wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

MEDL 279 Fundamentals Review

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

CLIA '88 governs how work is done in the _________

a)

clinical laboratory

b)

operating room

c)

pharmacy

d)

radiology department

2.

What was the goal of the CLIA '88 amendments?

a)

To reduce laboratory staff

b)

To ensure laboratory results are of high quality regardless of where testing is performed

c)

To increase laboratory costs

d)

To eliminate laboratory testing

3.

Waived testing is defined as:

a)

Testing that is cleared by the FDA as 'home use', using simple methodologies

b)

Testing that requires proficiency standards

c)

Testing that is only performed in hospitals

d)

Testing that is not regulated

4.

Moderately Complex & High Complex testing requires ________ standards, as well as personnel standards required to meet each year for certification.

a)

proficiency

b)

equipment

c)

facility

d)

safety

5.

Which accrediting body is responsible for the Commission on Office Laboratory Accreditation?

a)

CAP

b)

COLA

c)

TJC

d)

HIPPA

6.

The College of American Pathologists (CAP) also supplies ________ testing.

a)

proficiency

b)

diagnostic

c)

forensic

d)

genetic

7.

The Joint Commission (TJC) accredits various laboratories including ________ laboratories.

a)

free standing

b)

mobile

c)

virtual

d)

temporary

8.

When a clinical laboratory does not perform a certain complex test, it may be sent to a ________ laboratory for testing.

a)

reference

b)

primary

c)

research

d)

teaching

9.

Points of interest when sending tests to reference laboratories include:

a)

Cost and TAT

b)

Location and staff

c)

Equipment and supplies

d)

None of the above

10.

HIPPA stands for ________.

a)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

b)

Health Information Privacy and Protection Act

c)

Hospital Insurance and Patient Protection Act

d)

Health Information Portability and Privacy Act

11.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) was enacted in ________.

a)

1996

b)

2001

c)

1989

d)

2010

12.

Certain specimens require legal chains of custody, such as ________.

a)

drug screens

b)

blood glucose tests

c)

cholesterol panels

d)

electrolyte measurements

13.

What must be confirmed and documented for evidence to be admissible in a laboratory setting?

a)

Chain of custody

b)

Patient identification

c)

Testing process

d)

Communication of test results

14.

Which of the following is a preanalytical step in mitigating risk?

a)

Testing process

b)

Patient identification

c)

Verifying results

d)

Communication of test results

15.

Fill in the blank: The analytical phase in mitigating risk includes the ________ and verifying results.

a)

Testing process

b)

Budgeting process

c)

Hiring process

d)

Marketing process

16.

Which organization is responsible for governing working conditions in laboratory safety?

a)

CDC

b)

OSHA

c)

WHO

d)

FDA

17.

The Centers for Disease Control (CDC) provides guidelines to protect personnel from what in the clinical laboratory?

a)

Potential hazards

b)

Patient confidentiality

c)

Data entry errors

d)

Equipment malfunctions

18.

Which category of bioterrorism agents can be easily transmitted from person to person?

a)

Cat A

b)

Cat B

c)

Cat C

d)

Cat D

19.

Which of the following is NOT a Cat A bioterrorism agent?

a)

A) Anthrax

b)

B) Plague

c)

C) Smallpox

d)

D) Brucellosis

20.

Brucellosis and 0157H7 E. coli are examples of which category of bioterrorism agents?

a)

Cat B

b)

Cat A

c)

Cat C

d)

Cat D

21.

Which bloodborne pathogens are listed in the document?

a)

HIV, HBV, HCV

b)

Influenza, Measles, Mumps

c)

Tuberculosis, Malaria, Dengue

d)

Ebola, Zika, Rabies

22.

According to CDC guidelines, all human blood and other body fluids are treated as potentially infectious for which of the following?

a)

A) HIV, HBV, and other bloodborne microorganisms

b)

B) Only HIV

c)

C) Only HBV

d)

D) None of the above

23.

Which of the following is NOT considered Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)?

a)

Gloves

b)

Stethoscope

c)

Uniforms (scrubs)

d)

Face shield

e)

Lab coat

24.

List any two items that are considered Personal Protective Equipment (PPE).

a)

Gloves, Face shield

b)

Stethoscope, Pen

c)

Notebook, ID card

d)

Shoes, Watch

25.

Handwashing should be performed before and after patient contact.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Handwashing should be performed after removing gloves.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Disinfection is a process that eliminates many or all pathogenic microorganisms, except _______ on inanimate objects.

a)

bacterial spores

b)

viruses

c)

fungi

d)

protozoa

28.

Which of the following is most commonly used for disinfection?

a)

Alcohol

b)

Hypochlorite solutions

c)

Soap

d)

Water

29.

Which of the following is NOT a rule for Sharps Safety?

a)

Use a red plastic puncture resistant container

b)

Overfill the container

c)

Never re-cap a needle

d)

Dispose of by an approved disposal company

30.

Red Biohazard Trash should contain which of the following?

a)

Sharps

b)

Blood Tubes

c)

Visibly bloody cloth or gloves

d)

Both B and C

31.

Which of the following vaccinations are hospital requirements?

a)

Hep B, Flu, MMR

b)

Hep A, Typhoid

c)

Only Hep B

d)

Only MMR

32.

What is Postexposure Prophylaxis (PEP)?

a)

Disease treatment before disease has been confirmed

b)

A vaccine given after full recovery

c)

A diagnostic test for infections

d)

A type of surgical intervention

33.

What is the most common BSL level used in the clinical laboratory?

a)

BSL level 2

b)

BSL level 1

c)

BSL level 3

d)

BSL level 4

34.

Which of the following is used for processing biological hazardous specimens for culture or other tests?

a)

Biosafety Cabinets

b)

Fume Hood

c)

Incubator

d)

Refrigerator

35.

Which chemical causes chemical burns?

a)

Acids

b)

Ethers

c)

Phenol

d)

Sodium chloride

36.

Sodium hydroxide causes ______ burns.

a)

Caustic

b)

Thermal

c)

Radiation

d)

Friction

37.

Phenol causes caustic burns and ______.

a)

contact dermatitis

b)

eczema

c)

urticaria

d)

psoriasis

38.

Ethers cause depression of the ______.

a)

CNS

b)

liver

c)

kidneys

d)

heart

39.

Which of the following is a laboratory electrical hazard?

a)

Broken cords

b)

Acids

c)

Flammable liquids

d)

Powdered metal

40.

Class B fire includes which of the following?

a)

Ordinary combustibles

b)

Flammable liquids & gases

c)

Electrical

d)

Powdered metal

41.

Which class of fire cannot be extinguished?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class D

d)

Class E

42.

What does PASS stand for in fire safety?

a)

Pull, Aim, Squeeze, and Sweep

b)

Push, Alert, Stop, and Secure

c)

Press, Act, Shout, and Save

d)

Pull, Alert, Squeeze, and Spray

43.

What is the most common type of fire extinguisher in the laboratory?

a)

Red ABC extinguisher

b)

Blue CO2 extinguisher

c)

Yellow Wet Chemical extinguisher

d)

Black Water extinguisher

44.

Proficiency testing is performed routinely in the laboratory to maintain ______ and integrity of patient results.

a)

quality

b)

quantity

c)

velocity

d)

temperature

45.

Delta checks are a means of monitoring patient data by comparing to ______ result of the same test.

a)

recent previous

b)

average

c)

random

d)

first

46.

Levey Jennings QC plots allow for visualization of QC data over a period of ______.

a)

time

b)

distance

c)

volume

d)

temperature

47.

Dispersion is an increase in the frequency of both high & low minimally ______ values.

a)

acceptable

b)

random

c)

erroneous

d)

negative

48.

Trends are values for at least ______ days on one side of the average.

a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

d)

10

49.

What is the definition of 'Shift' in laboratory quality control?

a)

Abrupt shift or change from the established average for 3 days in a row

b)

Gradual increase or decrease in values over a period of time

c)

Random error occurring sporadically in test results

d)

Consistent results within the acceptable range

50.

What does Standard Deviation measure in a test?

a)

The precision of a test, measurement of spread

b)

The average score of a test

c)

The number of questions in a test

d)

The time taken to complete a test

51.

Which of the following are measures of central tendency?

a)

Mean, Median, Mode

b)

Accuracy, Precision

c)

Sensitivity, Specificity

d)

Shift, Range

52.

Accuracy is defined as:

a)

Agreement between repeated measurements

b)

Closeness of a result to the true actual value

c)

Proportion of cases with a positive test result

d)

Measurement of spread

53.

Precision is the agreement between repeated measurements.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Sensitivity is the proportion of cases having a specific disease or condition that gives a positive test result.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Specificity is the proportion of cases with absence of a specific disease or condition that gives a negative result.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

List the three sources of error in laboratory testing.

a)

Preanalytical, Analytical, Postanalytical

b)

Qualitative, Quantitative, Subjective

c)

Instrumental, Environmental, Human

d)

Primary, Secondary, Tertiary

57.

According to Westgard Rules, what does (1_2s) indicate?

a)

1 point outside 2 SD

b)

2 points outside 3 SD

c)

1 point outside 1 SD

d)

2 points outside 1 SD

58.

According to Westgard Rules, if 1 point is outside 2 SD, then reject when:

a)

1 point is outside 3 SD

b)

2 consecutive points are outside 2 SD on same side of the center line

c)

Range of 2 points is greater than 4 SD

d)

All of the above

59.

What is a potential error in phlebotomy related to patient identification?

a)

Misidentified patient

b)

Incorrect tube labeling

c)

Improper needle disposal

d)

Failure to wear gloves

60.

Which of the following is NOT a potential error in phlebotomy?

a)

Misidentified patient

b)

Collection of wrong blood tubes

c)

Properly coordinated with medication

d)

Inadequate filling of blood tubes

61.

Whole blood is used in hematology and certain specialized chemistry tests such as:

a)

A) A, C

b)

B) B, D

c)

C) E, F

d)

D) G, H

62.

Which color top tubes are used for whole blood collection?

a)

Purple, Lavender, Pink top tubes (EDTA)

b)

Red top tubes (No additive)

c)

Blue top tubes (Citrate)

d)

Green top tubes (Heparin)

63.

Serum is the liquid portion minus clotting factors.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Serum is used in:

a)

Chemistry

b)

Immunology

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

65.

What is the liquid portion including clotting factors called?

a)

Plasma

b)

Serum

c)

Lymph

d)

Interstitial fluid

66.

Which color tube is used for plasma collection?

a)

Gold

b)

Red

c)

Green or mint

d)

Blue

67.

What is the correct order of draw for blood collection?

a)

Blood Cultures, Light Blue, Gold/Red, Green, Lavender, Gray

b)

Light Blue, Blood Cultures, Gold/Red, Green, Lavender, Gray

c)

Gold/Red, Blood Cultures, Light Blue, Green, Lavender, Gray

d)

Blood Cultures, Gold/Red, Light Blue, Green, Lavender, Gray

68.

To avoid hemolyzed specimens, what is important during specimen collection?

a)

Proper use of the tourniquet

b)

Shaking the tube vigorously

c)

Using a dirty needle

d)

Delaying transport of the specimen

69.

What color is the serum in an icteric specimen due to the presence of bilirubin?

a)

Yellow

b)

Red

c)

Green

d)

Blue

70.

What does a lipemic specimen look like?

a)

Milky white plasma or serum due to increased lipid or fat content

b)

Clear and colorless plasma or serum

c)

Bright yellow plasma or serum due to high bilirubin

d)

Reddish plasma or serum due to hemolysis

71.

What should you do to familiarize yourself with the microscope?

a)

Familiarize yourself with the different parts of the microscope

b)

Only look through the eyepiece without touching anything else

c)

Turn all the knobs randomly to see what happens

d)

Use the microscope without reading the manual first

e)

Ignore the instructions and start using it immediately

72.

Which glassware is used for general mixing and reagent preparation?

a)

Beaker

b)

Erlenmeyer Flask

c)

Volumetric Flask

d)

Graduated Cylinder

73.

What is an Erlenmeyer Flask used for?

a)

General reagent preparation

b)

Measuring exact volumes

c)

Grinding solids

d)

Heating substances directly over a flame

74.

Which laboratory glassware is calibrated 'to contain' and used in prepping specific volumes?

a)

Beaker

b)

Erlenmeyer Flask

c)

Volumetric Flask

d)

Graduated Cylinder

75.

Graduated Cylinders are used when a high degree of accuracy is not essential.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

What is the function of an analytical balance in the laboratory?

a)

Used for precise weight measurements for reagent preparation

b)

Used for heating substances

c)

Used for measuring liquid volumes

d)

Used for separating mixtures

77.

What is the solid material at the bottom of the tube after centrifugation called?

a)

Precipitate

b)

Filtrate

c)

Supernatant

d)

Solvent

78.

What is the liquid or top portion after centrifugation called?

a)

Supernatant

b)

Pellet

c)

Residue

d)

Sediment

79.

Ultra-centrifuges are capable of ______ RPM.

a)

90-100k

b)

1-2k

c)

10-15k

d)

30-40k

80.

Which type of reagent water is the most pure and should be used for procedures requiring the greatest purity (standards)?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

81.

Type II reagent water is most used in which lab?

a)

Physics lab

b)

Clinical lab

c)

Computer lab

82.

Type III reagent water is used in ______ and rinsing of lab glassware.

a)

washing

b)

drinking

c)

heating

d)

measuring

83.

Which of the following is NOT a QC check for water purity?

a)

Purity

b)

Resistivity

c)

Temperature

d)

pH

84.

Osmolality is defined as the number of osmoles of solute per ______ of solvent.

a)

kilogram

b)

liter

c)

milliliter

d)

gram

85.

Osmolarity is defined as the number of osmoles of solute per ______ of solution.

a)

liter

b)

gram

c)

mole

d)

milliliter

86.

The formula V1 x C1 = V2 x C2 is used to calculate the ______ of a solution.

a)

concentration

b)

temperature

c)

pressure

d)

volume

87.

Dilution factor is used to correct for having used a ______ sample in determination rather than an undiluted sample.

a)

diluted

b)

concentrated

c)

solid

d)

pure

88.

Single dilutions are calculated as ______ volume/total volume.

a)

sample

b)

water

c)

solute

d)

buffer

89.

In serial dilutions, the titer would be the ______ visible reaction.

a)

last

b)

first

c)

strongest

d)

weakest

90.

Which of the following is a CLIA waived laboratory test ?

a)

Papanicolaou (pap) test

b)

blood typing and crossmatching

c)

Bacterial PCR testing

d)

human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) test

Similar Resources on Wayground

BISC 110 Final Review

86 questions

BISC 110 Final Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

SESI 2 SOAL UKOM 6

90 questions

SESI 2 SOAL UKOM 6

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Nutrition

93 questions

Nutrition

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Anatomy Final (part 1)

92 questions

Anatomy Final (part 1)

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

DHE125 Final Practicum

90 questions

DHE125 Final Practicum

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Unit 2 Review

86 questions

Unit 2 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

7th Grade - University

Anatomy and Physiology (PART 7)

87 questions

Anatomy and Physiology (PART 7)

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

APES Unit 1 Review - The Living World: Ecosystem

93 questions

APES Unit 1 Review - The Living World: Ecosystem

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade - University