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Final Exam

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following is the most basic need?

a)

Esteem needs

b)

Self-actualization

c)

Physiological needs

d)

Belongingness and love needs

2.

In patient care, what should you prioritize first?

a)

Circulation

b)

Airway

c)

Breathing

d)

Nutrition

3.

Fill in the blank: After ensuring the airway is clear, the next priority in patient care is ________.

a)

breathing

b)

circulation

c)

medication

d)

transport

4.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended therapeutic communication technique?

a)

Ask open ended questions

b)

Make fake promises

c)

Ask for permission before touching the patient

d)

Use a translator for non-English speaking patients

5.

You should use a family member as a translator for patients who do not speak English.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Fill in the blank: In therapeutic communication, you should always maintain _______ contact with the patient.

a)

eye

b)

hand

c)

verbal

d)

physical

7.

Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?

a)

Are you hungry?

b)

Tell me more about your dietary preferences.

c)

Do you want water?

d)

Are you tired?

8.

Which of the following tasks can a Practical Nurse (PN) perform?

a)

Monitoring findings as input to the RN’s ongoing assessment

b)

Administering enteral feedings

c)

Inserting Urinary catheter

d)

All of the above

9.

Which of the following is NOT allowed for a Practical Nurse (PN)?

a)

Administering medication

b)

NO IV push

c)

Suctioning

d)

Reinforcing client teaching

10.

Which activities are included in the role of Assistive Personnel (AP)?

a)

Activities of daily living (ADLS) such as bathing, grooming, feeding

b)

Routine tasks like bed making, specimen collection, intake & output

c)

Vital signs for stable clients

d)

All of the above

11.

Fill in the blank: Assistive Personnel (AP) can take vital signs for ______ clients.

a)

stable

b)

critical

c)

unconscious

d)

postoperative

12.

According to the worksheet, you use ISBARR to report any problems with the patients while calling another doctor or facility.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

After giving a recommendation using ISBARR, what should you do next?

a)

Read-back

b)

Ignore the response

c)

End the conversation immediately

d)

Wait for further instructions

e)

Repeat the recommendation

14.

What does PCA stand for in nursing?

a)

Patient-controlled analgesia

b)

Primary Care Assistant

c)

Professional Clinical Advisor

d)

Personal Care Attendant

15.

A PCA pump contains pain medication connected directly to a patient's intravenous (IV) line. How often should it be checked?

a)

Every four hours as needed.

b)

Once a day.

c)

Every 12 hours.

d)

Only when the patient complains of pain.

16.

Which of the following is NOT one of the 5 Rights of Delegation?

a)

Right Task

b)

Right Worker

c)

Right Medication

d)

Right Direction and Communication

17.

Delegation should NOT occur when:

a)

Patient is stable

b)

Task is within worker’s job description

c)

There is an unpredictable outcome

d)

You’ve planned how to monitor

18.

According to the PQRS pain assessment, what does the 'P' in PQRS stand for?

a)

Pain: What provokes the pain? What makes it better or worse?

b)

Position: Where is the pain located?

c)

Pulse: Is there a change in pulse rate?

d)

Pressure: Does applying pressure change the pain?

19.

According to the PQRS pain assessment, what does the 'Q' in PQRS stand for?

a)

Quality: Is it sharp, dull, stabbing, crushing, burning?

b)

Quantity: How much pain is there?

c)

Quickness: How fast did the pain start?

d)

Quietness: Is the pain silent or loud?

20.

According to the PQRS pain assessment, what does the 'R' in PQRS stand for?

a)

Radiates: Does it radiate? Or does it stay in one place?

b)

Rate: How severe is the pain on a scale?

c)

Relief: What relieves the pain?

d)

Rebound: Does the pain return after relief?

21.

According to the PQRS pain assessment, what does the 'S' in PQRS stand for?

a)

Severity: How severe is the pain on a scale of 0-10? (7 is severe)

b)

Site: Where is the pain located?

c)

Sensation: What does the pain feel like?

d)

Schedule: When does the pain occur?

22.

According to the PQRS pain assessment, what does the 'T' in PQRS stand for?

a)

Time/Treatment: Time pain started? How long did it last? What works?

b)

Temperature: Is the area warm or cold?

c)

Texture: Is the skin rough or smooth?

d)

Tension: Is there muscle tightness?

23.

Which pain scale is used for children aged 3-7 years old?

a)

Wong Baker FACES

b)

Numeric Pain Scale

c)

Visual Analog Scale

d)

FLACC Scale

24.

What is the correct order for putting on PPE?

a)

1. Gown 2. Mask 3. Goggles 4. Gloves

b)

1. Gloves 2. Mask 3. Goggles 4. Gown

c)

1. Mask 2. Gown 3. Gloves 4. Goggles

d)

1. Goggles 2. Gown 3. Mask 4. Gloves

25.

What is the correct order for taking off PPE?

a)

1. Gloves 2. Goggles 3. Gown 4. Mask

b)

1. Mask 2. Gown 3. Goggles 4. Gloves

c)

1. Gown 2. Gloves 3. Mask 4. Goggles

d)

1. Goggles 2. Mask 3. Gloves 4. Gown

26.

What number corresponds to 'HURTS WHOLE LOT'?

4 lines
27.

Which diseases require Airborne precautions?

a)

Measles, Pulmonary/Laryngeal TB, Varicella

b)

Influenza, Rubella, Mumps

c)

Herpes, Shigella, MRSA

d)

Scarlet fever, Meningococcal Pneumonia

28.

What type of mask is required for Airborne precautions (Negative Pressure)?

a)

Surgical Mask

b)

N95 Mask

c)

Cloth Mask

d)

Face Shield

29.

If splashing or spraying is a possibility during Airborne precautions, what should you wear?

a)

Full face protection

b)

Surgical gloves only

c)

Regular eyeglasses

d)

Cloth mask

30.

Which diseases require Droplet precautions?

a)

Measles, Varicella

b)

Sepsis, Influenza, Rubella, Strep Pneumonia, Mump, Streptococcal Pharyngitis, Influenza B, Scarlet fever, Mumps, Mycoplasma Pneumonia, Meningococcal Pneumonia and sepsis

c)

Herpes, Shigella, MRSA

d)

Tuberculosis

31.

What type of mask is required for Droplet precautions?

a)

N95 Mask

b)

Surgical Mask

c)

Cloth Mask

d)

No mask needed

32.

Which diseases require Contact precautions?

a)

Measles, TB

b)

Sepsis, Influenza

c)

Herpes, Shigella, Wound Infections, Scabies, Impetigo, MRSA, C. Diff, VRE

d)

Scarlet fever

33.

What protective equipment is required for Contact precautions?

a)

Gown and Gloves

b)

N95 Mask

c)

Face Shield

d)

None

34.

If a wound is draining during Contact precautions, what additional protection should be worn?

a)

Wear goggles

b)

Remove gloves

c)

Skip hand hygiene

d)

Wear sandals

35.

Medical Asepsis requires just cleanliness. (Lysol, kills 99.9%)

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Surgical Asepsis is the absolute removal and killing of bacteria and pathogens.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

How long should you wash your hands according to the guidelines?

a)

15 - 20 seconds (happy birthday twice)

b)

5 seconds

c)

1 minute

d)

2 minutes

38.

Inside of sterile glove is considered ______, outside is _______.

a)

clean, sterile.

b)

sterile, clean.

c)

dirty, sterile.

d)

sterile, dirty.

39.

What is a Hospital Acquired Infection?

a)

Infection acquired during hospital visit

b)

Infection acquired from food at home

c)

Infection acquired from outdoor air

d)

Infection acquired from animal bites

40.

What does the S1 (lub) heart sound indicate?

a)

Ventricular systole (Contraction)

b)

Atrial diastole (Relaxation)

c)

Ventricular diastole (Relaxation)

d)

Atrial systole (Contraction)

41.

What does the S2 (dub) heart sound indicate?

a)

Ventricular diastole (relaxation)

b)

Atrial systole (contraction)

c)

Ventricular systole (contraction)

d)

Atrial diastole (relaxation)

42.

Which heart sound is known as the ventricular gallop and is commonly heard in children and young adults?

a)

S3 (ventricular gallop)

b)

S1 (first heart sound)

c)

S2 (second heart sound)

d)

S4 (atrial gallop)

43.

Which heart sound is associated with atrial contraction?

a)

S4 (atrial contraction)

b)

S1 (mitral and tricuspid closure)

c)

S2 (aortic and pulmonary closure)

d)

S3 (ventricular filling)

44.

Which heart sounds are considered normal?

a)

S1, S2

b)

S3, S4

c)

S2, S4

d)

S1, S3

45.

Which heart sounds are considered abnormal?

a)

S3, S4

b)

S1, S2

c)

S1, S3

d)

S2, S4

46.

If you hear S3 in the heart, you will hear crackles.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

S4 in the elderly is normal.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Name the five areas for listening to the heart as shown in the diagram.

a)

Aortic, Pulmonic, Erb's Point, Tricuspid, Mitral

b)

Aortic, Pulmonic, Carotid, Tricuspid, Mitral

c)

Aortic, Pulmonic, Erb's Point, Bicuspid, Mitral

d)

Aortic, Jugular, Erb's Point, Tricuspid, Mitral

49.

If your patient is at possible risk for aspiration, which cranial nerves should you assess for?

a)

CN 5 and 7

b)

CN 9 and 10

c)

CN 3 and 4

d)

CN 11 and 12

50.

If medication to remove mucus is given, what should you teach the patient to do to promote thin mucus?

a)

Avoid fluids

b)

Drink fluids

c)

Eat solid foods

d)

Exercise

51.

When suctioning a patient, you should always give ______ before you begin suctioning.

a)

O2

b)

IV fluids

c)

Glucose

d)

Antibiotics

52.

Suction attempts should be limited to no longer than ______ seconds to avoid hypoxemia and vagal response.

a)

10-15

b)

20-25

c)

5-8

d)

30-35

53.

During a seizure, what is the correct action to take?

a)

Put something in the patient's mouth

b)

Remove everything around the patient

c)

Hold the patient down

d)

Give the patient water

54.

Which of the following is included in the correct order of abdominal assessment?

a)

Inspection, Palpitation, Percussion, Auscultation

b)

Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpitation

c)

Auscultation, Inspection, Percussion, Palpitation

d)

Percussion, Palpitation, Inspection, Auscultation

55.

Fill in the blank: McBurney’s Point pain and tenderness is associated with _________

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Cholecystitis

c)

Pancreatitis

d)

Gastritis

56.

Which of the following conditions is commonly found in the right upper region of the abdomen?

a)

Gallstones

b)

Duodenal Ulcer

c)

Biliary Colic

d)

Diverticular Disease

57.

The left lower region of the abdomen is commonly associated with diverticular disease and pelvic pain (Gynae).

a)

True

b)

False

58.

If bowel sounds are not heard, how long should you wait in each quadrant before concluding absence of sounds?

a)

5 minutes

b)

30 seconds

c)

1 minute

d)

2 minutes

59.

What is considered a hyperactive bowel sound frequency?

a)

>5

b)

<35

c)

>35

d)

<5

60.

Which of the following is NOT a condition associated with the left upper region of the abdomen?

a)

Stomach Ulcer

b)

Duodenal Ulcer

c)

Gallstones

d)

Biliary Colic

61.

What is the main purpose of creating an ostomy?

a)

To allow fecal matter to pass

b)

To allow urine to pass

c)

To remove gases from the stomach

d)

To administer medication

62.

Where do stools get formed in the case of an ostomy?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Large intestine

c)

Stomach

d)

Esophagus

63.

Reasons for ileostomy include (IBS) Crohn's disease and _________?

a)

Ulcerative colitis.

b)

Appendicitis.

c)

Peptic ulcer disease.

d)

Diverticulosis.

64.

Which of the following is NOT a correct ostomy care instruction?

a)

The stoma should appear moist, shiny, pink/red

b)

Use mild soap & water to cleanse skin

c)

Change the bag every day

d)

Make sure skin is not irritated & no fungi is present

65.

You should change the ostomy bag only when it is half full, not every day.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Fill in the blank: The cut opening for an ostomy bag should be _______ cm (1/18 – 1/8 in) larger.

a)

0.15-0.3

b)

0.5-1.0

c)

1.0-1.5

d)

0.01-0.05

67.

Which of the following is NOT an indication for using an NG tube?

a)

Decompression

b)

Feeding

c)

Lavage

d)

Blood transfusion

e)

Compression

68.

What should you check during the assessment of a patient with a feeding tube?

a)

Lung sounds, abdomen, nares

b)

Heart rate and blood pressure

c)

Skin turgor and capillary refill

d)

Pupillary response

69.

Must report dark coffee ground or blood streaked in the suctioning because that is signs of ________.

a)

bleeding

b)

infection

c)

dehydration

d)

allergy

70.

What is the normal color of stomach contents during suctioning?

a)

Red

b)

Greenish-yellowish

c)

Brown

d)

Clear

71.

Normal acidity of the stomach is ______ at most. If not within this range, possibility it is in the lungs!

a)

1-5

b)

6-8

c)

9-12

d)

13-15

72.

Kangaroo pump is for feeding ________.

a)

FORMULA

b)

WATER

c)

BLOOD

d)

OXYGEN

73.

If you leave the kangaroo pump outside for too long, what can happen?

a)

It grows bacteria and causes GI infection

b)

It becomes more effective

c)

It cools down

d)

It increases formula absorption

74.

How often should you monitor the intake and output and glucose when using a kangaroo pump?

a)

Every 2 hours

b)

Every 4 hours

c)

Every 6 hours

d)

Every 12 hours

75.

The maximum volume of gastric residuals that is considered a problem during enteral nutrition feeding is:

a)

100 mL

b)

200 mL

c)

500 mL

d)

50 mL

76.

Cologuard is a noninvasive colon cancer screening test that identifies altered DNA and/or blood in stool, which are associated with the possibility of colon cancer or precancer with a ______ accuracy rate.

a)

90%

b)

60%

c)

75%

d)

50%

77.

Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?

a)

Optic

b)

Olfactory

c)

Trigeminal

d)

Facial

78.

What is the function of the Optic nerve?

a)

Smell

b)

Vision

c)

Moves eye

d)

Hearing

79.

The Oculomotor nerve is mainly responsible for _________?

a)

Most eye movement

b)

Hearing

c)

Taste sensation

d)

Facial expression

80.

Which cranial nerve moves the eye downward and inward?

a)

Trochlear

b)

Abducens

c)

Accessory

d)

Vagus

81.

The Trigeminal nerve is responsible for which of the following?

a)

Hearing

b)

Face sensation, mastication

c)

Vision

d)

Swallowing

82.

Which cranial nerve abducts the eye?

a)

Oculomotor

b)

Abducens

c)

Trochlear

d)

Facial

83.

The Facial nerve is involved in facial expression and _______.

a)

taste

b)

hearing

c)

vision

d)

smell

84.

Which cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and balance?

a)

Vestibulocochlear

b)

Glossopharyngeal

c)

Vagus

d)

Accessory

85.

The Glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for taste and _______.

a)

gag reflex

b)

hearing

c)

vision

d)

balance

86.

Which cranial nerve is involved in gag reflex and parasympathetic innervation?

a)

Vagus

b)

Accessory

c)

Hypoglossal

d)

Trigeminal

87.

The Accessory nerve is responsible for ________ shrug.

a)

Shoulder

b)

Neck

c)

Elbow

d)

Wrist

88.

Which cranial nerve is responsible for swallowing and speech?

a)

Olfactory

b)

Hypoglossal

c)

Facial

d)

Vestibulocochlear

89.

Which stage of pressure ulcers is characterized by nonblanchable erythema of intact skin, where the tissue is swollen but not broken?

a)

Stage one

b)

Stage two

c)

Stage three

d)

Stage four

90.

In which stage of pressure ulcers does partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis occur, often accompanied by a blister that is either intact or ruptured?

a)

Stage one

b)

Stage two

c)

Stage three

d)

Stage four

91.

Stage three pressure ulcers are characterized by ________ skin loss, possible undermining or tunneling, and the beginning of necrosis.

a)

full-thickness

b)

partial-thickness

c)

superficial

d)

minimal

92.

In stage one pressure ulcers, the skin is unbroken but inflamed.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Which of the following terms describes a dry, dark scab or falling away of dead skin, which may be present in stage three pressure ulcers?

a)

Slough

b)

Eschar

c)

Epibole

d)

Necrosis

94.

Fill in the blank: In stage two pressure ulcers, the skin loss is ________-thickness with exposed dermis.

a)

partial

b)

full

c)

superficial

d)

deep

95.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Stage Four pressure ulcer?

a)

Partial thickness skin loss

b)

Full thickness skin & tissue loss

c)

Only redness present

d)

No bone exposure

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