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Chapters 1-7 Test Review

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What can folic acid prevent in pregnancy?

a)

Folic acid supplements can prevent most neural tube defects such as spina bifida.

b)

Folic acid supplements can prevent gestational diabetes.

c)

Folic acid supplements can prevent high blood pressure.

d)

Folic acid supplements can prevent morning sickness.

2.

What hormones allow for implantation in the uterus?

a)

Progesterone

b)

Insulin

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Thyroxine

3.

What are the skin changes that occur during pregnancy?

a)

Pigmentation changes occur primarily in dark-skinned women. Common skin changes of pregnancy include increased pigmentation of the face (chloasma, or “mask of pregnancy”), breasts (darkening of the areolae), and abdomen (linea nigra, a line extending in the midline of the abdomen from just above the umbilicus to the symphysis pubis).

b)

Skin changes during pregnancy are limited to the hands and feet only, with no changes in facial or abdominal pigmentation.

c)

Pregnancy causes the skin to become completely resistant to pigmentation changes, and no visible marks appear.

d)

The only skin change during pregnancy is the development of rashes, with no pigmentation or color changes.

4.

What are the cardiovascular (cardio) changes that occur during pregnancy?

a)

There is increased blood volume, increased cardiac output, and increased coagulability. Venous pressure may increase in the femoral veins as the size and weight of the uterus increase, resulting in varicose veins in the legs of some women.

b)

There is decreased blood volume, decreased cardiac output, and decreased coagulability. Venous pressure remains unchanged throughout pregnancy.

c)

There is no change in blood volume or cardiac output, but there is a significant decrease in coagulability. Venous pressure decreases in the femoral veins.

d)

There is increased blood volume and cardiac output, but coagulability decreases. Venous pressure in the femoral veins is not affected by the uterus.

5.

What are the respiratory changes that occur during pregnancy?

a)

The pregnant woman breathes more deeply, but respiratory rate increases only slightly, if at all. Oxygen consumption increases by 15% during pregnancy. The expanding uterus exerts upward pressure on her diaphragm, causing it to rise about 4 cm (1.6 inch). Her rib cage flares, increasing the circumference of the chest about 6 cm (2.4 inches). Dyspnea may occur until the fetus descends into the pelvis (lightening), relieving upward pressure on the diaphragm.

b)

Respiratory rate and depth both decrease significantly, and oxygen consumption remains unchanged. The diaphragm descends, and the rib cage narrows during pregnancy.

c)

The pregnant woman experiences no change in breathing pattern, but her oxygen consumption decreases by 10%. The diaphragm is pushed downward, and the chest circumference decreases.

d)

The respiratory rate doubles, but oxygen consumption decreases. The diaphragm remains in the same position, and the rib cage does not change.

6.

What is the recommended weight gain for pregnancy for normal weight women?

a)

25 to 35 lb (11.4 to 15.9 kg)

b)

10 to 15 lb (4.5 to 6.8 kg)

c)

40 to 50 lb (18.1 to 22.7 kg)

d)

5 to 10 lb (2.3 to 4.5 kg)

7.

What is the recommended weight gain for pregnancy for underweight women?

a)

28 to 40 lb (12.7 to 18.2 kg)

b)

15 to 25 lb (6.8 to 11.3 kg)

c)

11 to 20 lb (5 to 9.1 kg)

d)

40 to 55 lb (18.2 to 25 kg)

8.

What is the recommended weight gain for pregnancy for overweight women?

a)

15 to 25 lb (6.8 to 11.3 kg)

b)

25 to 35 lb (11.3 to 15.9 kg)

c)

28 to 40 lb (12.7 to 18.1 kg)

d)

5 to 10 lb (2.3 to 4.5 kg)

9.

What is the recommended weight gain for pregnancy for obese women?

a)

11 to 20 lb (5 to 9.1 kg)

b)

25 to 35 lb (11.3 to 15.9 kg)

c)

28 to 40 lb (12.7 to 18.1 kg)

d)

15 to 25 lb (6.8 to 11.3 kg)

10.

What is the general recommendation for weight gain during pregnancy in the first trimester?

a)

Women gain up to 4.4 lb (2 kg) during the first trimester.

b)

Women gain up to 10 lb (4.5 kg) during the first trimester.

c)

Women gain up to 8.8 lb (4 kg) during the first trimester.

d)

Women gain up to 1 lb (0.5 kg) during the first trimester.

11.

What is the general recommendation for weight gain during pregnancy after the first trimester?

a)

Approximately 1 lb (0.44 kg) per week during the rest of pregnancy.

b)

No weight gain is recommended after the first trimester.

c)

At least 3 lbs (1.36 kg) per week during the rest of pregnancy.

d)

Weight gain should be avoided entirely after the first trimester.

12.

The functions of amniotic fluid include which of the following?

a)

Protection of the fetus from physical trauma

b)

Supplying nutrients directly to the fetus

c)

Initiating labor contractions

d)

Forming the placenta

13.

The age of viability is defined as the gestational age at which a fetus can survive outside the uterus. At what gestational age is this usually reached?

a)

20 weeks

b)

22 weeks

c)

24 weeks

d)

28 weeks

14.

The hormone tested for in a pregnancy test is:

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

d)

Luteinizing hormone

15.

Testosterone has effects on a male, including effects not directly related to sexual reproduction. Which of the following is one of those effects?

a)

Increases muscle mass and bone density

b)

Decreases red blood cell production

c)

Reduces body hair growth

d)

Lowers metabolic rate

16.

Umbilical vessels are defined as blood vessels in the umbilical cord. State their number and type.

a)

There are two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein.

b)

There are two umbilical veins and one umbilical artery.

c)

There are three umbilical arteries and no veins.

d)

There is one umbilical artery and one umbilical vein.

17.

Wharton's jelly is a substance found in the umbilical cord. What is its function?

a)

It provides cushioning and protection to the umbilical blood vessels.

b)

It produces red blood cells for the fetus.

c)

It stores nutrients for the developing fetus.

d)

It acts as a barrier to prevent infections.

18.

What are the gestational ages for zygote, embryo, and fetus?

a)

Zygote: conception to 2 weeks; Embryo: 2 to 8 weeks; Fetus: from the ninth week of development until birth.

b)

Zygote: conception to 4 weeks; Embryo: 4 to 12 weeks; Fetus: from the thirteenth week of development until birth.

c)

Zygote: conception to 1 week; Embryo: 1 to 6 weeks; Fetus: from the seventh week of development until birth.

d)

Zygote: conception to 3 weeks; Embryo: 3 to 10 weeks; Fetus: from the eleventh week of development until birth.

19.

How many chromosomes are in a normal human body cell and in a reproductive cell?

a)

Each body cell contains 46 chromosomes (22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes).

b)

Each body cell contains 23 chromosomes (11 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes).

c)

Each body cell contains 92 chromosomes (44 pairs of autosomes and 2 pairs of sex chromosomes).

d)

Each body cell contains 48 chromosomes (23 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes).

20.

Where is the site of fertilization?

a)

Fallopian tubes, specifically the ampulla (the wider area of the tube).

b)

Ovary

c)

Uterus

d)

Cervix

21.

What is the first sign of puberty in girls?

a)

Development of the breasts.

b)

Growth of facial hair.

c)

Deepening of the voice.

d)

Appearance of Adam's apple.

22.

What are the layers of the uterus, and be able to name the parts of the uterus.

a)

The uterus is separated into three parts: fundus, corpus, and cervix. The layers are perimetrium, myometrium, and endometrium.

b)

The uterus is separated into two parts: ovary and cervix. The layers are perimetrium, endometrium, and epimetrium.

c)

The uterus is separated into four parts: fundus, isthmus, cervix, and ovary. The layers are myometrium, endometrium, and pericardium.

d)

The uterus is separated into three parts: fundus, corpus, and cervix. The layers are pericardium, myometrium, and endometrium.

23.

What do the testes do?

a)

Manufacture male germ cells (spermatozoa or sperm) and secrete male hormones (androgens).

b)

Produce insulin for blood sugar regulation.

c)

Filter waste products from the blood.

d)

Control voluntary muscle movements.

24.

What is the source of amniotic fluid?

a)

Maternal serum, later fetal urine is the primary source.

b)

Placental secretions are the only source.

c)

It is produced solely by the maternal kidneys.

d)

It comes from the fetal lungs only.

25.

Know the volume of amniotic fluid at term pregnancy.

a)

The volume of fluid is about 1000 mL at 37 weeks.

b)

The volume of fluid is about 200 mL at 37 weeks.

c)

The volume of fluid is about 3000 mL at 37 weeks.

d)

The volume of fluid is about 500 mL at 37 weeks.

26.

Is there any correlation to small breasts and milk production?

a)

Breast size is primarily determined by the amount of fatty tissue and is unrelated to a woman’s ability to produce milk.

b)

Yes, women with small breasts produce less milk than those with larger breasts.

c)

Only women with large breasts can breastfeed successfully.

d)

Small breasts indicate a hormonal imbalance that affects milk production.

27.

Know the three fetal shunts: where are they located and what do they do?

a)

Ductus venosus: diverts some blood away from the liver as it returns from the placenta. Foramen ovale: diverts most blood from the right atrium directly to the left atrium, rather than circulating it to the lungs. Ductus arteriosus: diverts most blood from the pulmonary artery into the aorta.

b)

Ductus venosus: diverts blood from the lungs to the liver. Foramen ovale: diverts blood from the left atrium to the right ventricle. Ductus arteriosus: diverts blood from the aorta to the pulmonary vein.

c)

Ductus venosus: diverts blood from the right ventricle to the aorta. Foramen ovale: diverts blood from the left ventricle to the right atrium. Ductus arteriosus: diverts blood from the pulmonary vein to the left atrium.

d)

Ductus venosus: diverts blood from the placenta to the lungs. Foramen ovale: diverts blood from the right atrium to the right ventricle. Ductus arteriosus: diverts blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery.

28.

What is a mom at risk with hyperemesis?

a)

The woman with hyperemesis gravidarum has excessive nausea and vomiting that can significantly interfere with her food intake and fluid balance. Fetal growth may be restricted, resulting in a low-birth-weight infant. Dehydration impairs perfusion of the placenta, reducing the delivery of blood oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.

b)

The woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for gestational diabetes due to increased sugar intake.

c)

The woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for hypertension due to excessive salt retention.

d)

The woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for preterm labor due to increased physical activity.

29.

What are kick counts and when should a patient seek care?

a)

While lying on her side, 1 hour after a meal, the pregnant woman counts fetal movements. Less than 3 kicks in 30 minutes or less than 10 kicks in 3 hours indicates the need for evaluation. A daily fetal movement record is kept at home once a day, and findings are evaluated during prenatal visits to ensure fetal health. The woman should report a decrease in movements or if none occur during a 3-hour period.

b)

Kick counts are the number of times a pregnant woman feels her baby hiccup in a day. If there are more than 20 hiccups in 2 hours, she should seek care.

c)

Kick counts are measured by the number of times the baby moves during sleep. If the baby moves more than 5 times during sleep, care is needed.

d)

Kick counts refer to the number of times a pregnant woman feels contractions. If there are less than 5 contractions in 1 hour, she should seek care.

30.

A rubella nonimmune patient should get vaccinated:

a)

before becoming pregnant

b)

during pregnancy

c)

immediately after delivery

d)

at any time during pregnancy

31.

Know GTPALM, what it stands for. Fill in what each letter stands for: G: _____, T: _____, P: _____, A: _____, L: _____, M: _____

a)

G: Gravida, T: Term infants, P: Preterm infants, A: Abortions, L: Living children, M: Multiple gestations

b)

G: Gestation, T: Twins, P: Pregnancies, A: Alive, L: Losses, M: Miscarriages

c)

G: Growth, T: Total births, P: Pregnant, A: Abortions, L: Live births, M: Maternal age

d)

G: Gravida, T: Twins, P: Parity, A: Abortions, L: Living, M: Miscarriages

32.

The function of the placenta is:

a)

to provide nutrients and oxygen to the fetus

b)

to produce red blood cells for the mother

c)

to control the mother's heartbeat

d)

to digest food for the fetus

33.

The main difference between previa and abruption is:

a)

Previa involves placental implantation over the cervical os, while abruption is premature separation of the placenta from the uterus.

b)

Previa is associated with severe abdominal pain, while abruption is always painless.

c)

Abruption occurs only in the third trimester, while previa can occur at any time during pregnancy.

d)

Previa always leads to fetal demise, while abruption does not affect the fetus.

34.

Which of the following is a danger sign of pregnancy?

a)

Severe abdominal pain

b)

Mild nausea in the morning

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Slight weight gain

35.

The treatments for an ectopic pregnancy include:

a)

Surgical removal or medication such as methotrexate

b)

Antibiotics and bed rest

c)

Hormone replacement therapy

d)

Physical therapy and exercise

36.

An amniocentesis is:

a)

a medical procedure in which a small amount of amniotic fluid is sampled from the amniotic sac surrounding a developing fetus.

b)

a type of blood test to check for infections.

c)

a surgical procedure to remove the uterus.

d)

an imaging technique to view bones.

37.

Oxytocin is a hormone that has what effect on the cervix?

a)

It causes the cervix to soften and dilate.

b)

It causes the cervix to contract and harden.

c)

It reduces blood flow to the cervix.

d)

It prevents the cervix from changing during labor.

38.

When is a patient tested for Gestational Diabetes? Routine test done at ______ weeks of gestation to identify gestational diabetes; abnormal results necessitate medical follow-up.

a)

24–28 weeks

b)

10–14 weeks

c)

30–34 weeks

d)

36–40 weeks

39.

What does AFP test for?

a)

AFP tests for open neural tube defects (high levels) and chromosomal abnormalities or gestational trophoblastic disease (low levels).

b)

AFP tests for diabetes mellitus.

c)

AFP tests for thyroid disorders.

d)

AFP tests for liver cirrhosis.

40.

What are the three phases of pregnancy?

a)

antepartum, intrapartum, postpartum

b)

menstruation, ovulation, fertilization

c)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase

d)

puberty, menopause, senescence

41.

3 trimesters of pregnancy- 1st: ______ weeks, 2nd: ______ weeks, 3rd: ______ weeks

a)

1st: 1-13 weeks, 2nd: 14-27 weeks, 3rd: 28-40 weeks

b)

1st: 1-12 weeks, 2nd: 13-24 weeks, 3rd: 25-36 weeks

c)

1st: 1-10 weeks, 2nd: 11-20 weeks, 3rd: 21-30 weeks

d)

1st: 1-15 weeks, 2nd: 16-30 weeks, 3rd: 31-40 weeks

42.

What is the immediate nursing assessment after epidural placement?

a)

Observe for hypotension and urinary retention; monitor blood pressure and fetal heart rate; assist with positioning; monitor for reduced sensation and need for catheterization.

b)

Encourage early ambulation and deep breathing exercises; monitor for increased appetite and thirst.

c)

Monitor for signs of infection at the IV site; assess for headache and blurred vision; encourage oral fluid intake.

d)

Assess for allergic reaction to latex; monitor for increased bowel sounds and diarrhea; encourage high-protein diet.

43.

How long should a contraction last?

a)

45 to 50 seconds (average); longer than 90 seconds is concerning.

b)

10 to 15 seconds (average); longer than 30 seconds is concerning.

c)

2 to 3 minutes (average); longer than 5 minutes is concerning.

d)

5 to 10 seconds (average); longer than 20 seconds is concerning.

44.

What is a patient at risk for during a c-section?

a)

Infection, hemorrhage, DVT, respiratory distress

b)

Dehydration, hypothermia, muscle cramps, blurred vision

c)

Allergic rhinitis, sinusitis, ear infection, tooth decay

d)

Asthma, eczema, hay fever, lactose intolerance

45.

Know the four stages of labor and what happens in each. First Stage – Dilation and Effacement. Latent Phase (4–6 hours): The cervix dilates from 1 to 4 cm. Amniotic membranes may be intact, and a “bloody show” may be present. Contractions occur every 20 minutes, decreasing to every 5 minutes, lasting 15 to 40 seconds, and are mild to moderate in intensity.

a)

First Stage – Dilation and Effacement; Latent Phase: cervix dilates 1 to 4 cm, amniotic membranes may be intact, bloody show may be present, contractions every 20 to 5 minutes, lasting 15 to 40 seconds, mild to moderate intensity.

b)

First Stage – Dilation and Effacement; Latent Phase: cervix dilates 4 to 8 cm, amniotic membranes always ruptured, no bloody show, contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, lasting 60 to 90 seconds, strong intensity.

c)

First Stage – Dilation and Effacement; Latent Phase: cervix dilates 1 to 2 cm, amniotic membranes always intact, no contractions, mild intensity only.

d)

First Stage – Dilation and Effacement; Latent Phase: cervix dilates 6 to 10 cm, amniotic membranes may be intact, bloody show always absent, contractions every 10 to 15 minutes, lasting 10 to 20 seconds, mild intensity.

46.

What is a common behavior of the patient during the early phase of labor?

a)

The patient is irritable and rejects support

b)

The patient is cooperative, alert, talkative, and welcomes diversions

c)

The patient is restless and wants to give up

d)

The patient is focused on breathing and requests pain relief

47.

During the active phase of labor, the cervix dilates from ____ to ____ cm.

a)

4 to 7 cm

b)

1 to 3 cm

c)

8 to 10 cm

d)

2 to 5 cm

48.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the active phase of labor?

a)

Cervical dilation from 4 to 7 cm

b)

Contractions 2 to 5 minutes apart

c)

Amniotic membranes rupture

d)

Cervical dilation from 7 to 10 cm

49.

Which patient behavior is commonly observed during the active phase of labor?

a)

The patient is cooperative and talkative

b)

The patient may appear apprehensive, anxious, or introverted and become less social

c)

The patient is fully effaced

d)

The patient is NPO

50.

During the transition phase, the cervix dilates from 7 to 10 cm and is fully effaced.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

What is a recommended nursing intervention during the active phase of labor?

a)

Encourage alternating ambulation and rest

b)

Keep the patient NPO

c)

Avoid position changes

d)

Do not monitor fetal heart rate

52.

During the transition phase, contractions occur every ____ to ____ minutes, lasting ____ to ____ seconds.

a)

2 to 3 minutes, 60 to 90 seconds

b)

5 to 7 minutes, 30 to 45 seconds

c)

1 to 2 minutes, 20 to 30 seconds

d)

4 to 5 minutes, 45 to 60 seconds

53.

Which of the following behaviors may be exhibited by a patient in the transition phase of labor?

a)

Cooperative and alert

b)

Irritable and may reject her support person

c)

Requests a shower

d)

Requests a back massage

54.

What is the duration of the second stage of labor (Expulsion of Fetus)?

a)

5 to 30 minutes

b)

30 minutes to 2 hours

c)

2 to 4 hours

d)

10 to 20 minutes

55.

Fill in the blank: The cervix is fully dilated to ____ cm during the second stage of labor.

a)

10

b)

5

c)

7

d)

12

56.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the third stage of labor (Expulsion of Placenta)?

a)

Continuous strong contractions

b)

Intermittent, mild to moderate contractions

c)

No contractions

d)

Only fetal heart rate monitoring

57.

True or False: The umbilical cord is cut during the third stage of labor.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Which mechanism describes the placenta being expelled shiny fetal side first?

a)

Duncan

b)

Schultze

c)

Ferguson

d)

Leopold

59.

Fill in the blank: During the second stage of labor, contractions occur every ____ to ____ minutes and last 60 to 80 seconds.

a)

1.5 to 3

b)

3 to 5

c)

5 to 10

d)

10 to 15

60.

Which of the following is NOT a nursing intervention during the second stage of labor?

a)

Monitor contractions and fetal heart rate every 5 minutes

b)

Prepare sterile supplies and resuscitation equipment

c)

Encourage the woman to avoid pushing

d)

Provide feedback to the woman and her partner

61.

Review the differences between true labor and false labor.

a)

True labor is characterized by regular contractions that increase in intensity and result in cervical dilation, while false labor involves irregular contractions with no cervical changes.

b)

True labor contractions decrease with activity, while false labor contractions become stronger with movement.

c)

False labor always results in the rupture of membranes, while true labor does not.

d)

True labor is painless, while false labor is always painful.

62.

Molding of the cranium in a fetus is allowed by:

a)

Fontanelles

b)

Sutures fusing early

c)

Thick cranial bones

d)

Absence of cartilage

63.

Know the viability of the ovum as well as the sperm.

a)

Ovum- 12-24 hrs, sperm- 5 days

b)

Ovum- 48 hrs, sperm- 2 days

c)

Ovum- 72 hrs, sperm- 1 day

d)

Ovum- 24 hrs, sperm- 7 days

64.

Preferred pelvic shape.

a)

Gynecoid

b)

Android

c)

Anthropoid

d)

Platypelloid

65.

What are the germ layers?

a)

Ectoderm, Mesoderm, Endoderm

b)

Epidermis, Dermis, Hypodermis

c)

Cortex, Medulla, Pith

d)

Pericardium, Myocardium, Endocardium

66.

Which germ layer gives rise to the outer layer of skin?

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Hypoderm

67.

Which germ layer gives rise to oil glands and hair follicles of skin?

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Hypoderm

68.

Which germ layer gives rise to nails and hair?

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Hypoderm

69.

Which germ layer gives rise to external sense organs?

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Hypoderm

70.

Which germ layer gives rise to the mucous membrane of mouth and anus?

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Hypoderm

71.

Which germ layer gives rise to true skin?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Hypoderm

72.

Which germ layer gives rise to the skeleton?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Hypoderm

73.

Which germ layer gives rise to bone and cartilage?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Neural crest

74.

Which germ layer gives rise to connective tissue?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Neuroderm

75.

Which germ layer gives rise to muscles?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Hypoderm

76.

Which germ layer gives rise to blood and blood vessels?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Hypoderm

77.

Which germ layer gives rise to kidneys and gonads?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Neural crest

78.

Which germ layer gives rise to the lining of trachea, pharynx, and bronchi?

a)

Endoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Ectoderm

d)

Mesothelium

79.

Which germ layer gives rise to the lining of digestive tract?

a)

Endoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Periderm

80.

Which germ layer gives rise to the lining of bladder and urethra?

a)

Endoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Ectoderm

d)

Mesothelium

81.

What are the differences between monozygotic and dizygotic twins?

a)

Monozygotic twins develop from a single ovum and are identical. Dizygotic twins develop from two separate ova and two separate sperm and have a separate amnion and placenta.

b)

Monozygotic twins develop from two separate ova and are fraternal. Dizygotic twins develop from a single ovum and are identical.

c)

Monozygotic twins always have different genders, while dizygotic twins are always the same gender.

d)

Monozygotic twins have separate placentas, while dizygotic twins always share a placenta.

82.

Calculate estimated due date using Nägele’s Rule to Determine Estimated Date of Delivery. Steps: 1. Determine first day of last normal menstrual period (LNMP) 2. Count backward 3 months 3. Add 7 days 4. Correct the year if necessary Example: 1. First day of LNMP: January 27 2. Count backward 3 months: October 27 3. Add 7 days: November 3 is estimated date of delivery (EDD)

a)

November 3 is the estimated date of delivery (EDD) if the first day of LNMP is January 27.

b)

October 20 is the estimated date of delivery (EDD) if the first day of LNMP is January 27.

c)

December 3 is the estimated date of delivery (EDD) if the first day of LNMP is January 27.

d)

September 27 is the estimated date of delivery (EDD) if the first day of LNMP is January 27.

83.

What is the treatment for supine hypotension?

a)

Turning to one side or placing a small pillow under one hip can help relieve supine hypotension.

b)

Administering high doses of insulin immediately.

c)

Encouraging the patient to stand up quickly.

d)

Applying ice packs to the lower abdomen.

84.

Definition of abortion.

a)

Termination of pregnancy before viability (20 weeks’ gestation), either spontaneous or induced.

b)

Delivery of a baby after 37 weeks of gestation.

c)

A surgical procedure to remove uterine fibroids.

d)

The process of fertilization of an ovum by a sperm.

85.

What is Eclampsia?

a)

Progression to eclampsia occurs when the woman has one or more generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Responsibilities of the nurse include administration of magnesium to control seizures, close fetal monitoring, and measures to prevent aspiration. Delivery may be expedited.

b)

A mild form of hypertension occurring after 20 weeks of gestation without proteinuria.

c)

A condition characterized by low blood sugar levels during pregnancy.

d)

A respiratory disorder commonly seen in pregnant women.

86.

What is the treatment for GBS positive?

a)

A culture of the woman’s rectum and lower vagina for the presence of GBS is routinely taken at 35 to 37 weeks’ gestation per 2019 ACOG guidelines. The test can be done during labor if the woman did not have prenatal care.

b)

Immediate cesarean section is recommended for all GBS positive women.

c)

No treatment is necessary for GBS positive women during pregnancy.

d)

Only oral antibiotics are given after delivery if the baby shows symptoms.

87.

What does the acronym TORCH stand for in the context of infections that can be devastating for the fetus or newborn? List each infection or infectious agent represented by the letters in TORCH.

a)

Toxoplasmosis, Other (such as syphilis), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes simplex virus

b)

Tuberculosis, Osteomyelitis, Rubella, Chlamydia, Hepatitis B

c)

Tetanus, Otitis media, Rotavirus, Cytomegalovirus, HIV

d)

Toxoplasmosis, Otitis media, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, Hepatitis C

88.

Identify the three main types of breech presentations that can occur during pregnancy from the options below.

a)

Frank breech, complete breech, footling breech

b)

Transverse breech, oblique breech, longitudinal breech

c)

Cephalic breech, posterior breech, anterior breech

d)

Partial breech, total breech, mixed breech

89.

Calculating the frequency and duration of uterine contractions during labor involves which of the following methods?

a)

Measuring the time from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next for frequency, and timing the length of each contraction for duration.

b)

Counting the number of contractions in one hour for frequency, and estimating the average pain level for duration.

c)

Measuring the distance between the highest and lowest points of the contraction for frequency, and the interval between contractions for duration.

d)

Recording the mother's heart rate for frequency, and the baby's movements for duration.

90.

What is the normal fetal heart rate range for a term fetus after amniotomy?

a)

110 to 160 beats/min

b)

80 to 100 beats/min

c)

160 to 200 beats/min

d)

60 to 90 beats/min

91.

What is lightening? Fill in the blank: "Lightening occurs when the fetus settles into the pelvic inlet and the fundus no longer presses on the diaphragm. The woman may feel increased pelvic pressure and have increased vaginal secretions. Fetal pressure causes an increase in clear and nonirritating vaginal secretions. Irritation or itching with the increased secretions is not normal and should be reported to the health care provider because these symptoms are characteristic of infection."

a)

Lightening occurs when the fetus settles into the pelvic inlet and the fundus no longer presses on the diaphragm.

b)

Lightening occurs when the fetus begins to move actively in the uterus.

c)

Lightening occurs when the placenta attaches to the uterine wall.

d)

Lightening occurs when the amniotic fluid increases significantly.

92.

How do we assess amniotic fluid (colors)? Fill in the blank: "The membranes may rupture spontaneously, or the health care provider may rupture them artificially in a procedure called an amniotomy. The color, odor, and amount of fluid are recorded. The normal color of amniotic fluid is ____, possibly with flecks of white vernix (fetal skin protectant). The amount of amniotic fluid is usually estimated as scant (only a trickle), moderate (about 500 mL), or large (1000 mL or more). Green-stained fluid may indicate the fetus has passed meconium (the first stool) before birth, a situation associated with fetal compromise that can cause respiratory problems at birth. Cloudy or yellow amniotic fluid with an offensive odor may indicate an infection and should be reported immediately."

a)

clear

b)

red

c)

blue

d)

brown

93.

Know what the fontanels are regarding their location and shape. Fill in the blank: "The fetal head is composed of several bones separated by strong connective tissue, called sutures. A wider area, called a fontanelle, is formed where the sutures meet. The following two fontanelles are important in obstetrics: 1. The anterior fontanelle, a ____-shaped area formed by the intersection of four sutures (frontal, sagittal, and two coronal). 2. The posterior fontanelle, a tiny ____ depression formed by the intersection of three sutures (one sagittal and two lambdoid)."

a)

diamond; triangular

b)

oval; square

c)

round; rectangular

d)

hexagonal; pentagonal

94.

Hormones are essential to maintain pregnancy, and the dramatic increase in hormones during pregnancy affects all body systems. Most hormones are produced by the corpus luteum initially and later by the placenta. The most striking change in the endocrine system during pregnancy is the addition of the placenta as a temporary endocrine organ that produces large amounts of ____ and ____ to maintain the pregnancy, as well as ____ and _____.

a)

estrogen; progesterone; hCG; human placental lactogen

b)

insulin; glucagon; oxytocin; prolactin

c)

thyroxine; cortisol; FSH; LH

d)

testosterone; aldosterone; ADH; melatonin

95.

(hPL). hPL increases maternal insulin resistance during pregnancy, providing the fetus with ______ needed for growth.

a)

glucose

b)

protein

c)

calcium

d)

oxygen

96.

Which hormone is produced by the corpus luteum and placenta?

a)

Relaxin

b)

Insulin

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Thyroxine

97.

Relaxin remodels collagen, causing connective tissue of the symphysis pubis to be more movable and the cervix to ______.

a)

soften

b)

harden

c)

contract

d)

calcify

98.

Which hormone inhibits uterine activity?

a)

Relaxin

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Estrogen

d)

Progesterone

99.

Prolactin prepares ______ for lactation.

a)

breasts

b)

lungs

c)

kidneys

d)

bones