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Diagnostic Imaging and Lameness Treatment Worksheet

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of diagnostic imaging is most useful for getting information about bones?

a)

Ultrasound

b)

Radiographs (X-rays)

c)

Bone Scans

d)

MRI Scans

2.

What is ultrasound most useful for imaging?

a)

Deep bony structures

b)

Soft tissue

c)

Entire horse at once

d)

Fractures

3.

According to the text, what is often the most important treatment for lameness?

a)

Medication

b)

Rest

c)

Shoeing changes

d)

Supplements

4.

What is one of the main goals of new treatments for lameness?

a)

To mask the pain

b)

To halt damage and encourage repair

c)

To avoid rest

d)

To replace traditional methods completely

5.

What is the ultimate most effective treatment for any lameness problem based on?

a)

The owner's preference

b)

The most specific diagnosis

c)

The veterinarian's experience alone

d)

The cost of treatment

6.

In a gait analysis, what do veterinarians look for?

a)

The horse's breed

b)

Changes in the normal gait

c)

The owner's riding ability

d)

The horse's color

7.

What does "Down on Sound" refer to?

a)

The horse lying down due to lameness

b)

The horse's head going down when the sound limb contacts the ground

c)

The horse making a sound when lame

d)

A specific diagnosis of lameness

8.

What is "Hip Hike"?

a)

A training technique

b)

Vertical displacement of the tuber coxae during trotting, indicating lameness

c)

A type of jump

d)

A breed of horse

9.

How does lunging typically affect lameness?

a)

Exacerbates hind limb lameness

b)

Masks forelimb lameness

10.

What is a Roman Nose?

a)

A type of bridle

b)

A rounded or convex shape of the bridge of the nose

c)

A specific breed of horse

d)

A type of facial marking

11.

What is a potential consequence of a steep shoulder?

a)

Increased flexibility

b)

Decreased length of stride

c)

Improved jumping ability

d)

Enhanced speed

12.

What does a narrow chest in a horse indicate?

a)

Increased lung capacity

b)

Legs that may interfere when the horse travels

c)

Enhanced balance

d)

Greater agility

13.

What is a Mutton Withers?

a)

High, sharp withers

b)

Low, wide withers

c)

Muscular withers

d)

Blemished withers

14.

What does a Sway Back indicate?

a)

Strong topline

b)

Weak topline

c)

Flexible topline

d)

Muscular topline

15.

What is a Goose Rump?

a)

A muscular rump

b)

A rump that slopes sharply from croup to dock

c)

A rounded rump

d)

A level rump

16.

What does a Shallow Heartgirth restrict?

a)

Flexibility

b)

Capacity for heart and lungs

c)

Speed

d)

Agility

17.

What is the significance of being "Tied-in at the Knee"?

a)

Strong tendons

b)

Leg appears narrower at the base of the knee than at the fetlock

c)

Increased flexibility

d)

Reduced stress on the knee

18.

What does Knock Knees (carpus valgus) in horses refer to?

4 lines
19.

What is a possible consequence of Bench Knees?

a)

Decreased stress on splint bones

b)

Increased stress on the inside splint bones

c)

Improved knee flexibility

d)

Enhanced balance

20.

What are Sickle Hocks?

a)

Insufficient angulation of the hock joint

b)

Excessive angulation of the hock joint

c)

Hocks that lie outside parallel lines

d)

Hocks that are normal

21.

What are Cow Hocks?

a)

Hocks that are further apart than the fetlocks

b)

Hocks that are closer together than the fetlocks

c)

Hocks with insufficient angulation

d)

Hocks with excessive muscling

22.

What is the defect when the entire foreleg from the elbow down is too far under the body?

a)

Standing out

b)

Standing under

c)

Bucked knee

d)

Calf knee

23.

What is the term for when the pasterns are too long and sloping?

a)

Steep pasterns

b)

Weak pasterns

c)

Broken hoof/pastern angle

d)

Coon foot

24.

What is a Club Foot?

a)

A foot with a low heel

b)

An abnormally upright foot with a high heel and short toe

c)

A foot with a broken hoof/pastern angle

d)

A foot with a long toe

25.

What is meant by "Base-Narrow"?

a)

Legs are farther apart at the ground than at the top

b)

Legs are closer together at the ground than at the top

c)

Legs are normal

d)

Legs are bowed

26.

What is "Toe-Out" conformation also known as?

a)

Pigeon Toed

b)

Splay-Footed

c)

Base-Narrow

d)

Base-Wide

27.

36. "Winging Out" is also known as:

a)

Scapular Winging

b)

Shoulder Droop

c)

Elbow Lock

d)

Wrist Drop

28.

What is "Dishing" also known as?

a)

Paddling

b)

Winging In

c)

Rope Walking

d)

Interference

29.

What is "Rope Walking" also known as?

a)

Paddling

b)

Plaiting

c)

Winging In

d)

Interference

30.

What is Overreaching?

a)

The forefoot strikes the heel of the hind foot

b)

The hind foot strikes the heel of the forefoot

c)

The toe of the hind foot strikes the sole of the forefoot

d)

The toe of the forefoot strikes the coronet band of the hind foot

31.

What is Forging?

a)

The forefoot strikes the heel of the hind foot

b)

The hind foot strikes the heel of the forefoot

c)

The toe of the hind foot strikes the sole or shoe of the forefoot

32.

What is Scalping?

a)

The forefoot strikes the heel of the hind foot

b)

The hind foot strikes the heel of the forefoot

c)

The toe of the hind foot strikes the sole or shoe of the forefoot

d)

The toe of the forefoot strikes the coronet band of the hind foot

33.

What is the difference between an unsoundness and a blemish?

a)

An unsoundness affects appearance, a blemish affects usefulness

b)

A blemish affects appearance, an unsoundness affects usefulness

c)

They are the same thing

d)

A blemish is always curable

34.

Which of the following is an example of a blemish?

a)

Blindness

b)

Bone Spavin

c)

Healed wire cuts

d)

Navicular Syndrome

35.

What is Bog Spavin?

a)

A bony enlargement on the hock

b)

A soft swelling in the hock joint

c)

Inflammation of the front side of the cannon bone

d)

An infection of the withers

36.

What is Bone Spavin?

a)

A soft swelling in the hock joint

b)

A bony enlargement on the inside and front lower hock

c)

An enlargement of tendons behind the cannon

d)

Inflammation of the withers

37.

What is a Bowed Tendon?

a)

A bony enlargement on the hock

b)

A soft swelling in the hock joint

c)

An enlargement of any or all of the tendons and ligaments behind the cannon

d)

Inflammation of the front side of the cannon bone

38.

What are Bucked Shins?

a)

Enlargement of tendons behind the cannon

b)

Soft swelling at the point of the elbow

c)

Inflammation of the front side of the cannon bone

d)

Swelling at the point of the hock

39.

What is a Capped Elbow (Shoe Boil)?

a)

Soft swelling at the point of the elbow

b)

Soft swelling at the point of the hock

c)

Enlargement of tendons behind the cannon

d)

Inflammation of the front side of the cannon bone

40.

What is a Capped Hock?

a)

Soft swelling at the point of the elbow

b)

Soft swelling at the point of the hock

41.

What is Founder (Laminitis)?

a)

Inflammation of the sensitive laminae of the foot

b)

Difficulty in forcing air out of the lungs

c)

A protrusion of an organ through the abdominal wall

d)

A hereditary condition where the lower jaw is longer

42.

What is Heaves/C.O.P.E.?

a)

Inflammation of the sensitive laminae of the foot

b)

Difficulty in forcing air out of the lungs

c)

A protrusion of an organ through the abdominal wall

d)

A hereditary condition where the lower jaw is longer

43.

What is Navicular Syndrome?

a)

A degeneration of the navicular bone

b)

A bony enlargement on the fetlock joint

c)

A hereditary condition where the lower jaw is longer

d)

Inflammation between the ears

44.

What are Osselets?

a)

A degeneration of the navicular bone

b)

A bony enlargement on the front side of the fetlock joint

c)

A hereditary condition where the lower jaw is longer

d)

Inflammation between the ears

45.

What is Parrot Mouth?

a)

A hereditary condition in which the lower jaw is longer than the upper jaw.

b)

A hereditary condition in which the lower jaw is shorter than the upper jaw.

c)

An inflamed area between the ears

d)

A swelling of the front of the knee

46.

What is Poll Evil?

a)

A hereditary condition where the lower jaw is shorter than the upper jaw

b)

A swelling of the front of the knee

c)

An inflamed area between the ears

d)

A deep crack in the area of the outside or inside quarter of the hoof

47.

What is Popped Knee (Water on the Knee)?

a)

A deep crack in the area of the outside or inside quarter of the hoof

b)

A swelling of the front of the knee

c)

A deep-seated inflammation of the hoof

d)

A bony enlargement on the pastern region

48.

What is Ringbone?

a)

A deep crack in the area of the outside or inside quarter of the hoof

b)

A deep-seated inflammation of the hoof

c)

Bony enlargement(s) on the pastern region

d)

A whistling or roaring sound when breathing

49.

What is Roaring?

a)

A deep crack in the hoof wall

b)

A swelling of the front of the knee

c)

A whistling or roaring sound when breathing

d)

An inflamed area between the ears

50.

What are Sidebone(s)?

a)

Surface or shallow cracks in the hoof wall

b)

Bony enlargement(s) above and to the rear of the hoof

c)

A bony enlargement on the inside of the front cannon bone

d)

A condition where the patella becomes displaced

51.

What is a Splint?

a)

A bony enlargement on the inside of the front cannon bone

b)

A condition where the patella becomes displaced

c)

An involuntary flexion of the hock

d)

A weak, hollow top line

52.

What is Stifled?

a)

An involuntary flexion of the hock

b)

A weak, hollow top line

c)

Atrophy of the shoulder muscles

d)

A condition where the patella becomes displaced and locks

53.

What is Stringhalt?

a)

An involuntary flexion of the hock causing an upward jerking motion

b)

A weak, hollow top line

c)

Atrophy of the shoulder muscles

d)

A puffy swelling in the hollow above the hock joint

54.

What is Thoroughpin?

a)

An infectious condition of the frog of the hoof

b)

A puffy swelling in the hollow above the hock joint

c)

Atrophy of the shoulder muscles

d)

A weak, hollow top line

55.

What is Thrush?

a)

An infectious condition of the frog of the hoof characterized by a black, foul-smelling discharge

b)

A puffy swelling in the hollow above the hock joint

c)

Atrophy of the shoulder muscles

d)

A weak, hollow top line

56.

What are Wind puffs (Windgalls)?

a)

Puffy, fluid-filled swellings at the fetlock joint

b)

A deep crack in the toe area of the hoof

c)

An infectious condition of the frog of the hoof

d)

A puffy swelling in the hollow above the hock joint

57.

What is Sweeny?

a)

Atrophy or shrinkage of the shoulder muscles

b)

An infectious condition of the frog of the hoof

c)

A puffy swelling in the hollow above the hock joint

d)

A deep crack in the toe area of the hoof

58.

Suprascapular nerve injury results in atrophy of which muscles?

a)

Biceps brachii and triceps brachii

b)

Supraspinatus and infraspinatus

c)

Pectoral and latissimus dorsi

d)

Gluteal and hamstring

59.

What is the most common cause of Sweeny in horses today?

a)

Poorly fitted harness collars

b)

Repeated trauma to the shoulder region

c)

Genetic predisposition

d)

Old age

60.

What clinical sign is often observed within 24 hours of a suprascapular nerve injury?

a)

Flexion of the carpus

b)

Pronounced lateral instability of the shoulder joint

c)

Stifling

d)

Head tilt

61.

How long after injury does muscle atrophy usually become apparent following suprascapular nerve damage?

a)

24 hours

b)

3-5 days

c)

10-14 days

d)

1 month

62.

What is the most common cause of primary inflammation of the intertubercular bursa (Bicipital bursitis)?

(a)  

63.

Where is the bicipital bursa located?

a)

Between the radius and ulna

b)

Between the bilobed tendon of the origin of biceps brachii muscle and the M-shaped tubercles at the cranioproximal aspect of the humerus

c)

On the plantar aspect of the hock

d)

Within the stifle joint

64.

What is a typical clinical sign of bicipital bursitis?

a)

Extended cranial phase of the stride

b)

Decreased height of the foot flight arc

c)

Increased carpal flexion

d)

Increased weight bearing on the affected limb

65.

How is bicipital bursitis typically diagnosed?

a)

By observing the horse at rest

b)

By palpating the shoulder region

c)

By shoulder radiograph and ultrasound examination

d)

By nerve blocks

66.

What is a common conservative treatment for bicipital bursitis?

a)

Immediate surgery

b)

Rest and NSAIDs

c)

Forced exercise

67.

What is purulent omarthritis?

a)

Inflammation of the intertubercular bursa

b)

Purulent inflammation of the shoulder joint

c)

Inflammation of the carpal joint

d)

Inflammation of the elbow bursa

68.

What is a common cause of purulent omarthritis in foals?

a)

Trauma from kicks or penetrating wounds

b)

Genetic predisposition

c)

Overexertion

d)

Poor nutrition

69.

What are the symptoms of purulent omarthritis?

a)

Normal gait

b)

Weight-bearing on the affected limb

c)

Fever and severe pain during joint manipulation

d)

Decreased body temperature

70.

What is a treatment for purulent omarthritis?

a)

Blistering of the shoulder

b)

Intra-articular and systemic injections of antibiotics

c)

Forced exercise

d)

Ignoring the condition

71.

What is chronic omarthritis?

a)

An acute bacterial infection of the shoulder joint

b)

A degenerative joint disease characterized by deterioration of cartilage and bone

c)

A parasitic infestation of the shoulder muscles

d)

A congenital deformity of the shoulder joint

72.

Which of the following can be an etiology of chronic omarthritis?

a)

Distortions and contusions to the shoulder

b)

Poor conformation

c)

Osteochondritis dissecans

d)

All of the above

73.

What is a characteristic symptom of chronic omarthritis?

a)

Chronic form of lameness

b)

Short stride on the affected limb

c)

Atrophy of shoulder muscles

d)

All of the above

74.

How is chronic omarthritis treated?

a)

Blistering of the shoulder

b)

Setons

c)

Local anesthetics

d)

All of the above

75.

What is Olecranon Bursitis also known as?

a)

Bog Spavin

b)

Bone Spavin

76.

What is the typical cause of olecranon bursitis?

a)

Genetic abnormality

b)

Trauma from contact of the horseshoe with the elbow

c)

Viral infection

d)

Parasitic infestation

77.

What is a typical clinical sign of olecranon bursitis?

a)

Lameness

b)

Fluid within the bursa

c)

Draining tracts

d)

All of the above

78.

How is olecranon bursitis diagnosed?

a)

By palpation

b)

By visual examination

c)

By ultrasonographic exam

d)

By nerve blocks

79.

How is olecranon bursitis treated?

a)

Drainage and injection with a corticosteroid

b)

Strict aseptic technique

c)

Surgical drainage

d)

All of the above

80.

What is radial paralysis?

a)

Inability to extend the elbow, carpus and digit

b)

Inability to flex the elbow, carpus and digit

c)

Inflammation of the carpal joint

d)

Degeneration of the navicular bone

81.

What is the most common cause of radial nerve paralysis?

a)

Genetics

b)

Trauma to the shoulder region

c)

Nutritional deficiency

d)

Viral infection

82.

What are the treatments for radial paralysis?

a)

Anti-inflammatory therapy

b)

Stall rest

c)

Application of bandage splint

d)

All of the above

83.

What is carpitis?

a)

Acute or chronic inflammation of the carpal joint

b)

Degeneration of the navicular bone

c)

Inflammation of the intertubercular bursa

d)

Atrophy of shoulder muscles

84.

Which type of horse is most prone to carpitis?

(a)  

85.

What are some causes of carpitis?

a)

Exercise-induced sprain of ligaments

b)

Poor conformation

c)

Incorrect alignment of the knees

d)

All of the above

86.

What are the symptoms of carpitis?

a)

Swelling of the knee joint

b)

Joint hot to the touch

c)

Lameness

d)

All of the above

87.

What is palmar deviation of the carpus also known as?

a)

Bucked knees

b)

Goat Knees

c)

Calf knees

d)

All of the above

88.

What is dorsal deviation of the carpus also known as?

a)

Bucked knees

b)

Knee-sprung

c)

Goat knees

d)

All of the above

89.

What is medial deviation of the carpus also known as?

a)

Knock knees

b)

Carpus valgus

c)

Knee-narrow conformation

d)

All of the above

90.

What is lateral deviation of the carpus also known as?

a)

Bowlegs

b)

Carpal varus

c)

Bandy-legged conformation

d)

All of the above

91.

What is bench knee conformation?

a)

Cannon bone is offset to the lateral side

b)

Cannon bone is offset to the medial side

c)

Knee is hyperextended

d)

Knee is contracted

92.

What is hygroma of the knee?

a)

Distension of subcutaneous bursa in front of the knee

b)

Distension of subcutaneous bursa behind the knee

c)

Inflammation of the carpal joint

d)

Degeneration of the navicular bone

93.

The causes of hygroma of the knee include:

a)

Repeated trauma or friction over the knee

b)

Bacterial infection of the joint

c)

Congenital bone deformity

d)

Viral infection

94.

What is the most common cause of hygroma of the knee?

a)

Genetics

b)

Trauma

c)

Infection

d)

Degeneration

95.

How is hygroma of the knee diagnosed?

a)

Clinical signs and symptoms

b)

Radiography

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

96.

What is a treatment for hygroma of the knee?

a)

Extirpation of hygroma of the knee

b)

Surgical drainage

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Forced exercise

97.

What is the name of the operation for blemished knee in equine?

a)

Cherry’s Operation

b)

Smith’s Operation

c)

Jones’ Operation

d)

Davis’ Operation

98.

Where is the site of Cherry's operation?

a)

Lateral surface of the knee

b)

Medial surface of the knee

c)

Anterior surface of the knee

99.

What is the carpus in a horse?

a)

The hock

b)

The stifle

c)

The knee

d)

The hip

100.

What are the types of fractures that can occur within the carpal joints?

a)

Osteochondral fragmentation

b)

Slab fracture

c)

Comminuted fracture

d)

All of the above