Cold

c)

Hot

d)

Dry

73.

A test is administered one or more times during the training period to assess progress and modify the program as needed to maximize benefit. What is this test called? P136-137

a)

Pretest

b)

Formative evaluation

c)

Midtest

74.

What is the formula for BMI? P110

a)


[weight (pounds) / height (inches)2 ] x 703

b)

[weight (pounds) / height (m)2 ] x 703

c)

[weight (kg) / height (inches)2 ] x 703

75.

n the Margaria-Kalamen test, which two stairs have timers placed on them? P153

a)

Third and ninth

b)

First and ninth

c)

Sixth and ninth

76.

Jody is an athlete who is transferring from a cold climate to a hot climate. What is the minimum amount of time she should wait to acclimatize to the heat before testing occurs? P527

a)

One week

b)

Two weeks

c)

Three weeks

d)

Four weeks

77.

A trainer is testing the agility and strength of a group of athletes in a strength and conditioning facility. Which of the following is considered a high-speed strength test? P140

a)


1RM back squat

b)

Maximum number of sit-ups

c)

Broad jump

78.

Which of the following is the legally defensible test for law enforcement? P138

a)


Comprehensive Agility and Power Trial (CAPT)

b)

Functional Response Test (FRT)

c)

Physical Abilities Requirement Evaluation (PARE)

d)

Maximum Physical Endurance Evaluation (MPEE)

79.

Laying out specific guidelines on depth when testing an athlete in the push-up test is clearing up what type of reliability? P143-145

a)


Intrasubject variability

b)

Interrater reliability

c)

Discriminant reliability

80.

What would be the calculated single-repetition maximum (1RM) for a soldier who can back squat 250 pounds for five repetitions, rounding down to the nearest whole number in pounds? P524-225

a)


291 pounds

b)

287 pounds

c)

258 pounds

d)

327 pounds

81.

A trainer would like to test an athlete's muscular endurance. Which of the following tests would be the best option to measure local muscular endurance? P139-140

a)

Running test

b)

Beep test

c)

Push up test

82.

When recording the number of push-ups performed by an incoming army recruit, you, as the tester, are more lenient on depth of the push-ups than you were with the last recruit. What type of variability is this? P143-145

a)


Interrater agreement

b)

Intrasubject variability

c)

Intrarater variability

83.

The beep test is a predictive field test for which of the following physical characteristics? P139

a)


Muscular strength

b)

Aerobic fitness

c)

Muscular power

d)

Flexibility

84.

When creating an assessment for an incoming army recruit, how would you describe his training status if he has lifted for the last six months consistently for three days a week? P136-137

a)

Beginner

b)

Intermediate

c)

Advanced

85.

To test local muscular endurance, which of the following options would be best to incorporate into your testing protocol? P139

a)

1.5 mile run

b)

Push up test

c)

Barbell squat 1 RM

86.

Which of the following are the times to beat for men and women, respectively, during the Illinois Agility Test at the U.S. Federal Law Enforcement Training Center? 151

a)


17.57 s / 19.11 s

b)

19.37 s / 21.41 s

c)

18.07 s / 20.21 s

d)

16.27 s / 18.31 s

87.

Because Daniel has a good countermovement jump ability, coach Mike thinks he will be a great asset to the team for rebounding. What is Mike using to determine this? P142-143

a)


Predictive validity

b)

Convergent validity

c)

Discriminant validity

88.

Which of the following predictive field tests would be the best option to measure agility? P139

a)

Squat

b)

Push up

c)

Beep test

d)

300 yard shuttle run

89.

To enter the SEALs, what is the time to beat when completing the 1.5-mile run test? P519

a)

11:00

b)

11:30

c)

12:00

d)

10:30

90.

Provide the range of the following scores:

4.5, 8, 6.5, 7.5, 6, 4.5, 3.5

P146-147

a)

5.5

b)

4

c)

4.5

d)

7

91.

When performing a predictive field test, the trainer instructs the athletes in a series of activities that test their agility. Which of the following tests would be appropriate to test for this physical characteristic? P139

a)

Vertical jump

b)

300 yd shuttle run

c)

Beep test

92.

An athlete is testing for the 1RM back squat. How long should he rest between one- repetition attempts? P140

a)

30 sec to 1 min

b)

2-3 minutes

c)

3-5 minutes

93.

What is not a factor in selecting performance tests? P136-137

a)

Sex

b)

Age

c)

Weight

94.

Which of the following is not an example of a maximum muscular power test? P139-140

a)

1RM back squat

b)

Vertical jump

c)

Broad jup

95.

Provide the mode of the following scores:

10, 11, 11, 9, 7, 10, 6, 9, 10, 7

P146-147

a)

9

b)

10

c)

11

96.

Which of the following is the minimum number of sit-ups that a female or male should be able to complete during muscular endurance testing for the US Army? P151

a)


45 sit-ups

b)

35 sit-ups

c)

50 sit-ups

d)

40 sit-ups

97.

What is the maximum number of partial curl-ups one is allowed during the partial curl-up test? P153

a)

100

b)

50

c)

75

d)

25

98.

Which of the following is not one of the physical fitness requirements for entrance into the fire service? P137

a)


25 bent-knee sit-ups in 90 seconds

b)

10 push-ups

c)

5 pull-ups

d)

Running 2.5 miles

99.

Which of the following performance tests requires a metronome? P242

a)

Chin up

b)

Partial curl up

c)

Push up

100.

What is the testing sequence for those tactical athletes who want to enter the Navy? P518

a)


1.5-mile run, curl-ups, and push-ups

b)

Curl-ups, push-ups, 1.5-mile run

c)

Push-ups, 1.5-mile run, curl-ups

d)

1.5-mile run, curl-ups, push-ups

101.

Studies show that firefighting job performance is significantly correlated with all the following except: P139

a)

400 meter sprint time

b)

Bent row endurance

c)

Squat power

d)

Bench press strength

102.

Which of the following predictive field tests is not used to measure muscular power? P139

a)

Standing broad jump

b)

Medicine ball throw

c)

Vertical jump

d)

T test

103.

n statistics, what is considered the degree of dispersion of scores within a group? P143-145

a)

Mode

b)

Scale

c)

Variability

104.

What is the longest length for which speed tests can be performed? P345

a)

100 yards

b)

300 meters

c)

200 meters

105.

What is the ACSM standard depth for males in the push-up test? P143-151

a)


When the arms are parallel with the ground

b)

When the chest makes contact with the recorder's fist held vertically against the ground

c)

When the chest hits an 8-inch foam roller placed under the athlete's chest

106.

Which of the following is the minimum number of yards for the sandbag drag during muscular strength testing for the Canadian Armed Forces? P151

a)

42 yards

b)

12 yards

c)

22 yards

d)

32 yards

107.

What is the mean of the following scores?

12, 4, 5, 12, 10, 8, 11, 10

P146-147

a)

8

b)

9

c)

10

d)

12

108.

When test participants understand the reason for a test and believe that the test is an accurate measure of their ability, that test can be said to have which of the following? P141-143

a)

Construct validity

b)

Content validity

c)

Face validity

109.

What performance test needs a space of 25 yards to administer? P374

a)

Hexagon test

b)

300 yard shuttle

c)

T test

110.

A group of athletes perform a battery of tests in order to gauge their physical abilities. The following numbers are the results. What is the mode of the following scores?

18, 22, 7, 8, 11, 13, 12, 9, 10

P146-147

a)

There is no mode

b)

7

c)

22

d)

10