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Mental Illness

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Mental illness is common; each year, _ in _ adults

experiences a mental illness.

a)

1 in 3

b)

1 in 5

c)

1 in 6

d)

1 in 4

2.

Mental illnesses are caused by a “weak will,” poor upbringing, or

defects in moral character.

a)

False; they are only targeted by genetic defects.

b)

True; you can only save yourself.

c)

False; they are targeted by genetic defects AND their environment.

3.

Between _ and _ percent of individuals have a reduction of symptoms and improved quality of life with a combination of treatments and supports.

a)

70 and 90

b)

7 and 9

c)

50 and 80

d)

5 and 8

4.

Research shows that less than _of all people dealing with a mental illness receive treatment.

a)

1/4

b)

1/3

c)

1/2

d)

1/8

5.

What is the definition of psychosis?

a)
Psychosis is a mental disorder where an individual experiences a disconnection from reality.
b)
Psychosis is a temporary state of extreme happiness and euphoria.
c)
Psychosis is a condition where individuals have heightened senses and awareness.
d)

Psychosis is someone who behaves in an erratic or violent way, typically without regard for the safety or well-being of others.

6.

A 32-year-old patient goes to the clinic and during the evaluation, he says: "The government implanted a chip in my brain to monitor my thoughts, and the voices tell me not to trust you." Which of the following best represents a verbal cue of psychosis?

a)

Distrust of authority figures.

b)

Anxiety about privacy.

c)

Reference to government surveillance.

d)

Auditory hallucinations and delusional thinking.

7.

During a psychiatric evaluation, a patient maintains intense eye contact, exhibits rigid posture, and frequently makes sudden, purposeless movements. They also appear emotionally flat and do not respond to social cues. Which of the following is the biggest nonverbal sign of psychosis?

a)

Sudden movements.

b)

Intense eye contact.

c)

Poor social responsiveness.

d)

Rigid posture.

8.

What is the definition of depression?

a)

A feeling of sadness, and a loss of hope.

b)

A temporary feeling of sadness in response to a specific event.

c)

A personality trait involving low energy and introversion.

d)
A physical illness that causes fatigue and pain.
9.

Which of the following correctly matches the acronym MOREPIES with active listening skills?

a)

M – Mindfulness, O – Opinions, R – Responding, E – Explaining, P – Pointing out, I – Interpreting, E – Expressing, S – Suggesting

b)

M – Minimal encouragers, O – Open questions, R – Reflecting, E – Emotional labeling, P – Paraphrasing, I – "I" statements, E – Empathy, S – Summarizing

c)

M – Mocking, O – Overexplaining, R – Reassuring, E – Encouraging, P – Planning, I – Imagining, E – Estimating, S – Speaking

d)

M – Monitoring, O – Offering advice, R – Redirecting, E – Empathizing, P – Predicting, I – Interrupting, E – Ending, S – Sharing

10.

During a therapy session, a patient says, "I just feel tired all the time. Nothing seems worth doing anymore. I guess everyone would be better off without me." Which of the following statements is the biggest verbal cue of depression?

a)

Concern for others.

b)

Expressing fatigue.

c)

Lack of motivation.

d)

Suicidal tendencies.

11.

While conducting a welfare check, an officer finds a middle-aged man sitting alone in a dimly lit room. He is unshaven, wearing disheveled clothes, and avoids eye contact. His movements are slow, and he responds to questions with long pauses and minimal expression. Based on this interaction, which of the following is the biggest nonverbal cue of depression?

a)

Sitting in a dimly lit room.

b)

Slow/flat responses.

c)

Eye avoidance.

d)

Poor hygiene

12.

What is the definition of mania?

a)
A state of extreme sadness and low energy.
b)

A state of abnormally elevated energy levels and loss of control.

c)

A temporary feeling of happiness but loss of control.

d)
A condition characterized by excessive sleep and lethargy.
13.

An officer responds to a call about a man causing a disturbance at a local café. When approached, the man speaks rapidly, jumps between unrelated topics, and loudly claims he’s been chosen to lead a global mission. He interrupts frequently and doesn’t seem to notice the officer’s attempts to speak. Based on his verbal behavior, what mental health condition might the officer suspect?

a)

Schizophrenia

b)

Mania

c)

Anxiety

d)

Depression

14.

An officer encounters a woman pacing rapidly outside a convenience store late at night. She’s making exaggerated hand gestures, her eyes are wide and darting, and she appears overly energetic despite the hour. She smiles intensely and shifts her posture frequently. What nonverbal signs suggest she may be experiencing a manic episode?

a)

Hyperactivity of self and gestures.

b)

Slurred speech and wild eyelids.

c)

Being a night owl.

d)

Loitering outside a private building.

15.

What is the definition of anxiety?

a)
  • A temporary feeling of nervousness before a stressful event.

b)

A fear response triggered by a specific, identifiable threat.

c)

A mood disorder characterized by alternating periods of high and low energy.

d)

A persistent and excessive loss of perspective that interferes with daily functioning

16.

An officer is called to a quiet neighborhood where a man is seen pacing near his car late at night. When approached, the man speaks quickly, stumbles over his words, and repeatedly asks if he’s in trouble. He avoids eye contact, wrings his hands, and shifts his weight from foot to foot. What do these verbal and nonverbal cues most likely indicate?

a)

Intoxication

b)

Anxiety

c)

Aggression

d)

Defiance

17.

What is the definition of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder?

a)

A condition triggered by experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event.

b)
A physical injury caused by an accident.
c)
A condition that only affects soldiers.
d)
A type of anxiety that occurs without any trauma.
18.

Which of the following best describes a key difference between how PTSD symptoms typically present in adults versus children?

a)

Adults are more likely to show behavioral regression, such as bedwetting.

b)
  • Children often experience flashbacks and hypervigilance more intensely than adults.

c)

Adults tend to express PTSD through emotional and cognitive symptoms, while children often show behavioral and developmental changes.

d)

PTSD symptoms are generally the same across all age groups.

19.

Treat each person you encounter as an individual with __ and

__.

a)

respect; disdain

b)

indifference; neglect

c)

disrespect; insignificance

d)

respect; dignity

20.

Law enforcement is immune to PTSD.

a)
True
b)
False
21.

What is definition of developmental disabilities according to N.C.G.S. 122C-3(12a)?

a)

The condition must be manifested before age 22.

b)

The disability must result in limitations in at least one major life activity.

c)

The condition must be likely to continue indefinitely.

d)

The person must require individually planned and coordinated services.

22.

Which of the following is an example of a developmental disability?

a)
Autism spectrum disorder
b)
Down syndrome
c)
Cerebral palsy
d)
Dyslexia
23.

Which of the following behaviors may law enforcement officers observe when interacting with a person who has an intellectual disability?

a)

Rapid decision-making and assertive communication.

b)

Clear understanding and recall of legal rights.

c)

Aggressive behavior and refusal to cooperate.

d)

Difficulty maintaining eye contact, delayed responses, and acquiescence to authority.

24.

What is autism spectrum disorder?

a)
A mental illness that only affects children
b)
A genetic disorder that causes vision problems
c)
A type of physical disability
d)

A neurodevelopmental condition affecting social interaction, communication, and behavior.

25.

What is a traumatic brain injury?

a)
A traumatic brain injury is a type of mental illness.
b)
A traumatic brain injury is caused by a lack of oxygen to the brain.
c)
A traumatic brain injury is damage to the brain caused by an external force.
d)
A traumatic brain injury is a genetic disorder affecting brain function.
26.

Which of the following may be observed by law enforcement officers when interacting with a person who has a traumatic brain injury?

a)

Slowness in thinking or speaking, confusion, and mood swings.

b)

Rapid, organized speech and clear memory recall.

c)

High energy levels and consistent eye contact.

d)

Aggressive behavior with no neurological basis.

27.

What is the definition of cerebral palsy?

a)
A temporary loss of consciousness due to stress.
b)
A condition that causes excessive brain activity.
c)

Neurological disorders that affect movement and coordination due to brain damage.

d)
A psychological disorder related to anxiety.
28.

Which of the following characteristics may law enforcement officers observe in a person with cerebral palsy?

a)
  • Slurred or slow speech, muscle stiffness, and unsteady movements.

b)

Rapid speech, erratic behavior, and hyperactivity.

c)

Clear articulation, coordinated movement, and high responsiveness.

d)

Lack of physical symptoms but strong verbal aggression.

29.

What is a mobile crisis team?

a)
A mobile crisis team is a group of mental health professionals that responds to mental health crises in the community.
b)
A mobile crisis team is a hotline that provides mental health support over the phone.
c)
A mobile crisis team is a type of emergency vehicle used for transportation.
d)
A mobile crisis team is a group of police officers that enforce laws in the community.
30.

What is the purpose of LME/MCO?

a)
To provide financial assistance for medical bills.
b)
To conduct research on healthcare policies.
c)
To train healthcare professionals in new technologies.
d)
To coordinate and manage healthcare services for individuals.
31.

When at the final destination of the

respondent, be it a respondent’s house or the licensed twenty-

four (24) hour facility, you, as the law enforcement officer,

must bring what back to the county?

a)
the respondent
b)
the vehicle used for transport
c)

the original paper

d)
the officer's report
32.

What is the definition of anosognosia?

a)
Anosognosia refers to a heightened awareness of one's abilities.
b)
Anosognosia is a type of therapy for mental health.
c)
Anosognosia is a lack of awareness of one's own illness or disability.
d)
Anosognosia is a medical condition that improves memory.
33.

Which of the following is a recognized warning sign that a person may be at risk of suicide?

a)

Avoidance of social media and digital communication.

b)
  • Sudden improvement in mood after a long period of depression.

c)

Expressing frustration with minor inconveniences.

d)

Increased interest in future plans and long-term goals.

34.

Which of the following is a commonly cited reason for the high risk of suicide among law enforcement officers?

a)

Lack of physical fitness requirements.

b)

Frequent job promotions and recognition.

c)

Exposure to trauma, stigma around mental health, and easy access to firearms.

d)

Excessive vacation time and low workload to think about things.

35.

One study revealed __% of all police officers that

responded scored highly in the detection of stress and stress factors

regarding to his or her jobs.

a)

41%

b)

64%

c)

50%

d)

23%

36.

Which of the following is a common symptom of chronic stress in law enforcement officers?

a)

Increased appetite and social engagement.

b)

Decreased sensitivity to traumatic events.

c)

Enhanced multitasking and memory recall.

d)

Emotional detachment, insomnia, and irritability.

37.

Which of the following statements is a myth about suicide?

a)

Talking about suicide can help prevent it.

b)

Many suicides are linked to untreated mental illness.

c)

Suicide can affect anyone, regardless of age or background.

d)

People who talk about suicide are just seeking attention.

38.

Which of the following is considered an effective intervention strategy when a person has lost hope and may be suicidal?

a)

Avoid discussing suicide to prevent triggers.

b)

Offer reassurance by saying “everything will be fine”.

c)

Listen actively, express concern, and ask directly about suicidal thoughts.

d)

Encourage them to be alone to reflect on their feelings

39.

Which of the following is an example of a physical barrier that may interfere with effective communication with a person who has a disability?

a)

Assuming the person cannot understand due to their disability.

b)

Speaking too quickly during an interaction.

c)

A loud television.

d)

Using complex language or jargon.

40.

Which of the following best describes the importance of an officer’s body language during interactions with individuals with disabilities?

a)

Body language is less important than verbal.

b)

Neutral or closed body language helps maintain authority.

c)

Positive body language can de-escalate tension and build trust.

d)

Officers should avoid eye contact to prevent any triggers.

41.

What position should an officer stand in when speaking with an individual who has a disability?

a)
Stand behind the individual to maintain distance.
b)
Stand with arms crossed to appear authoritative.
c)

Sit above to make the individual feel more comfortable.

d)

Be at eye level with the individual.

e)

Be open and welcoming.

42.

Remember, you do not have to agree with the individual’s

point of view; you simply need to understand his/her point of

view.

a)
Understanding an individual's point of view does not require agreement.
b)
Understanding requires complete agreement.
43.

Working with the ____ to make decisions and taking an active role in developing his/her plan of action will go a long way to making them feel empowered and work towards them.

a)
individual
b)

medical professional

c)
team
d)
organization
44.

De-escalating people in crisis begins with having the right ___ or

___.

a)

methods; strategies

b)

mindset; attitude

c)

guidelines; protocols

d)

tools; resources

45.

Why do you try to give the individual in crisis a sense that they are in control?

a)
It makes them feel more anxious and overwhelmed.
b)
It allows the helper to take control of the situation.
c)
It is irrelevant to their emotional state.
d)
It helps reduce anxiety and empowers them to make choices.
46.

Which of the following best supports the idea that effective nonverbal de-escalation is a skill that can be learned?

a)

Nonverbal communication is instinctive and cannot be changed.

b)

Officers should rely solely on verbal commands to manage conflict.

c)

Losing some command presence, facial expression, and movement can reduce tension in high-stress encounters.

d)

De-escalation only works if the subject is already calm.

47.

What does ELEAP stand for?

a)

Evaluate, Lead, Engage, Act, Protect

b)

Empathize, Listen, Explain, Ask, Partner

c)
  • Enter, Learn, Educate, Assist, Prevent

d)

Engage, Listen, Empathize, Agree, Partner

48.

How can you practice maintaining your composure?

a)
Practice yelling to release tension.
b)

Figure out your "hot buttons".

c)
Avoid all stressful situations completely.
d)
Focus on negative thoughts to understand them.
49.

What is the three-step assertive intervention?

a)

Engage, Listen, Act

b)

Empathy, Concern, Action

c)

Command, Control, Comply

d)

Observe, React, Respond

50.

Which of the following is the best example of an empathy statement?

a)

“You need to calm down right now.”

b)

“Let’s move on and forget about what happened.”

c)

“If you don’t cooperate, there will be consequences.”

d)

“I can see that you're really upset, and that must be difficult.”

51.

Which of the following is the best example of a concern statement?

a)

I’m worried that you might hurt yourself or someone else.”

b)

“You need to calm down.”

c)

“Let’s talk about something else.”

d)

“I understand this is frustrating.”

52.

Which of the following is the best example of an action statement?

a)

“Let’s just wait and see what happens.”“I’m not sure what to do next.”

b)

“I need you to take a deep breath and sit down so we can talk.”

c)

“You’re making me uncomfortable.”

d)

“I’m not sure what to do next.”

53.

When interviewing a person with a developmental disability or brain injury, a law enforcement officer should:

a)

Speak quickly to avoid confusion.

b)

Use complex language to test their comprehension.

c)

Use simple, clear language and allow extra time for responses.

d)

Assume they are being deceptive if they hesitate or repeat themselves.

54.

When you find out a disabled individual's name, you should not call it out repeatedly because they do not feel free to leave.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Avoid asking (a)   questions,

56.

When dealing with an autistic individual what should you avoid doing if possible?

a)

Using clear and direct language.

b)

Encouraging loud environments.

c)

Offering multiple choices at once.

d)

Physically touching.

57.

The use of physical force on a person suffering from a mental illness

or an intellectual disability should be your --- ---.

a)
immediate action
b)
last resort
c)
first choice
d)
standard procedure
e)

exigent circumstance

58.

What was the central issue in San Francisco v. Sheehan (2015)?

a)

Whether officers violated the Fourth Amendment by entering a home without a warrant.

b)

Whether the Americans with Disabilities Act required officers to accommodate a mentally ill suspect during a confrontation.

c)

Whether officers used excessive force during a traffic stop.

d)

Whether Miranda rights were violated during a custodial interrogation

59.

When does the interaction between law enforcement and individuals

with mental illness or developmental disabilities generally occur?

a)

misdemeanors

b)

felonies

60.

After successfully de-escalating a situation involving a person with mental illness or developmental disabilities, what are the possible actions law enforcement may take?

a)

Leave the person at the scene or take them home.

b)

Contact support services like LME/MCO, crisis line, or EMS.

c)

Take the person into custody.

d)

All of the above.

61.

When should law enforcement contact EMS for a person with mental illness or developmental disabilities?

a)

Only if the person requests medical attention.

b)

Only after consulting with a supervisor.

c)

If the person shows signs like unresponsiveness, difficulty breathing, or uncontrolled bleeding.

d)

If the person refuses to cooperate during questioning.

62.

When force becomes necessary, the greater the duration in

which force is used, the greater the perception of ___.

a)
pain
b)
tension
c)

brutality

d)
discomfort
63.

If you decided to withdraw and depart, do not turn back around to address the subject unless there is an immediate need to respond to the same or a new criminal act or threat.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

What are the types of commitments?

a)

Voluntary, and Emergency, Involuntary, and Emergency

b)

Civil, Criminal, and Medical

c)

Temporary, Permanent, and Conditional

d)

Local, State, and Federal

65.

To the extent feasible, in providing transportation of a

respondent, a city or county shall provide a driver or attendant

who is the same ___ as the respondent.

a)
nationality
b)
gender
c)
occupation
d)
age
66.

An officer may assist an individual found intoxicated

in a public place by taking the following action:

a)
Offer them alcohol to sober up
b)
Arrest the individual immediately
c)
Ignore the individual and walk away
d)

Contact a friend or family member.

67.

a person who abuses substances and who is dangerous to

himself or others

+

violent and requires restraint

+

delay creates a danger to life and property

a)
Emergency services should be contacted only if they ask for help.
b)
Emergency intervention is required.
c)
The person should be left alone.
d)
No action is necessary.
68.

The process of IVC begins when the petitioner files an ___

and petition for commitment.

a)

affidavit

b)
form
c)
request
d)
application
69.

What does dangerous to others mean?

a)
It means being friendly and helpful to others.
b)
It means posing a risk of harm or injury to other people.
c)
It refers to a state of being calm and peaceful.
d)
It indicates a lack of interest in social interactions.
70.

What does dangerous to self mean?

a)
It indicates a preference for solitude and quietness.
b)
It means having a strong desire to succeed in life.
c)
It refers to being overly cautious in daily activities.
d)
It means engaging in actions or having thoughts that could result in self-harm or self-injury.