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Chapter 18 Study Guide

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the Blood Pressure Classification table, what is the systolic and diastolic range for Hypertension Stage 1?

a)

Less than 120 and less than 80

b)

120–129 and less than 90

c)

130–139 or 80–89

d)

Higher than 180 and/or higher than 120

2.

Fill in the blank: The treatment for Elevated blood pressure includes nonpharmacologic interventions such as modifying diet, increasing exercise, losing weight, and _________?

a)

stop smoking

b)

increase salt intake

c)

reduce water consumption

d)

skip breakfast

3.

Which classification requires identification of etiology for correct treatment according to the Blood Pressure Classification table?

a)

Normal BP

b)

Hypertensive emergency

c)

Hypertension Stage 1

d)

Hypertension Stage 2

4.

What is the primary cause of Primary Hypertension?

a)

No identifiable cause; related to genetics and environment.

b)

High salt intake only.

c)

Chronic kidney disease.

d)

Excessive alcohol consumption.

5.

Secondary Hypertension is caused by which of the following?

a)

Genetics and environment

b)

Conditions (renal, endocrine, vascular) or substances (NSAIDs, MAOIs, hormones, nicotine)

c)

High sodium diet

d)

Family history

6.

Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for hypertension?

a)

Obesity

b)

Diet

c)

Age

d)

Smoking

7.

Non-Hispanic Blacks have the highest incidence of hypertension.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Fill in the blank: BP = ________ × Systemic Vascular Resistance.

a)

Cardiac Output

b)

Stroke Volume

c)

Heart Rate

d)

Blood Volume

9.

Which system's overactivity contributes to increased blood pressure in hypertension?

a)

Digestive system

b)

Sympathetic nervous system and renin-angiotensin system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

Muscular system

10.

Which of the following is an early clinical manifestation of hypertension?

a)

Headache

b)

Often asymptomatic ("silent killer")

c)

Chest pain

d)

Blurred vision

11.

Which organs are commonly affected by target organ damage in hypertension?

a)

A) Kidneys, brain, heart, eyes

b)

B) Liver, pancreas, stomach, intestines

c)

C) Lungs, skin, bones, muscles

d)

D) Thyroid, spleen, gallbladder, bladder

12.

Fill in the blank: Late clinical manifestations of hypertension include headache, dizziness, ________, chest pain, and fatigue.

a)

blurred vision

b)

hearing loss

c)

nausea

d)

rash

13.

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic method for hypertension?

a)

BP readings (office + home or ambulatory)

b)

Eye exam for retinal damage

c)

ECG, echocardiogram, stress tests for heart damage

d)

Blood glucose test

14.

What is the target blood pressure (BP) for treatment goals in hypertension?

a)

≤ 130/80 mm Hg

b)

≤ 140/90 mm Hg

c)

≤ 120/70 mm Hg

d)

≤ 150/95 mm Hg

15.

Which lifestyle modification is recommended for managing hypertension?

a)

High sodium diet

b)

DASH diet

c)

Sedentary lifestyle

d)

Increased alcohol intake

16.

Which of the following is a class of medication used to treat hypertension?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Diuretics

c)

Antivirals

d)

Antifungals

17.

Assessment in nursing management of hypertension includes identifying risk factors and monitoring BP in how many positions?

a)

3 positions (supine, sitting, standing)

b)

2 positions (sitting, standing)

c)

4 positions (supine, sitting, standing, prone)

d)

1 position (sitting only)

18.

What is the emergency blood pressure value for a hypertensive crisis with organ damage?

a)

BP >180/120

b)

BP <120/80

c)

BP 140/90

d)

BP 160/100

19.

Which of the following is a long-term complication of hypertension?

a)

Stroke

b)

Diabetes

c)

Asthma

d)

Appendicitis

20.

Arteriosclerosis is defined as the ________ of arteries with aging.

a)

hardening/thickening

b)

narrowing/weakening

c)

dilation/softening

d)

blockage/rupture

21.

Atherosclerosis involves plaque buildup inside arteries.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for atherosclerosis?

a)

Diabetes

b)

High BP

c)

High cholesterol

d)

Low calcium

23.

Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD) commonly affects which of the following areas?

a)

Heart

b)

Brain

c)

Arms, legs, abdomen

d)

Lungs

24.

Narrowing or obstruction in Peripheral Vascular Disease leads to ________ function.

a)

decreased

b)

increased

c)

normal

d)

enhanced

25.

Consequences of Peripheral Vascular Disease include claudication, ulcers, and ________.

a)

gangrene

b)

hypertension

c)

asthma

d)

jaundice

26.

What should patients do to reduce the risk of orthostatic hypotension?

a)

Rise slowly

b)

Drink less water

c)

Exercise vigorously immediately after standing

d)

Skip meals

27.

Patient Teaching & Safety: True or False: Patients should avoid OTC meds without provider approval.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

What is recommended for annual screening to promote vascular health?

a)

Annual BP screening

b)

Annual vision screening

c)

Annual dental screening

d)

Annual hearing screening

29.

Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD) Overview: Which of the following is an arterial cause of peripheral vascular problems?

a)

A) Venous thrombosis

b)

B) Embolus

c)

C) Thrombophlebitis

d)

D) Defective valves in veins

30.

Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD) Overview: Which of the following is a venous cause of peripheral vascular problems?

a)

A) Aneurysms

b)

B) Trauma

c)

C) Venous thrombosis

d)

D) Embolus

31.

What two conditions should be managed to prevent peripheral vascular disease?

a)

Atherosclerosis and arteriosclerosis

b)

Diabetes and hypertension

c)

Asthma and bronchitis

d)

Osteoporosis and arthritis

32.

What is the most common cause of Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Atherosclerosis

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Vasoconstriction

33.

Nicotine causes ________, which leads to increased BP and reduced blood flow.

a)

vasoconstriction

b)

vasodilation

c)

bronchodilation

d)

hypotension

34.

Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD) can be acute due to ________.

a)

embolism

b)

atherosclerosis

c)

hypertension

d)

diabetes

35.

Common sites for PAD include ________ and ________.

a)

Leg arteries, carotid arteries

b)

Renal arteries, pulmonary veins

c)

Coronary arteries, jugular veins

d)

Brachial arteries, femoral veins

36.

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of PAD?

a)

Intermittent claudication

b)

Increased BP in affected limb

c)

Hair loss

d)

None of the above

37.

Decreased BP in affected limb in PAD is measured using ________.

a)

Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)

b)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

c)

Pulmonary Function Test (PFT)

d)

Echocardiogram

38.

Normal aging may cause which of the following?

a)

Hair loss

b)

Increased BP

c)

Decreased blood flow to extremities

d)

Ischemic changes

39.

What is the normal value for the Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) in the diagnosis of PAD?

a)

1.0

b)

0.5

c)

1.5

d)

0.7

40.

The Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) indicates equal systolic pressure at which sites?

a)

Ankle and brachial sites

b)

Wrist and brachial sites

c)

Ankle and carotid sites

d)

Brachial and femoral sites

41.

Which imaging studies are used in the diagnosis of PAD?

a)

Radiographic studies and Ultrasound Doppler

b)

Electrocardiogram and Spirometry

c)

Endoscopy and Colonoscopy

d)

EEG and EMG

42.

Which of the following is NOT a treatment goal for PAD?

a)

Increase blood flow

b)

Prevent clot formation

c)

Decrease tissue oxygenation

d)

Avoid amputation

43.

What is the purpose of exercise therapy in non-pharmacologic treatment of PAD?

a)

Walk to claudication, rest, repeat—goal is 45–60 min/day

b)

Increase dietary fiber intake to reduce cholesterol

c)

Apply heat packs to affected limbs daily

d)

Perform only upper body exercises to avoid leg pain

44.

Which dietary supplement is mentioned as supporting muscle recovery in PAD patients?

a)

L-Carnitine (especially propionylcarnitine)

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Glucosamine

d)

Fish oil

45.

Dry eschar should be left in place unless debrided by a professional.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which drug class does Aspirin belong to?

a)

Platelet inhibitors

b)

Antiplatelets

c)

Thrombolytics

d)

Cholesterol-lowering drugs

47.

What is the purpose of Clopidogrel (Plavix)?

a)

Prevent platelet aggregation

b)

Used with/without aspirin to reduce clot risk

c)

Dissolve existing clots in acute ischemia

d)

Improve walking distance, increase blood flow

48.

Fill in the blank: Pentoxifylline (Trental) and Cilostazol (Pletal) are used to ________ walking distance and ________ blood flow.

a)

improve; increase

b)

reduce; decrease

c)

limit; restrict

d)

worsen; lower

49.

Which of the following is a cholesterol-lowering drug?

a)

Alteplase (tPA)

b)

Atorvastatin (Lipitor)

c)

Clopidogrel (Plavix)

d)

Pentoxifylline (Trental)

50.

What is the main purpose of thrombolytics such as Alteplase (tPA) and Tenecteplase (TNKase)?

a)

Prevent platelet aggregation

b)

Dissolve existing clots in acute ischemia

c)

Lower LDL and increase HDL

d)

Improve walking distance

51.

Medications used for PAD, especially thrombolytics and antiplatelets, increase the risk of bleeding.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Which of the following should be reported immediately when using PAD medications?

a)

Unusual bruising

b)

Hematuria

c)

Bleeding after IV/needle stick

d)

All of the above

53.

PTA (Angioplasty) is a procedure where a ________ catheter opens the artery and may place a stent to prevent collapse.

a)

balloon

b)

laser

c)

suction

d)

rotary

54.

What does an atherectomy procedure do?

a)

Opens artery with a balloon

b)

Removes plaque using cutting/laser/abrasion

c)

Prevents platelet aggregation

d)

Dissolves clots in acute ischemia

55.

What is the purpose of an aortoiliac or femoropopliteal bypass?

a)

To remove blood clots

b)

To restore flow using a synthetic graft that bypasses occlusion

c)

To cure PAD

d)

To prevent infection

56.

Which of the following is NOT a surgical risk of aortoiliac or femoropopliteal bypass?

a)

Bleeding

b)

Graft failure

c)

Thrombosis

d)

Hypertension

57.

Post-op care for aortoiliac or femoropopliteal bypass includes monitoring _________

a)

distal pulses

b)

blood glucose levels

c)

lung sounds

d)

cranial nerve function

58.

PAD is chronic and not curable, but manageable.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

What is the main goal in managing PAD?

a)

Cure the disease

b)

Maintain perfusion and prevent tissue loss

c)

Increase blood pressure

d)

Reduce cholesterol only

60.

Surgery and intervention for PAD are ________, not curative.

a)

palliative

b)

preventive

c)

aggressive

d)

experimental

61.

What is the most modifiable risk factor for PAD?

a)

A) Age

b)

B) Smoking

c)

C) Gender

d)

D) Genetics

62.

During assessment for PAD, extremities should be checked every 4 hours for all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Warmth

b)

Paresthesia

c)

Pain

d)

Fever

63.

Which of the following is a nursing diagnosis for PAD?

a)

Altered tissue perfusion

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes

d)

Hyperthyroidism

64.

One of the goals in the care of PAD is to ________ pain.

a)

reduce

b)

increase

c)

ignore

d)

cause

65.

What are some recommended implementations for patients with aneurysms?

a)

Keep warm and avoid constrictive clothing

b)

Lower legs below heart unless edema is present

c)

Encourage daily walking/swimming

d)

Smoking cessation referral

e)

All of the above

66.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for aneurysms?

a)

A. Smoking

b)

B. Male gender

c)

C. Hypertension

d)

D. Female gender

67.

Fill in the blank: The most common etiology of aneurysms includes ________, hypertension, and genetic predisposition.

a)

atherosclerosis

b)

diabetes

c)

hyperthyroidism

d)

hypokalemia

68.

Aneurysms are often asymptomatic.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Which symptom is most associated with abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)?

a)

Substernal pressure

b)

Back pain and abdominal pulsation

c)

Breathing issues

d)

Sudden, excruciating pain

70.

Thoracic aneurysms may present with which of the following symptoms?

a)

Substernal/tracheal pressure

b)

Abdominal pulsation

c)

Renal dysfunction

d)

None of the above

71.

Fill in the blank: Dissection of an aneurysm is characterized by ________, excruciating pain, diminished pulses, and hypotensive shock.

a)

sudden

b)

gradual

c)

mild

d)

intermittent

72.

Which diagnostic tools are used for aneurysms?

a)

Ultrasound

b)

CT

c)

MRI

d)

X-ray

e)

All of the above

73.

What is the primary treatment for large or symptomatic aneurysms?

a)

Medication only

b)

Surgical repair (graft or stent)

c)

Physical therapy

d)

Observation only

74.

Fill in the blank: Nursing management for aneurysms includes assessing distal pulses and ________ function post-surgery.

a)

renal

b)

hepatic

c)

pulmonary

d)

neurological

75.

Which of the following is NOT part of nursing management for aneurysms?

a)

Assess for pulsation and family history

b)

Monitor for pain changes or shock symptoms

c)

Pre/post-op teaching

d)

Ignore changes in pulses

76.

What is the etiology of Thromboangiitis Obliterans (Buerger Disease)?

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Inflammatory occlusion, linked to smoking

c)

Genetic mutation

d)

Viral infection

77.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Thromboangiitis Obliterans (Buerger Disease)?

a)

Numbness

b)

Tingling

c)

Intense pain

d)

Fever

78.

Fill in the blank: The key treatment for Thromboangiitis Obliterans (Buerger Disease) is ________ cessation.

a)

smoking

b)

alcohol

c)

caffeine

d)

sugar

79.

Which of the following is a nursing role in managing Thromboangiitis Obliterans (Buerger Disease)?

a)

Education on smoking cessation

b)

Prescribing antibiotics

c)

Administering vaccines

d)

Physical therapy only

80.

Which of the following is a symptom of Raynaud Disease/Phenomenon?

a)

High fever

b)

Color changes: white → blue → red

c)

Persistent cough

d)

Joint swelling

81.

Fill in the blank: Treatment for Raynaud Disease/Phenomenon includes avoiding ______ and stress.

a)

cold

b)

heat

c)

light

d)

noise

82.

Which medication is used in the treatment of Raynaud Disease/Phenomenon?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Calcium channel blockers

c)

Insulin

d)

Antivirals

83.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Raynaud Disease/Phenomenon?

a)

Numbness

b)

Prickly sensation

c)

Decreased sensation

d)

High blood pressure

84.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?

a)

Immobility

b)

Surgery

c)

Dehydration

d)

Exercise

85.

Which symptoms are commonly associated with Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?

a)

A) Pain, swelling, warmth, redness

b)

B) Fever, cough, headache

c)

C) Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

d)

D) Rash, itching, sneezing

86.

Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) may be asymptomatic.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

What are the diagnostic methods for Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?

a)

Ultrasound, D-dimer

b)

ECG, Chest X-ray

c)

Liver function test, Urinalysis

d)

Spirometry, Peak flow measurement

88.

Which of the following is a recommended treatment for Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?

a)

Heparin drip and oral anticoagulants

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Insulin therapy

d)

Antihistamines

89.

List two nursing management steps for a patient with Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).

a)

Monitor leg size, warmth, color, pulses; Educate on medication use, leg elevation, fluid intake, smoking cessation; Monitor for pulmonary embolism.

b)

Encourage vigorous leg massage and early ambulation; Restrict fluid intake.

c)

Apply cold compresses to the affected leg; Advise complete bed rest for several weeks.

d)

Administer high doses of vitamin K; Avoid all forms of exercise.

90.

Which of the following should be avoided in the treatment of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?

a)

Early ambulation

b)

Compression stockings

c)

Prolonged sitting/standing

d)

Oral anticoagulants

91.

What should nurses monitor for as a sign of pulmonary embolism in patients with DVT?

a)

Dyspnea, chest pain, low SpO₂, anxiety

b)

Bradycardia, hypertension, blurred vision

c)

Abdominal pain, jaundice, pruritus

d)

Polyuria, polydipsia, weight gain

92.

Which lifestyle modifications should be taught to patients as part of nursing interventions for DVT?

a)

Teach warm dressing, stress management, avoid tobacco/caffeine

b)

Increase sugar intake

c)

Reduce water intake

d)

Encourage prolonged bed rest

93.

What are the symptoms of Carotid Artery Disease? (List any two)

a)

Bruit, vision loss, syncope, extremity weakness, stroke-like signs

b)

Fever, cough, chest pain, rash

c)

Abdominal pain, diarrhea, jaundice, weight gain

d)

Nasal congestion, sneezing, itchy eyes, sore throat

94.

What is the treatment for Carotid Artery Disease if stenosis is greater than 70%?

a)

Endarterectomy or stenting

b)

Aspirin only

c)

Lifestyle modification only

d)

Beta-blockers only

95.

What should be monitored for in post-op care of Carotid Artery Disease? (List any two)

a)

Monitor for bleeding, hoarseness, neuro changes; Watch for airway compromise

b)

Monitor for increased appetite and weight gain; Encourage early ambulation

c)

Monitor for skin rash and itching; Increase fluid intake

d)

Monitor for joint pain and muscle cramps; Restrict salt intake

96.

What is the etiology of Varicose Veins?

a)

Incompetent valves leading to blood pooling

b)

Excessive calcium deposition in veins

c)

Bacterial infection of the venous wall

d)

Congenital absence of arteries

97.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Varicose Veins?

a)

A) Aching

b)

B) Heaviness

c)

C) Twisted veins

d)

D) Fever

98.

Name two treatments for Varicose Veins.

a)

Compression stockings, elevate legs, avoid standing long, exercise (walking/swimming)

b)

Antibiotics and bed rest

c)

Chemotherapy and radiation

d)

High sugar diet and minimal movement

99.

Which of the following is a surgical option for Varicose Veins?

a)

Endarterectomy

b)

Sclerotherapy

c)

Stenting

d)

Blood transfusion

100.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of chronic venous insufficiency and venous stasis ulcers?

a)

Itching

b)

Brownish skin

c)

Ulcers

d)

Swelling

e)

High fever