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Fundamentals Final Exam Quiz 2 (Urinary Elimination)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a component of voiding?

a)

Bladder contraction

b)

Urethral sphincter relaxation

c)

Pelvic floor muscle relaxation

d)

Bladder relaxation

2.

Fill in the blank: Stretching of the ______ wall signals the micturition center in the sacral spinal cord.

a)

bladder

b)

urethral

c)

rectal

d)

intestinal

3.

SATA: Urinary elimination depends on the function of which organs?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Ureters

c)

Bladder

d)

Urethra

e)

Colon

4.

Which organ serves as a reservoir for urine until the urge to urinate develops?

a)

Bladder

b)

Liver

c)

Fallopian Tubes

d)

Kidney

5.

When BP falls, GFR falls, promoting retention of which substances?

a)

Sodium, chloride, and water

b)

Potassium, calcium, and phosphate

c)

Glucose, amino acids, and urea

d)

Bicarbonate, hydrogen ions, and creatinine

6.

Which hormone is secreted by the kidneys to regulate the production of red blood cells (RBCs)?

a)

Erythropoietin

b)

Insulin

c)

Thyroxine

d)

Cortisol

7.

The kidneys synthesize vitamin D into its active form, which is important for calcium absorption and parathyroid hormone regulation.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

What is the functional unit of the kidney that forms urine?

a)

Nephron

b)

Alveolus

c)

Neuron

d)

Osteon

9.

Which of the following is NOT a step of urine formation?

a)

A) Glomerular Filtration

b)

B) Tubular Reabsorption

c)

C) Tubular Secretion

d)

D) Renal Concentration

10.

List the three steps of urine formation in the correct order.

a)

1. Glomerular Filtration, 2. Tubular Reabsorption, 3. Tubular Secretion

b)
  1. 1. Glomerular Filtration, 2. Tubular Absorption, 3. Tubular Excretion

c)

1. Glomerular Reabsorption, 2. Tubular Secretion, 3. Renal Filtration

d)

1. Glomerular Filtration, 2. Tubular Secretion, 3. Tubular Reabsorption

11.

Identify factors that commonly influence urinary elimination.

a)

HR, BP, volume of fluid in circulation, hormones (RAAS, ADH)

b)

HR, Temp, volume of fluid in circulation, hormones (TSH, PP2)

c)

RR, BP, volume of fluid in circulation, hormones (RAAS, ATH)

d)

HR, BP, volume of fluid in circulation, hormones (RASS, ATP)

12.

What is the NORMAL amount of renal filtrate that SHOULD BE formed in 1 minute (GFR)?

a)

125 mL/min

b)

10 mL/min

c)

500 mL/min

d)

1 mL/min

13.

Increased blood flow to the kidneys increases GFR and urine output.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Approximately what percentage of renal filtrate is reabsorbed into plasma during tubular reabsorption?

a)

99%

b)

50%

c)

80%

d)

10%

15.

Drugs need to be in which form to leave the body through urine?

a)

Lipid soluble

b)

Water soluble

c)

Sodium soluble

d)

Woodford Reserve soluble

16.

What hormone regulates the osmolality of body fluids?

a)

antidiuretic hormone

b)

Insulin

c)

thyroid stimulating hormone

d)

growth hormone

e)

diuretic hormone

17.

Which of the following is an effect of ADH (antidiuretic hormone)?

a)

Causes renal cells to reabsorb water

b)

Increases urine volume

c)

Dilutes urine while concentrating blood

d)

Is secreted from the anterior pituitary gland

18.

ADH is secreted from which gland?

a)

Posterior pituitary gland

b)

Thyroid gland

c)

Adrenal gland

d)

Pancreas

e)

Anterior pituitary gland

19.

SATA: Which of the following CNS structures influence urination?

a)

Cerebral cortex

b)

Sacral spinal cord

c)

Thalamus

d)

Brainstem

e)

Hypothalamus

20.

Which of the following factors can influence urine output?

a)

Medications

b)

Alcohol

c)

Disease processes

d)

All of the above

21.

Which of the following is NOT a psychological factor that can influence urine output?

a)

A) Anxiety

b)

B) Stress

c)

C) Privacy

d)

D) Medications

22.

Define nocturia.

a)

Night increase in urination

b)

Daytime increase in urination

c)

Decrease in urination at night

d)

Complete absence of urination

23.

Define polyuria.

a)

Increase in urination

b)

Decrease in urination

c)

Blood in urine

d)

Painful urination

24.

Define oliguria.

a)

Decrease in urination

b)

Increase in urination

c)

Absence of urination

d)

Painful urination

25.

Define anuria.

a)

No urine output

b)

Excessive urine output

c)

Painful urination

d)

Presence of blood in urine

26.

What is urinary retention?

a)

Urinary retention is the accumulation of urine due to inability to empty bladder.

b)

Urinary retention is the excessive production of urine due to overactive kidneys.

c)

Urinary retention is the involuntary leakage of urine during physical activity.

d)

Urinary retention is the complete absence of urine formation in the kidneys.

27.

Compare & contrast common alterations in urinary elimination. What is urinary incontinence?

a)

Urinary incontinence is involuntary leakage or procedure.

b)

Urinary incontinence is the voluntary retention of urine.

c)

Urinary incontinence is the complete absence of urine production.

d)

Urinary incontinence is a surgical method to control urination.

28.

Compare & contrast common alterations in urinary elimination. What is a urinary tract infection and why are females more susceptible?

a)

Urinary tract infection results from catheterization or procedure. Females are more susceptible due to shorter urethra and proximity to anus.

b)

Urinary tract infection is caused by dehydration. Females are more susceptible due to higher fluid intake.

c)

Urinary tract infection is a genetic disorder. Females are more susceptible due to hormonal changes.

d)

Urinary tract infection is usually caused by kidney stones. Females are more susceptible due to increased physical activity.

e)

Urinary tract infection results from catheterization or procedure. Females are more susceptible due to the patriarchy.

29.

Compare & contrast common alterations in urinary elimination. What is urinary diversion?

a)

Urinary diversion is the diversion of urine to external source.

b)

Urinary diversion is the process of filtering blood in the kidneys.

c)

Urinary diversion is the surgical removal of the bladder.

d)

Urinary diversion is the use of medication to increase urine output.

30.

A history of hypertension and/or diabetes mellitus is a vital piece of information when obtaining a medical history on a patient suffering from urinary dysfunction.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

When obtaining nursing history for a patient with urinary elimination problems, which of the following should be assessed?

a)

Presence of edema, shortness of breath, or weight gain

b)

Presence of fever and cough

c)

History of recent fractures

d)

Presence of skin rashes

32.

What is the normal bladder capacity in adults?

a)

600-1000mL

b)

100-200mL

c)

2000-3000mL

d)

50-100mL

33.

What is the normal urine output for adults over 24 hours?

a)

1500-1600 mL

b)

500-700 mL

c)

2500-3000 mL

d)

300-400 mL

34.

Urine output less than ___ mL per hour is a danger sign.

a)

30

b)

50

c)

10

d)

100

35.

Which of the following is NOT a type of urinary incontinence?

a)

Obstructive

b)

Reflex

c)

Functional

d)

Digestive

e)

Overflow

36.

Which of the following is related to confusion and decreased mobility?

a)

Functional incontinence

b)

Reflex incontinence

c)

Overflow incontinence

d)

Stress incontinence

37.

When obtaining urine samples from patients with Foley catheters, from where should you draw the sample?

a)

From the port near Statlock

b)

From the drainage bag

c)

From the tubing below the bag

d)

From the catheter insertion site

38.

It is acceptable to use old or contaminated urine for specimens.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

What is reflex incontinence caused by?

a)

Damage to the spinal cord above sacral region

b)

Blockage such as prostate enlargement

c)

Overly full bladder

d)

Sudden leakage of urine with activities

40.

Obstructive incontinence is caused by a blockage such as _________.

a)

prostate enlargement

b)

renal bronchioles

c)

overactive bladder muscles

d)

dehydration

41.

Hyperreflexia is life threatening and affects HR and BP. It is usually caused by:

a)

Overly full bladder

b)

Sudden leakage of urine

c)

Menopause

d)

E. coli infection

42.

Overflow incontinence occurs when bladder is overly full and bladder pressure exceeds ______ pressure.

a)

bladder

b)

sphincter

c)

rectal

d)

renal

e)

blood

43.

Stress incontinence is usually triggered by:

a)

A) Activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure

b)

B) Blockage in the urinary tract

c)

C) Overly full bladder

d)

D) Continuous loss of urine

44.

Urge incontinence is defined as involuntary passage of urine occurring soon after a strong sense of ________ to void.

a)

urgency

b)

relief

c)

pain

d)

fullness

45.

Total incontinence is characterized by:

a)

Continuous and unpredictable loss of urine

b)

Occasional leakage of urine with activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure

c)

Overly full bladder

d)

Blockage in the urinary tract

46.

What bacteria is the most common cause of UTIs?

a)

E. coli

b)

Staphylococcus

c)

Indwelling catheter

d)

Menopause

e)

Streptococcus

47.

80% of UTIs are the result of ________ catheter use.

a)

indwelling

b)

external

c)

intermittent

d)

short-term

e)

purewick

48.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of UTI?

a)

Weight loss

b)

Chills

c)

Pain

d)

Fever

e)

Burning

49.

What does a urine culture determine?

a)

A urine culture determines the NUMBER of bacteria present as well as IDENTIFIES the organism causing infection.

b)

A urine culture determines the SIZE of bacteria present as well as IDENTIFIES the organism causing infection.

c)

A urine culture determines the NUMBER of bacteria present as well as LOCATES the organism causing infection.

d)

A urine culture determines the NUMBER of WBCs present as well as IDENTIFIES the bad boy causing infection.

50.

What does sensitivity testing in urine culture determine?

a)

Sensitivity testing determines which antibiotic will be most effective.

b)

Sensitivity testing determines the number of bacteria and the type of infectious organism present.

c)

Sensitivity testing determines which probiotic will be most effective.

d)

Sensitivity testing determines which bacteria will be most negatively affected when they are told mean things.

51.

Urine C&S should be obtained BEFORE antibiotics are started.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

What is the normal range for specific gravity in urinalysis?

a)

1.0053-1.03

b)

1.000-1.005

c)

1.030-1.050

d)

0.900-1.000

53.

High specific gravity (SG) in urine indicates:

a)

Concentrated urine

b)

Dilute urine

54.

Low specific gravity (SG) in urine indicates:

a)

Concentrated urine

b)

Dilute urine

55.

What is the normal pH range for urine?

a)

4.6-8.0

b)

1.0-3.0

c)

8.5-10.0

d)

10.5-12.0

56.

What is the approximate normal pH of urine?

a)

6

b)

2

c)

8.5

d)

10

57.

What is the normal protein level in urine?

a)

None is normal

b)

10-20 mg/dL

c)

50-100 mg/dL

d)

100-200 mg/dL

58.

What is the normal glucose level in urine?

a)

None

b)

0-2

c)

0-4

d)

Above 5

59.

Glucose spillage in urine is seen with which condition?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Diabetes

c)

Starvation

d)

UTI

60.

What is the normal ketone level in urine?

a)

0-2

b)

0-4

c)

None

d)

Above 5

61.

Ketones in urine are seen with conditions of acute metabolic demand such as dehydration, starvation, and ________.

a)

diabetes mellitus

b)

hypertension

c)

asthma

d)

hypothyroidism

62.

What is the normal range of WBCs/hpf in urine?

a)

0-2

b)

0-4

c)

Above 5

d)

None

63.

A WBCs/hpf level above 5 in urine indicates what condition?

a)

Diabetes

b)

UTI

c)

Starvation

d)

Dehydration

64.

What is the normal range of RBCs/hpf in urine?

a)

0-2

b)

0-4

c)

Above 5

d)

None

65.

Serum creatinine is a waste product from muscle metabolism and is a good indicator of ________ function.

a)

kidney

b)

liver

c)

lung

d)

heart

66.

Which of the following statements is true regarding 24-hour urine collection?

a)

The first urine void is saved

b)

The first urine void is discarded

c)

Only morning urine is collected

d)

Only night urine is collected

67.

Urinalysis and ultrasound are BOTH useful diagnostic tests used to assess the urinary system.

a)

True

b)

False, ultrasound is not useful for assessing the urinary system

c)

False, urinalysis is not useful for assessing the urinary system

d)

False, neither urinalysis or ultrasound are useful for assessing the urinary system

68.

Fill in the blank: A 24hr urine collection is very useful for measuring ______ function.

a)

renal

b)

hepatic

c)

bladder

d)

urethral

69.

The 24-hour time for urine collection begins at which point?

a)

At the time the first urine is discarded

b)

At midnight

c)

After the first urine is collected

d)

At any random time

70.

Which of the following is NOT a nursing priority to consider for patients with urinary incontinence?

a)

Social isolation

b)

Pain, both acute and chronic

c)

Infrequent exercise

d)

Risk for infection

71.

Renal ultrasound is a painless procedure.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Which of the following lists three nursing priorities to consider for patients with urinary incontinence?

a)

Skin integrity, fluid intake, toileting schedule

b)

Pain management, wound care, infection control

c)

Nutritional assessment, medication reconciliation, mobility exercises

d)

Respiratory assessment, cardiac monitoring, glucose control

73.

An important nursing intervention to promote normal micturition in older adults is:

a)

Encouraging regular toileting schedules

b)

Restricting fluid intake

c)

Limiting physical activity

d)

Delaying toileting until the urge is strong

74.

Older adults have a ______ bladder capacity.

a)

smaller

b)

larger

c)

unchanged

d)

elastic

75.

You should encourage geriatric patients to empty their bladder completely before and after meals, as well as before ______. (Fill in the blank)

a)

bed

b)

meditation

c)

breakfast

d)

medication

76.

How much water should patients be encouraged to drink per day to increase fluid intake?

a)

2-3 glasses

b)

4-5 glasses

c)

8-10 glasses

d)

12-15 glasses

77.

SATA: Discourage drinking of which of the following fluids because they have diuretic effects?

a)

Coffee

b)

Tea

c)

Soda

d)

Alcohol

78.

Restricting fluid intake decreases urinary incontinence severity or frequency.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

List three ways to stimulate the micturition reflex for health promotion in all patients.

a)

Maintaining elimination habits, maintaining adequate fluid intake, promoting complete bladder emptying

b)

Restricting fluid intake, delaying urination, avoiding physical activity

c)

Ignoring the urge to void, reducing fiber intake, limiting mobility

d)

Using high doses of diuretics, skipping scheduled toileting, consuming excessive caffeine

80.

Name some methods to prevent infection in urinary health promotion.

a)

Administer medications as ordered, catheterization only when necessary, strengthen pelvic floor muscles, bladder retraining

b)

Increase sugar intake, avoid hydration, delay urination, ignore hygiene

c)

Use sterile catheters, limit handwashing, avoid prescribed medications, skip bladder retraining

d)

Encourage holding urine for long periods, avoid pelvic exercises, use random medications, ignore symptoms

81.

The correct technique to insert a urinary catheter is:

a)

Maintain aseptic technique, gently insert into the urethra until urine flows, then advance a bit further before inflating the balloon.

b)

Maintain clean technique, lubricate the catheter, gently insert into the urethra, inflate the balloon, and then keep advancing until urine flows.

c)

Maintain sterile technique, lubricate the catheter, gently insert into the urethra until urine flows, then advance a bit further before inflating the balloon.

d)

Inflate the balloon, maintain aseptic technique, lubricate the catheter in barbeque sauce, forcefully insert into the urethra until urine flows.

82.

Nursing measures to reduce urinary tract infection include which of the following?

a)

Encouraging adequate fluid intake

b)

Limiting hand hygiene

c)

Delaying catheter care

d)

Restricting patient mobility

83.

What is the recommended practice regarding the use of indwelling catheters?

a)

Use indwelling catheters routinely

b)

Remove indwelling catheters as soon as possible

c)

Never use indwelling catheters

d)

Only use indwelling catheters for drainage care

84.

Proteinuria is the loss of _______ in the urine, which may reflect renal illness.

a)

proteins

b)

glucose

c)

lipids

d)

vitamins

85.

Oliguria is defined as urinary output less than _______ mL/d. Results in renal failure if unresolved.

a)

400

b)

1000

c)

800

d)

200

86.

Anuria is the complete absence of _______ formation.

a)

urine

b)

blood

c)

saliva

d)

sweat

87.

Diuresis is the secretion and passage of _______ amounts of urine.

a)

large

b)

small

c)

moderate

d)

minimal

88.

Polyuria is urination in excess of _______ mL/kg of body weight per day, indicating excessive urination.

a)

50

b)

10

c)

100

d)

5

89.

Urinary retention is the incomplete _______ of the bladder.

a)

emptying

b)

filling

c)

infection

d)

contraction

90.

Residual urine is urine left in the bladder after _______; this is abnormal.

a)

urination

b)

drinking water

c)

digestion

d)

breathing

91.

Intake and Output refers to the amount of fluid taken in and excreted by the body in a specified _______.

a)

timeframe

b)

location

c)

temperature

d)

method

92.

Cystitis is the inflammation of the _______ wall.

a)

bladder

b)

stomach

c)

lung

d)

kidney

93.

What does KUB stand for in relation to ultrasound imaging of the urinary system?

a)

kidneys, urethra, bladder

b)

kidneys, ureters, bladder

c)

kidneys, urethra, bronchioles

d)

ketchup, umami, burger

94.

A serum blood urea nitrogen test (BUN) is more sensitive than a serum creatinine test.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

Some medications can give false positives for ketone levels.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Fill in the blanks: Most bacteria favor a _____ environment, so urine is maintained mildly _____.

a)

alkaline, acidic

b)

acidic, alkaline

c)

warm, cool

d)

cool, warm

97.

Hyperreflexia is usually neurogenic in nature, but can sometimes be caused by a physical obstruction.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

SATA: Which factors of a patient's urine should the nurse assess?

a)

amount

b)

color

c)

clarity

d)

odor

e)

taste

99.

How is uremic syndrome, which is caused by end stage renal failure, treated?

a)

dialysis

b)

diuretics

c)

frequent IV potassium pushes

d)

not treatable, these patients are toast

e)

volume expanders

100.

What percentage of renal filtrate is excreted as urine?

a)

1%

b)

99%

c)

90%

d)

50%