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FDNB1044 Economics MCQ Quiz

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Scarcity in economics means:

a)

Unlimited resources, unlimited wants

b)

Limited resources, unlimited wants

c)

Unlimited resources, limited wants

d)

Limited resources, limited wants

2.

The Production Possibility Curve (PPC) shows:

a)

Maximum possible output combinations of two goods

b)

Actual production in an economy

c)

The demand for goods in the market

d)

Government spending

3.

Opportunity cost is:

a)

The cost of producing one more unit

b)

The next best alternative forgone

c)

The amount of money spent on production

d)

The profit earned from production

4.

If moving from point C to D on the PPC requires giving up 1.5 kg of grapes to gain 1 kg of apples, the opportunity cost of 1 kg of apples is:

a)

1.5 kg grapes

b)

1 kg grapes

c)

2 kg grapes

d)

0.5 kg grapes

5.

A movement along a demand curve occurs when:

a)

Price changes

b)

Consumer income changes

c)

Tastes change

d)

Technology changes

6.

A shift in the demand curve occurs when:

a)

Price of the good changes

b)

Only supply changes

c)

Non-price factors change

d)

Quantity supplied changes

7.

Normal goods have:

a)

Positive relationship with income

b)

Negative relationship with income

c)

No relationship with income

d)

Constant demand regardless of income

8.

Inferior goods have:

a)

Positive income elasticity

b)

Negative income elasticity

c)

Zero income elasticity

d)

Elastic demand

9.

Public goods are:

a)

Rival and excludable

b)

Non-rival and non-excludable

c)

Rival but non-excludable

d)

Excludable but non-rival

10.

Merit goods are provided by the government because:

a)

They are harmful

b)

They are under-consumed if left to the market

c)

They have no cost

d)

They are private goods

11.

Which is an example of a merit good?

a)

Cigarettes

b)

Education

c)

Gambling

d)

Private security

12.

In Sabah and Sarawak, scarcity is most evident in:

a)

Freshwater resources in remote villages

b)

Shopping malls

c)

Imported luxury cars

d)

Social media usage

13.

Which statement about PPC is true?

a)

Points inside PPC are inefficient

b)

Points outside PPC are always attainable

c)

PPC cannot shift over time

d)

PPC shows only market prices

14.

An increase in productive resources will:

a)

Shift PPC outward

b)

Shift PPC inward

c)

Cause movement along PPC

d)

Reduce opportunity cost

15.

If the price of coconuts rises, ceteris paribus:

a)

Quantity demanded increases

b)

Quantity demanded decreases

c)

Demand curve shifts right

d)

Supply curve shifts left

16.

Market equilibrium occurs when:

a)

Demand equals supply

b)

Demand is greater than supply

c)

Supply is greater than demand

d)

Prices are falling

17.

A price above equilibrium causes:

a)

Shortage

b)

Surplus

c)

Market clearing

d)

Price stability

18.

A price ceiling set below equilibrium will cause:

a)

Surplus

b)

Shortage

c)

No change

d)

Increase in supply

19.

If the government sets RM7 as maximum price for coconuts when equilibrium is RM10, there will be:

a)

Shortage

b)

Surplus

c)

Equilibrium

d)

Excess supply

20.

Law of demand states that:

a)

Price and quantity demanded move in the same direction

b)

Price and quantity demanded move in opposite directions

c)

Price affects supply only

d)

Demand is unaffected by price

21.

Law of supply states that:

a)

Price and quantity supplied move in the same direction

b)

Price and quantity supplied move in opposite directions

c)

Price affects demand only

d)

Supply is fixed

22.

When demand increases and supply remains constant:

a)

Price falls

b)

Price rises

c)

Price unchanged

d)

Supply decreases

23.

When supply increases and demand remains constant:

a)

Price rises

b)

Price falls

c)

Price unchanged

d)

Demand decreases

24.

At equilibrium price:

a)

Quantity demanded > quantity supplied

b)

Quantity supplied > quantity demanded

c)

No shortage or surplus exists

d)

Market fails

25.

A leftward shift in demand curve means:

a)

Increase in demand

b)

Decrease in demand

c)

Increase in supply

d)

Decrease in supply

26.

If supply decreases while demand is constant:

a)

Price falls

b)

Price rises

c)

Price unchanged

d)

Demand increases

27.

Consumer income increase will shift demand for normal goods:

a)

Right

b)

Left

c)

Downward along curve

d)

Upward along curve

28.

If two goods are substitutes, an increase in price of one will:

a)

Increase demand for the other

b)

Decrease demand for the other

c)

Not affect demand

d)

Decrease supply

29.

If two goods are complements, an increase in price of one will:

a)

Increase demand for the other

b)

Decrease demand for the other

c)

Not affect demand

d)

Increase supply

30.

A market is in disequilibrium when:

a)

Price is at equilibrium

b)

Surplus or shortage exists

c)

No buyers exist

d)

No sellers exist

31.

What happens to the demand curve when consumer preferences shift towards a product?

a)

It shifts left

b)

It shifts right

c)

It remains unchanged

d)

It becomes vertical

32.

Which of the following would likely cause a leftward shift in the supply curve?

a)

Increase in production costs

b)

Technological advancements

c)

Decrease in consumer demand

d)

Increase in the number of suppliers

33.

What is the effect of a price floor set above equilibrium?

a)

Increases demand

b)

Creates a surplus

c)

Creates a shortage

d)

No effect on the market

34.

If PED > 1, demand is:

a)

Elastic

b)

Inelastic

c)

Unitary

d)

Perfectly inelastic

35.

If PED = 1, demand is:

a)

Elastic

b)

Inelastic

c)

Unitary elastic

d)

Perfectly elastic

36.

Which factor affects PED the most?

a)

Availability of substitutes

b)

Government taxes

c)

Number of sellers

d)

Law of supply

37.

Luxury goods tend to have:

a)

Elastic demand

b)

Inelastic demand

c)

Perfectly elastic demand

d)

Perfectly inelastic demand

38.

Necessities tend to have:

a)

Elastic demand

b)

Inelastic demand

c)

Perfectly elastic demand

d)

Unitary demand

39.

Cross elasticity of demand measures:

a)

Change in demand for one good due to change in price of another

b)

Change in supply due to change in price

c)

Change in income due to change in price

d)

Change in demand due to change in income

40.

Positive cross elasticity means goods are:

a)

Complements

b)

Substitutes

c)

Unrelated

d)

Inferior goods

41.

Negative cross elasticity means goods are:

a)

Complements

b)

Substitutes

c)

Unrelated

d)

Normal goods

42.

Income elasticity of demand measures:

a)

Change in demand due to change in income

b)

Change in supply due to change in income

c)

Change in income due to change in demand

d)

Change in price due to change in demand

43.

If income elasticity > 0, the good is:

a)
substitute good
b)
luxury good
c)
inferior good
d)
normal good
44.

If income elasticity < 0, the good is:

a)
normal good
b)
luxury good
c)
inferior good
d)
substitute good
45.

If income elasticity > 1, the good is:

a)

Luxury

b)

Necessity

c)

Inferior

d)

Complement

46.

If income elasticity between 0 and 1, the good is:

a)

Luxury

b)

Necessity

c)

Inferior

d)

Complement

47.

PED for addictive goods like cigarettes is usually:

a)

Elastic

b)

Inelastic

c)

Perfectly elastic

d)

Unitary elastic

48.

In rural Sabah, demand for basic rice is likely to be:

a)

Elastic

b)

Inelastic

c)

Perfectly elastic

d)

Unitary elastic

49.

If the price of Good X decreases and demand for Good Y increases, X and Y are:

a)

Complements

b)

Substitutes

c)

Unrelated

d)

Inferior goods

50.

If the price of Good X decreases and demand for Good Y decreases, X and Y are:

a)

Complements

b)

Substitutes

c)

Unrelated

d)

Normal goods

51.

Total utility is:

a)

Additional satisfaction from one more unit

b)

Overall satisfaction from consumption

c)

Price paid for goods

d)

Cost of production

52.

Marginal utility is:

a)

Additional satisfaction from consuming one more unit

b)

Overall satisfaction from consumption

c)

Price paid for goods

d)

Cost of production

53.

Law of diminishing marginal utility states that:

a)

Marginal utility increases with each additional unit

b)

Marginal utility decreases after a certain point

c)

Total utility decreases as consumption increases

d)

Price falls as demand rises

54.

If a bowl of salad costs RM3 and gives 15 utils, MU per RM is:

a)

5

b)

45

c)

3

d)

15

55.

Indifference curves slope:

a)

Vertical

b)

Upwards

c)

Flat

d)

Downwards

56.

Higher indifference curves represent:

a)

Lower satisfaction

b)

Zero satisfaction

c)

Equal satisfaction

d)

Higher satisfaction

57.

Indifference curves are:

a)

Convex to the origin

b)

Concave to the origin

c)

Straight lines

d)

Parallel lines

58.

Two indifference curves can:

a)

Intersect

b)

Be the same curve for all goods

c)

Always be parallel

d)

Never intersect

59.

Budget line shows:

a)

Government spending

b)

All possible production combinations

c)

Only the most preferred combinations

d)

All combinations of goods affordable at given income and prices

60.

A shift in the budget line can be caused by:

a)

Change in income

b)

Change in prices

c)

Both A and B

d)

Change in taste only

61.

If income increases, budget line shifts:

a)

Outward

b)

Inward

c)

Rotates clockwise

d)

Rotates anticlockwise

62.

If price of one good decreases, budget line:

a)

Rotates outward along that axis

b)

Rotates inward along that axis

c)

Shifts parallel inward

d)

Shifts parallel outward

63.

At consumer equilibrium, the slope of the indifference curve equals:

a)

Price ratio of two goods

b)

Total utility

c)

Marginal utility

d)

Income level

64.

Total product (TP) is:

a)

Output per worker

b)

Maximum possible output

c)

Output at zero workers

d)

Total output produced by all workers

65.

Marginal product (MP) is:

a)

Price multiplied by quantity

b)

Output per unit of capital

c)

Total product divided by total input

d)

Change in total product divided by change in input

66.

When MP is rising, total product is:

a)

Falling

b)

Constant

c)

Increasing at a decreasing rate

d)

Increasing at an increasing rate

67.

The law of diminishing returns states:

a)

Returns never change

b)

Adding more of a variable input reduces total product

c)

Adding more of a variable input will always increase marginal product

d)

Adding more of a variable input will eventually reduce marginal product

68.

Stage 1 of production ends when:

a)

MP = 0

b)

MP reaches its maximum

c)

TP reaches its maximum

d)

AP = MP

69.

In Stage 2 of production:

a)

TP increases, MP is positive but decreasing

b)

TP decreases, MP is negative

c)

TP is constant

d)

MP increases

70.

Stage 3 of production begins when:

a)

MP is negative

b)

MP is zero

c)

AP is constant

d)

TP is increasing

71.

A rational producer operates in:

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

All stages equally

72.

In short run, at least:

a)

All inputs are variable

b)

One input is fixed

c)

No inputs are fixed

d)

All inputs are fixed

73.

In long run, all inputs are:

a)

Fixed

b)

Variable

c)

Constant

d)

Irrelevant

74.

MP is calculated by:

a)

TP ÷ number of inputs

b)

ΔTP ÷ Δinput

c)

TP × price

d)

Price ÷ quantity

75.

If TP is 125 units with 3 workers, and 85 units with 2 workers, MP of 3rd worker is:

a)

40

b)

85

c)

125

d)

3

76.

The point where TP is maximum, MP is:

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Infinite

d)

Zero

77.

Increasing returns to scale means:

a)

Output increases more than proportionately to inputs

b)

Output increases less than proportionately to inputs

c)

Output is constant when inputs increase

d)

Output decreases when inputs increase

78.

Constant returns to scale means:

a)

Output changes proportionately to inputs

b)

Output changes more than inputs

c)

Output changes less than inputs

d)

Output decreases when inputs increase

79.

Fixed costs are:

a)

Costs that change with output

b)

Costs that vary per unit

c)

Costs that are zero in short run

d)

Costs that remain constant regardless of output

80.

Variable costs are:

a)

Costs that change with output

b)

Costs that remain constant regardless of output

c)

Always zero

d)

Not part of total cost