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Emergency CN Quiz for Revision

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient nearing end of life expresses the desire for a DNR order. Which ethical principle supports respecting their choice?

a)

Justice

b)

Autonomy

c)

Beneficence

d)

Non-maleficence

2.

In acute myocardial infarction, why is IV morphine administered as a first-line treatment?

a)

To reduce anxiety

b)

To relieve chest pain

c)

To increase oxygenation

d)

To increase cardiac workload

3.

Applying physical restraints without a doctor's order leads to ethical conflict because:

a)

It's a value-based decision

b)

Patient’s legal rights coexist with a health professional’s obligation.

c)

It occurs under stress

d)

It ignores patient autonomy

4.

A patient's heart rate drops during suctioning. What is the immediate nursing action?

a)

Reduce suction pressure

b)

Notify the physician

c)

Stop suction and provide oxygen

d)

Continue and observe

5.

Distended neck veins are commonly observed in which cardiovascular disorder?

a)

Myocarditis

b)

Heart failure

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

6.

A stroke patient arrives with slurred speech and left arm weakness. What should be done first?

a)

Identify risk factors

b)

Request urgent brain CT

c)

Call speech therapist

d)

Prepare for thrombolytics

7.

What physical assessment finding requires immediate action after a motor vehicle accident?

a)

Unequal pupils

b)

Irregular pulse

c)

Tracheal deviation

d)

Fever with vomiting

8.

What is the nurse's top concern before administering t-PA to an ischemic stroke patient?

a)

Past medical history

b)

Physical assessment

c)

Planned surgeries

d)

Time of symptom onset

9.

A patient with closed head injury should be monitored closely for what complication?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hyperthermia

c)

Cerebral edema

d)

Pulmonary edema

10.

After a motor vehicle crash, a patient has facial swelling and noisy breathing. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Administer oxygen and intubate

b)

Open airway and suction

c)

Start IV line

d)

Send for blood tests

11.

What is the priority intervention for a semi-conscious patient in diabetic ketoacidosis?

a)

Start insulin

b)

Insert Ryle's tube

c)

Prepare for intubation

d)

Begin fluid replacement

12.

A trauma patient with RR 10, weak pulse, and decreased capillary refill should be triaged under which color?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Black

d)

Yellow

13.

Which of the following triage categories has the highest priority for care?

a)

Brought-in-dead

b)

Major bone injury

c)

Spinal injury

d)

Head injury with airway obstruction

14.

After transfusion, a patient presents with fever and chills. What is the likely complication?

a)

Hypervolemic shock

b)

Fluid overload

c)

Septic transfusion reaction

d)

Hypovolemia

15.

What clinical sign most strongly indicates a hypovolemic state?

a)

Dark urine

b)

Low pulse rate

c)

High BP

d)

Dry mucous membranes

16.

An ECG with PR interval of 0.24s and regular P/QRS waves suggests:

a)

Sinus bradycardia

b)

Normal sinus rhythm

c)

Sick sinus syndrome

d)

1st-degree heart block

17.

The rhythm displayed on the monitor shows irregularly irregular intervals. What is it?

a)

Atrial flutter

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Sinus arrhythmia

d)

Sinus tachycardia

18.

A patient's ABG shows respiratory acidosis. What is the most likely cause?

a)

Severe pain

b)

Facial injury

c)

Emotional stress

d)

Airway obstruction

19.

Carotid massage can slow heart rate by stimulating which nerve?

a)

Phrenic nerve

b)

Vagus nerve

c)

Diaphragmatic nerve

d)

Trigeminal nerve

20.

Which ECG leads show ST elevation in inferior wall MI?

a)

V1-V2

b)

V4-V5

c)

II, III, aVF

d)

I, aVL, V6

21.

What drug is indicated for bradycardia on cardiac monitor?

a)

IV Atropine 1mg

b)

IV Adenosine 6mg

c)

IV Adrenaline 1mg

d)

IV Amiodarone 300mg

22.

Which patient should be triaged as green in mass casualty?

a)

Head injury

b)

Open fracture

c)

Chest pain

d)

Walking wounded

23.

Which of the following defines first-degree heart block?

a)

PR interval >0.20s with consistent P-QRS

b)

Irregular P waves

c)

Wide QRS

d)

Absent P waves

24.

In ethical decision-making, what does autonomy emphasize?

a)

Patient independence

b)

Equality

c)

Safety

d)

Provider opinion

25.

Which condition causes high fever, altered sensorium, and dry skin?

a)

Heat exhaustion

b)

Heat stroke

c)

Hypovolemia

d)

Sepsis

26.

For a patient with altered breathing and blunt trauma, what is the priority?

a)

Send for X-ray

b)

Establish airway

c)

Pain relief

d)

Fluid bolus

27.

How is stroke type confirmed upon arrival to ED?

a)

Glucose test

b)

CT scan

c)

MRI

d)

History taking

28.

What medication reverses severe anaphylaxis symptoms?

a)

Hydrocortisone

b)

Adrenaline

c)

Salbutamol

d)

IV fluids

29.

Seizure control during status epilepticus requires:

a)

Midazolam or Lorazepam

b)

Oxygen only

c)

Restraints

d)

Bed rest

30.

What's the first step in CPR when patient collapses?

a)

Call for help

b)

Start compressions

c)

Give oxygen

d)

Check BP

31.

A patient diagnosed with sepsis presents with hypotension and confusion. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

a)

Initiate fluid resuscitation

b)

Obtain arterial blood gases

c)

Notify next of kin

d)

Document intake and output

32.

An elderly patient presents with sudden onset of slurred speech and facial drooping. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

a)

Perform FAST assessment and notify stroke team

b)

Reassure and recheck symptoms after 30 minutes

c)

Administer aspirin immediately

d)

Call the speech therapist

33.

Following a witnessed seizure, the patient is unresponsive but breathing. What should the nurse do next?

a)

Place patient in lateral position and ensure safety

b)

Insert oral airway

c)

Initiate seizure protocol

d)

Administer IV dextrose

34.

A trauma patient arrives with paradoxical chest movement and shortness of breath. What is the nurse's initial priority?

a)

Administer high-flow oxygen

b)

Immobilize cervical spine

c)

Apply cardiac monitor

d)

Draw arterial blood gas sample

35.

The nurse observes a sudden drop in oxygen saturation in a ventilated patient. What should be done first?

a)

Check for kinks or disconnection in the ventilator tubing

b)

Increase ventilator rate

c)

Suction the patient

d)

Notify respiratory therapist

36.

In a suspected stroke patient, why is recording the exact time of onset critical?

a)

It determines eligibility for thrombolytic therapy

b)

It allows for family notification

c)

It helps calculate Glasgow Coma Scale

d)

It guides post-stroke rehab

37.

A patient with a snake bite shows swelling and ptosis. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

a)

Keep limb immobilized and prepare for antivenom

b)

Apply ice to bite area

c)

Suction the wound

d)

Elevate the limb above heart level

38.

The nurse receives ABG results of pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 55. What condition does this indicate?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Respiratory alkalosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

39.

A patient develops generalized tonic-clonic seizure. What should the nurse do during the seizure?

a)

Protect the patient from injury and do not restrain

b)

Insert an oral airway

c)

Give IM midazolam immediately

d)

Start CPR

40.

A patient receiving SIMV ventilator mode becomes anxious. What should the nurse assess first?

a)

Synchrony with ventilator and airway patency

b)

IV line patency

c)

Urine output

d)

Pupil reaction

41.

During CPR, what is the correct depth for chest compressions in an adult?

a)

At least 2 inches (5 cm)

b)

1 inch (2.5 cm)

c)

3 inches (7.5 cm)

d)

As deep as possible

42.

A patient with suspected femur fracture is bleeding profusely. What is the priority action?

a)

Apply direct pressure to bleeding site

b)

Insert Foley catheter

c)

Request full blood count

d)

Elevate the injured leg

43.

What is the antidote for severe anaphylactic reaction?

a)

Intramuscular epinephrine

b)

IV hydrocortisone

c)

Oral antihistamines

d)

Nebulized salbutamol

44.

What is the role of the nurse in a mass casualty incident?

a)

Perform triage and assign priority

b)

Document all patient names

c)

Assist in ambulance arrival

d)

Call all family members

45.

A patient with head injury has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 6. What is the nurse's priority?

a)

Prepare for airway protection/intubation

b)

Insert IV line

c)

Monitor pupil response

d)

Perform full neurological exam

46.

A patient stung by a wasp develops swelling of lips and wheezing. What is the nurse's action?

a)

Administer IM epinephrine and provide oxygen

b)

Apply cold compress

c)

Give oral analgesic

d)

Keep the patient NPO

47.

What clinical sign is most concerning in heat stroke?

a)

Confusion and absence of sweating

b)

Skin redness

c)

Mild headache

d)

Fatigue

48.

A diabetic patient presents with fruity breath and deep breathing. What does this indicate?

a)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Renal failure

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

49.

During triage in the emergency department, which patient should be assigned the black/white tag in a mass casualty situation?

a)

  • Patient with open femur fracture

b)

  • Patient with minor abrasions

c)

  • Patient in cardiac arrest, unresponsive, and apneic

d)

  • Patient with shortness of breath and chest pain

50.

A patient presents with sudden chest pain and shortness of breath. The ECG shows ST elevation in V1–V4. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

  • Inferior myocardial infarction

b)

  • Anterior myocardial infarction

c)

  • Lateral myocardial infarction

d)

  • Posterior myocardial infarction

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