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Grade 12 Model Examination

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 3570secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

The atoms A and B have the electronic configurations of 1s2 2s2 2p63S2and 1s2 2s 2 2p5 respectively. The formula of the compound they form together is most likely to be

a)

A2B5

b)

A2B3

c)

A3B

d)

AB2

2.

All of the following molecules have the same type of hybridization except

a)

H2O

b)

NH3

c)

SO3

d)

CH4

3.

Which of the following statement is not true about bond order?

a)

Molecules having zero bond order cannot exist

b)

The higher the bond order is the less the stable the molecule

c)

All triple bonds have three bonds order

d)

It is half the difference b/n bonding electrons & antibonding electrons in molecular orbi

4.

The type of hybridization in C2H6, C2H4 and C2H2 respectively are

a)

SP,Sp2, SP3

b)

SP3, Sp2, SP

c)

Sp, SP3, SP2

d)

SP3, SP, SP2

5.

An atom has an atomic number of 31 and mass number of 70. How many electrons will it have in it's valence shell?

a)

5

b)

4

c)

3

d)

2

6.

In which one of the following does the central atom achieve an octet of electrons?

a)

PCl5

b)

CO2

c)

BH3

d)

BrCl3

7.

What does the correct Lewis structure for the carbonate ions (CO32-) show?

a)

22 valence electrons

b)

16 unshared electrons

c)

4 lone pairs of electrons around the carbon atom

d)

3 bond pairs of electrons

8.

How many lone pairs of electrons are on the bromine atom in bromine triflouride, (BrF3)?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

9.

The VSEPR theory predicts the molecular geometry of SF2 as:

a)

triangular planar

b)

triangular pyramidal

c)

triangular bi pyramidal

d)

V-shaped

10.

Two atoms each contribute two electrons for bonding. The type of covalent bond formed by this way is:

a)

Single covalent bond

b)

double covalent bond

c)

Triple covalent bond

d)

Coordinate covalent bond

11.

Atoms take part in bond formation to

a)

attain a stable electronic configuration

b)

increase their charge density

c)

Increase their energy

d)

Neutralize their charge

12.

Two elements A and B belong to the same group in the periodic table. The atomic number of 'B' is twice that of 'A'. The electronegativity of A is

a)

Equal

b)

Lower

c)

Higher

d)

Twice

13.

Which of the following is true about an atom?

a)

There is an atom with more than one proton but no neutron

b)

An atom has equal number of proton, electron and neutron

c)

An atom of one element is differing from an atom of another element only by their physical properties.

d)

Atoms of the same elements have different masses

14.

"The mass of one element combining with affixed mass of the other element must be in whole number ration" This is according to the law of

a)

Conservation of mass

b)

Definite proportion

c)

Multiple proportion

d)

Mass action

15.

The model of the atom that developed the statement that electrons can be described only interims of the probability of their location is

a)

Bohr's model

b)

Rutherford's model

c)

Quantum mechanical model

d)

Thomson's model

16.

Which of the following is the correct ground state electronic configuration for 29Cu?

a)

1S2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3P6 4S2 3d9

b)

1S2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3Pd10

c)

1S2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3P6 4S1 3d10

d)

1S2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3P64S03d10

17.

Which of the following groups of elements have the same number of electronic configuration?

a)

8O-2, 15P-3, 12Mg+2, 9F-

b)

12Mg+2, 11Na+, 2Ca+2, 13Al+3

c)

19K+, 13Al+3, 14Si+4, 9F-

d)

19k+, 17Cl-, 15P-3, 20ca+2

18.

A certain ion of an atom has a charge of -1 and a valence electron configuration of 4S2 4p6, what is the atomic number of the atom?

a)

35

b)

36

c)

26

d)

37

19.

An element 'A' has only two naturally occurring isotopes. The first isotope has 29 protons and 34 neutrons with fractional abundance of 70%. If the average atomic mass of the element 'A' is 63.5, the number of neutrons present in the second isotope must be

a)

65

b)

36

c)

35

d)

29

20.

Which of the following ideas is introduced by Bohr's model of an atom?

a)

The structure of an atom resembles the solar system

b)

For atoms of the known elements there are four types of sublevels

c)

Electrons revolve around the nucleus in a circular orbit called shell

d)

Electrons are embedded in appositively charged sphere

21.

An atom is electrically neutral because it contains

a)

An equal number of electrons and protons

b)

An equal number of electrons and neutrons

c)

more electrons than protons

d)

More protons than electrons

22.

To which group and period of the periodic table does an element with atomic number of 31 belong?

4 lines
23.

To which group and period of the periodic table does an element with atomic number of 31 belong?

a)

Group IA and period 4

b)

Group IIIA and period 2

c)

Group IIIA and period 4

d)

Group IIA and period 4

24.

Which of the following statement is not true about the properties of the elements in the periodic table?

a)

Elements at the left side of the period have low ionization energy

b)

The reason for the increase of atomic radii down in the group is due to the Increase in nuclear charge

c)

Elements at the left side of the period have large atomic size

d)

Electron affinity of the elements increase from right to left across the period

25.

In any groups of the periodic table elements

a)

Become more reactive in moving down a group

b)

Accept electron more readily as atomic number increase

c)

Gain electron more readily as ionization energy decrease

d)

Lose electron more readily as electron negativity decrease

26.

The formula of ionic compound between group IIIA metals "M" and group VIA non-metal "X" will be

a)

M3X2

b)

M2X3

c)

MX3

d)

M2X

27.

The type of bond formed between elements of low ionization energy and highly electron affinity is

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Covalent bond

c)

Coordinate covalent bond

d)

Metallic bond

28.

In the Lewis structure of PCl3 Phosphorous is surrounded by ____ bonding pairs and _______lone pair respectively

a)

3, 10

b)

5, 1

c)

3, 1

d)

3, 10

29.

Which of the following molecule is polar covalent molecule?

a)

CO2

b)

Ccl4

c)

Ncl3

d)

BF3

30.

Among the following which one contain ionic and covalent bond?

a)

Pcl5

b)

Sf6

c)

K2NO3

d)

Al2O3

31.

The central atom violet an octet rule

a)

CO2

b)

H2S

c)

SF4

d)

SO2

32.

Which of the following forces is not intermolecular force?

a)

Dipole- Dipole force

b)

Dispersion force

c)

Coordinate covalent bond

d)

Hydrogen bond

33.

Hydrogen bond is not present in

a)

NH3

b)

CH3OH

c)

H2O

d)

HCl

34.

An element will atomic number11 would form ionic bond when bonded with an element with Atomic number of

a)

13

b)

17

c)

18

d)

20

35.

The type of bond formed when NH3 reacts with H+ (proton) is

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Covalent bond

c)

dative bond

d)

dispersion force

36.

Which of the following is no a chemical change?

a)

Souring of milk

b)

Rusting of iron

c)

heating of sugar

d)

dissolving of NaCl in water

37.

In every balanced chemical equation all of the following s are conserved except

a)

Number of atoms

b)

Number of mole

c)

Mass of number

d)

Number of charge

38.

When the reaction Al2(SO4)3 +MgCl2→AlCl3 + MgSO4 is correctly balanced, the sum of the coefficients of the reactants and product is

a)

7

b)

9

c)

13

d)

11

39.

Which of the following is an example of synthesis reaction?

a)

NaCl+ MgNO3→ NaNO3 +MgCl2

b)

K2O +H2O→2KOH

c)

2KClO3→2kcl+2O3

d)

2Al + 6HCl→2AlCl3 + 3H2

40.

The type of reaction in which two or more product are formed from a single reaction is

a)

Combination

b)

Decomposition

c)

Metathetical

d)

Single displacement

41.

Give the reaction 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3. How many grams of Al2O3 are produced when 54g of aluminum reacts with excess oxygen?

a)

51g

b)

102g

c)

204g

d)

78g

42.

How many liters of NO2 gas at STP are required to react with water to form 11.2 liters of No Gas according to the equation 3NO2 + H2O → 2HNO3 +NO

a)

3.73 L

b)

33.6L

c)

4.31L

d)

22.4L

43.

In the reaction N2 + 3H2→ 2NH3, if 7 grams of N2 gas reacts with 2 grams of H2 gas, which one of the following is not true?

a)

hydrogen is the limiting reactant

b)

only 0.5 gram of the excess reactant is left unreacted

c)

8.5 grams of NH3 is formed

d)

formation of NH3 depends on nitrogen

44.

When 50g of CaCO3 undergo decomposition by heat, 16g of CO2 gas was obtained. What was the percentage yield of CO2? The reaction is CaCO3 CaO + CO2

a)

58.4%

b)

72.7%

c)

66.3%

d)

89.27%

45.

The oxidation number of phosphorous in Na4P2O7 is

a)

+6

b)

+2

c)

+5

d)

+3

46.

What happens to an oxidizing agent in an oxidation- reduction reaction?

a)

It is oxidized as it loss electron (s)

b)

It is reduced as it loses electron (s)

c)

It is oxidized as if gains electron (s)

d)

It is reduced as if gains electron (s)

47.

Which of the following is not a non- redox reaction?

a)

KOH + HCl KCl+H2O

b)

CaCO3 + AlCl3 Al2 (CO3)3 +Cacl2

c)

Zn + H2SO4 ZnSO4+H2

d)

AgCl+ NaNO3 AgNO3 +NaCl

48.

One of the following is not a pre- condition for a reaction to occur?

a)

proper orientation

b)

activation energy

c)

nature of the reactant

d)

effective collision

49.

Except one all of the followings can affect the rate of a reaction?

a)

surface area

b)

temperature

c)

concentration

d)

solubility

50.

Given the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) + heat 2SO3(g) which change will result in a decrease in the amount of SO3?

a)

Increasing concentration of SO2

b)

Increasing temperature

c)

Decreasing pressure

d)

Decreasing volume

51.

Which of the following reactions of equilibrium is not affected by pressure?

a)

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

b)

H2(g) + F2(g) 2HF(g)

c)

2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(l)

d)

PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) PCl5(g)

52.

Which of the following changes will always increase the amount of products at equilibrium?

4 lines
53.

Which of the following changes will always increase the amount of products at equilibrium?

a)

An increase in pressure

b)

Increase the reactant concentration

c)

An increase in temperature

d)

Addition of catalyst

54.

The volume of a certain confined gas is doubled while the pressure is held constant. What will happen to the temperature of this gas?

a)

It will decrease by half

b)

It will increase by four factor

c)

It will be doubled

d)

It will remain the same

55.

What is the density of CO2 gas at 1atm & 25oc? [R=0.082L.atm/mol.k]

a)

21.5g/L

b)

1.8g/L

c)

0.5g/L

d)

1.2g/L

56.

Oxygen gas (O2) diffuses 2 times an unknown gas. What is the molar mass of the unknown gas?

a)

128

b)

64

c)

22.6

d)

8

57.

Equal volume of different gasses at constant temperature and pressure have equal number of molecules. This is the law of stated by

a)

Boyle's

b)

Charle's

c)

Lussac's

d)

Avogadro

58.

A 10 litres of gas exerts a pressure of 40 atm at constant temperature. What is the new Volume of the gas if the pressure is changed to 80 atm at constant temperature?

a)

5L

b)

20L

c)

2.5L

d)

10L

59.

The volume of 64g of methane gas (CH4) at 27oc and 4atm is

a)

11.2L

b)

49.2L

c)

24.6L

d)

2.214L

60.

The first organic compound synthesized from inorganic compounds has a molecular formula of

a)

NH4Cl

b)

NH4CNO

c)

AgCNO

d)

(NH2)2CO

61.

Isomers are different in all of the following except

a)

Physical properties

b)

Structure

c)

Molar Mass

d)

Arrangement of atoms

62.

All of the following reactions can produce alkane except

a)

CH3COONa + NaOH →

b)

2CH3Cl + 2Na→

c)

CH3 CH2 CH= CH2 +H2 →

d)

CH2= CH2 +H2O →

63.

Which one of the following hydro carbon can exhibit cis - trans geometrical isomerism?

a)

Cl2C= CCl2

b)

CH2= CH2 = CH2- CH3

c)

CHCl = CHBr

d)

CHCl= CBr2

64.

The compound CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3 is

a)

aldehyde

b)

Ketone

c)

Ester

d)

Ether

65.

Which of the following element is found in the most organic compounds combined with carbon atom?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Chlorine

66.

Which of the following represents ternary acid?

a)

HF

b)

H2S

c)

HNO3

d)

HCN

67.

During electrolysis process

a)

Cations lose electrons to form atoms

b)

Anions are attracted to the positive electrodes

c)

Cations are oxidized

d)

Anions are reduced

68.

Suppose that you want to electroplate a spoon made of iron with silver which of the following conditions will make the process workout correctly?

a)

The electrolyte should be made of any soluble salts of iron

b)

The spoon should be made the cathode

c)

The electrolyte should be made of any soluble salts of iron and silver

d)

The electrolyte can be made from any soluble salts except from iron and silver

69.

Which of the following is used as an electrolyte in Leclanche dry cell?

a)

NH4Cl

b)

MnO2

c)

ZnCl2

d)

H2SO4

70.

Which of the following process uses a Galvanic cell?

a)

Purification (refining) of metals

b)

Electrolysis of brine solution

c)

Lead storage battery

d)

Production of sodium from NaCl

71.

Which of the following solution shows current flow in an electronic cell?

a)

Molten solution of sugar

b)

Solution of ethanol

c)

Solid sodium chloride

d)

Hydrochloric acid

72.

Compounds that occur widely in glass, cement and ceramics are

a)

Carbonates

b)

Chlorides

c)

Silicates

d)

Nitrates

73.

What substance is used as a bleaching agent to bleach the brown syrup in the sugar manufacturing process?

a)

Cl2

b)

SO2

c)

H2O2

d)

O3

74.

Which of the following methods is used to reduce air pollution?

a)

Recycling of agricultural wastes

b)

Increasing use of organic fertilizers

c)

Reducing emission of CO2

d)

Recycling of non-biodegradable materials

75.

Nitrates and phosphates as water pollutant

a)

Causes death of water organisms

b)

Increase the amount of dissolved oxygen

c)

Speed up water borne diseases

d)

Accelerate the growth of plants in the water

76.

The substance that deplete the ozone layers is

a)

CO2

b)

CFCs

c)

Heavy metals

d)

Oxides of nitrogen

77.

Global warming is caused by the high accumulation of --------- in the air.

a)

SO2

b)

NO2

c)

CH4

d)

CO2

78.

Which of the following cycles is the slowest cycle?

a)

Carbon cycle

b)

Nitrogen cycle

c)

Phosphorous cycle

d)

Sulphur cycle

79.

Which of the following electromagnetic radiation has the shortest wave length but has highest frequency and energy?

a)

Ultraviolet (UV) rays

b)

Microwaves

c)

Gamma rays

d)

Infrared (IR) rays

80.

Which of the following quantum number is not allowed for an electron of n, l, ml and ms respectively?

a)

3, 2, -1, ½

b)

3, 0, -1, ½

c)

1, 0, 0, ½

d)

6, 5, -4, ½

81.

In which of the following acid- base titration, the resulting solution will have a PH less than seven (7) at the equivalence point?

a)

Strong acid- strong base titration

b)

Weak acid- strong base titration

c)

Strong acid- weak base titration

d)

None of the above

82.

What grams of calcium metal must react with 100mL of 2MHCl according to the balanced reaction Ca + 2HCl CaCl2 + H2?

a)

4g

b)

0.4g

c)

40g

d)

0.04g

83.

According to an Arrhenius concept, an acid is defined as any substance that

a)

Donates a pair of electrons

b)

Donates a proton to abase

c)

Releases hydrogen ion in water

d)

Increases the concentration of hydroxide ion in water solution

84.

A solution of weak base "B" has PH of 9. If we add small amount of a salt containing the conjugate acid of "BH+", which of the following statement is true about th

4 lines
85.

A solution of weak base "B" has PH of 9. If we add small amount of a salt containing the conjugate acid of "BH+", which of the following statement is true about the solution?

a)

The PH increase and the POH decrease

b)

the PH decrease and the POH increase

c)

[OH-] increase and PH decrease

86.

The conjugate acid of C6H5NH2 is

a)

C6H5NH-

b)

C6H5NH2

c)

C6H5NH3

d)

C6H5NH3+

87.

The PH of a solution containing 0.1M HF is (Ka= 6.8x10-4)

a)

3.43

b)

0.89

c)

1.74

d)

2.08

88.

HF (Ka= 6.8 x10-4) is a weak acid and NH3 (Kb= 1.8x10-5) is a weak base. A salt solution of NH4F would be

a)

Strongly acidic

b)

weakly basic

c)

neutral

d)

weakly acidic

89.

which of the following aqueous solutions of these acids will have the smallest PH value?

a)

1MCH3COOH

b)

1MHCN

c)

1MHF

d)

1MHNO2

90.

If Cl2 and Br2 are added into an electrolytic cell contains an aqueous solution of Cl- and Br-, what amount of potential will be produced by the cell?

a)

-0.28V

b)

0.28V

c)

2.44V

d)

-2.44V

91.

What amount of electric current is needed to deposit 0.52g of chromium metal from a solution of Cr3+ in a period of 965 sec?

a)

0.408A

b)

7.9A

c)

3A

d)

0.79A

92.

Which one of the following reaction represents the following cell notation? Co(s)/Sn4+(aq)//Co2+(aq)/Sn2+(aq)

a)

Co2+ (aq ) + Sn2+(aq)

b)

Co(s) + Sn4+(aq)

c)

Co2+(aq) + Sn4+(aq)

d)

Co (s) + Sn4+ (aq)

93.

Which of the following electrolysis have the same cell reaction with the electrolysis of dilute aqueous H2SO4?

a)

Electrolysis of brine solution

b)

Electrolysis of concentrated lead chloride salt

c)

Electrolysis of concentrated HCl solution

d)

Electrolysis of dilute NaCl solution

94.

What makes a Galvanic cell different from an electrolytic cell? In a Galvanic cell:-

a)

The cell reaction is spontaneous.

b)

The transformation of electrical energy into chemical energy takes place.

c)

External source of battery is needed.

d)

The reaction is non-redox reaction

95.

Which of the following is not the function of salt bridge in the galvanic cell?

a)

It allows the electrical contacts in the cell.

b)

It allows the electrical neutrality in the process.

c)

It prevents the mixing of two solutions.

d)

It allows the hydrolysis reaction to occur.

96.

Which one of the following statements is not true about the cell notation, Mg / Mg2+ // Cu2+ / Cu ? (E0Cu2+/ Cu> E0Mg2+/ Mg)

a)

The spontaneous cell reaction is: Mg+ Cu2+→ Cu + Mg2+

b)

The non-spontaneous cell reaction is: Cu + Mg2+→Mg+ Cu2+

c)

Copper acts as cathode in cell notation

d)

The copper acts as cathode in electrolytic cell.

97.

When the net ionic equations: Fe2+ + Cr2O72-→ Cr3+ + Fe3+is balanced by ion electron method in acidic medium , the coefficient of : Fe2+,,Cr3+,Fe3+become respectively

a)

6,1, 2, 6

b)

3,1,2,3

c)

5,1,2,5

d)

1, 1, 2, 1

98.

What are the expected products of the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of molten CaCl2?

a)

Ca & H2 are deposited at cathode and Cl2 and O2 are deposited at anode

b)

Ca is deposited at cathode and Cl2 at anode

c)

Ca and H2 are deposited at cathode and only Cl2 is at anode

d)

Ca is deposited at cathode and Cl2 and O2 at anode

99.

For the reaction: 2A + 3B → 4D + 5E, the rate of the reaction in terms of Δ [D] would be written as:

a)

+ 4 Δ [D] /Δt

b)

+1/4 Δ [D] /Δt

c)

-1/4 Δ [D] /Δt

d)

+ Δ [D] /Δt

100.

Consider the following reaction at equilibrium CH4(g) +H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) +3H2(g), ΔH= +260kJ. Which of the following is not the true effect on the reaction?

a)

Increasing temperature favors the formation of products

b)

Adding CO decreases the amount of H2

c)

Removal of H2 decreases the amount of CO

d)

Decreasing pressure increases the amount of CO

101.

For the reaction:- C(s)+CO2(g) ⇌ 2 CO(g), if the partial pressure of CO2 and CO are 2 atm & 4 atm respectively, what is the value of Kp at equilibrium for this reaction?

a)

8atm

b)

4atm

c)

0.5atm

d)

32atm

102.

Which of the following rate expressions is valid for the gas reaction, N2O5 2NO2 + 12O2?

a)

∆ N2O5∆t = -2 ∆O2∆t

b)

∆ N2O5∆t = 12∆O2∆t

c)

∆ NO2∆t = 4 ∆O2∆t

d)

∆ O2∆t = 2 ∆N2O5∆t

103.

When carboxylic acids react with active metals, which one of the following gases is evolved?

a)

Chlorine

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Carbon dioxide

104.

Compounds that can be used to make artificial flavors and perfumes are

a)

Alcohols

b)

Esters

c)

Ethers

d)

Carboxylic acids

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