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NC1 SET 3

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 4hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A primigravida at 12 weeks requests guidance on prenatal vitamins and nausea. Which advice is most appropriate today?

a)

Begin iron at 60-120 mg elemental daily and avoid vitamin B6 entirely

b)

Use prenatal with folic acid 400-800 µg daily; try small meals and B6 as tolerated

c)

Delay all supplements until the second trimester for better tolerance

d)

Replace prenatal vitamins with high-dose herbal ginger formulations exclusively

2.

A 22-week client asks about exercise while pregnant. Which action is best?

a)

Discontinue all aerobic activity until 36 weeks

b)

Continue moderate activity most days if no contraindication; avoid contact or high-fall sports

c)

Start high-intensity interval training to reduce gestational weight

d)

Begin hot yoga classes to improve flexibility and sleep

3.

At 18 weeks, a client reports lightheadedness when supine. What should the nurse teach first?

a)

Increase dietary sodium at dinner to raise intravascular volume

b)

Lie in left lateral tilt when resting to relieve vena cava compression

c)

Wear a tight abdominal binder during sleep for support

d)

Reduce fluid intake after 1700 to limit nocturia

4.

A 26-week client asks whether new mild ankle edema is normal. What response is best?

a)

Physiologic edema can occur; elevate legs, use left-side rest, and evaluate if sudden or with symptoms

b)

Any leg swelling is a red flag and requires ED triage now

c)

Salt tablets should be taken twice daily to improve swelling

d)

Diuretics should be started to prevent skin breakdown

5.

A 28-week client asks about fetal movement counting. What instruction is most accurate?

a)

Movements must reach 15 in 30 minutes to be normal

b)

Aim for 10 movements within up to 2 hours during usual active times

c)

Count only after large meals to standardize results

d)

Stop counting after 30 weeks because patterns stabilize

6.

During routine prenatal labs, which tests are standard in low-risk pregnancy at the first visit? Select all that apply.

a)

ABO/Rh type and antibody screen

b)

HIV, Hep B surface antigen, and syphilis screening

c)

Rubella immunity and varicella history or titer as indicated

d)

D-dimer and troponin to establish baseline values

e)

CBC and urine culture to screen for anemia and asymptomatic bacteriuria

7.

A 32-week client with a healthy pregnancy asks about air travel for a 2-hour domestic flight. What should the nurse recommend?

a)

Avoid all flights after 28 weeks due to thrombosis risk

b)

Travel is acceptable if uncomplicated; hydrate, walk periodically, and wear a seatbelt low across hips

c)

Use sedatives to sleep through turbulence and contractions

d)

Choose an aisle seat and decline seatbelt use to reduce pressure

8.

At 34 weeks, the client asks about TDaP timing. What is the best response?

a)

Postpone TDaP to the postpartum period for passive transfer

b)

Receive TDaP during 27-36 weeks to optimize neonatal antibody levels

c)

Avoid TDaP in third trimester due to maternal syncope risk

d)

Give TDaP only if there is a local pertussis outbreak

9.

A 39-week client in early labor requests nonpharmacologic pain measures. Which nursing action is best now?

a)

Keep the client supine to reduce fatigue and conserve energy

b)

Encourage upright and mobile positions, rhythmic breathing, heat or counter-pressure as desired

c)

Begin directed Valsalva breathing between contractions

d)

Start restriction of oral fluids to limit gastric contents

10.

A healthy term newborn in the first hour of life is vigorous and crying. Which immediate actions support a physiologic transition? Select all that apply.

a)

Dry thoroughly and place skin-to-skin with the mother if stable

b)

Delay cord clamping when feasible per protocol

c)

Routine separation for a full bath before feeding

d)

Initiate breastfeeding when infant shows feeding cues

e)

Provide glucose water to prevent early hypoglycemia

11.

During second stage, the FHR tracing is reassuring. Which pushing support is most appropriate?

a)

Coach physiologic spontaneous pushing in positions of comfort

b)

Require continuous lithotomy to standardize delivery

c)

Direct sustained Valsalva for at least 10 seconds each effort

d)

Delay all pushing until crowning is visible

12.

A term multipara requests hydrotherapy in active labor without complications. What is the best nursing action?

a)

Offer hydrotherapy with safety screening and temperature control per unit protocol

b)

Avoid water immersion because it increases infection rates

c)

Approve hydrotherapy only during second stage pushing

d)

Limit immersion to five minutes to prevent fetal tachycardia

13.

Immediately after a routine vaginal birth, the fundus is firm at the umbilicus, midline; lochia is moderate rubra; vitals are stable. What is the next best nursing step?

a)

Support skin-to-skin and initiate breastfeeding within the first hour

b)

Catheterize the bladder to prevent overdistention

c)

Begin oxytocin infusion only if bleeding increases

d)

Transfer immediately to nursery for newborn exam and bath

14.

A breastfeeding parent reports nipple pain on day 3. Which teaching promotes a deep latch? Select all that apply.

a)

Align nose to nipple and wait for a wide gape, then bring baby to breast

b)

Aim an asymmetric latch with more areola visible above than below

c)

Place the nipple at the center of the closed mouth quickly

d)

Ensure chin contacts breast and cheeks remain rounded without dimpling

e)

Pull the infant's head forward by the occiput during attachment

15.

On postpartum day 2, which lochia pattern is expected for a stable client?

a)

Lochia alba with minimal volume

b)

Lochia rubra with decreasing volume and no clots

c)

Lochia serosa with foul odor and moderate clots

d)

Absent lochia with increasing uterine size

16.

A term newborn at 12 hours of life has RR 48, irregular breathing, acrocyanosis, and vigorous cry. What action is indicated?

a)

Begin oxygen via mask because of acrocyanosis

b)

Observe and keep warm; findings are normal for age

c)

Start continuous positive airway pressure immediately

d)

Delay feeds until breathing rate is consistently below 40

17.

A 2-day newborn is due for discharge. What safe sleep teaching should the nurse include? Select all that apply.

a)

Place supine for every sleep on a firm, flat surface

b)

Room-share without bed-sharing for the first months

c)

Use soft pillows and positioners to prevent flat spots

d)

Avoid smoke exposure and overheating of the sleep environment

e)

Let the infant sleep overnight in a car seat to reduce reflux

18.

A postpartum parent asks about engorgement on day 4 while breastfeeding. What is the best guidance?

a)

Skip feeds to allow swelling to subside

b)

Feed frequently with good latch; warm before feeds and cool packs after

c)

Bind breasts tightly to reduce milk volume

d)

Restrict fluids until breasts soften

19.

A 30-minute-old term infant, vigorous and pink on room air, is scheduled for a bath. What is the nurse's priority action?

a)

Delay the bath until thermoregulation and bonding are established

b)

Proceed with a full bath to reduce skin colonization

c)

Bathe only the head and keep the body uncovered

d)

Apply alcohol wipes to remove vernix thoroughly

20.

At a 6-week postpartum visit, which findings require urgent evaluation rather than routine reassurance? Select all that apply.

a)

Severe headache with visual changes

b)

Heavy lochia with large clots and dizziness

c)

Mild perineal soreness improving each day

d)

Persistent fever ≥38.0 °C with uterine tenderness

e)

Brief 'baby blues' resolving within two weeks

21.

A healthy exclusively breastfed infant at 2 weeks has surpassed birth weight and has 6-8 wets and several yellow seedy stools daily. The parent asks about supplementation. What should the nurse recommend?

a)

Begin daily vitamin D supplementation for the infant

b)

Add water between feeds to prevent constipation

c)

Start iron drops now to prevent anemia

d)

Replace one breastfeed daily with formula

22.

A term infant 24 hours old has a bilirubin in the low-intermediate risk zone and is feeding well. What is the best nursing plan?

a)

Encourage frequent effective feeds and arrange routine follow-up bilirubin checks

b)

Begin prophylactic phototherapy for 24 hours

c)

Keep the infant NPO to reduce bilirubin production

d)

Supplement glucose water to prevent kernicterus

23.

A multip at 41 weeks in early labor asks how to optimize progress without medications. Which nursing strategies are appropriate? Select all that apply.

a)

Upright and mobile positions to enhance pelvic diameters

b)

Hydration, light nutrition, and bladder emptying regularly

c)

Supine bedrest to conserve energy throughout labor

d)

Continuous labor support and relaxation techniques

e)

Early directed Valsalva pushing before full dilation

24.

A postpartum client asks about resuming sexual activity. Which guidance is most appropriate?

a)

Wait six months regardless of recovery

b)

Resume when bleeding has ceased, perineum or incision is healed, it is comfortable, and contraception is in place

c)

Resume at one week to reduce dyspareunia

d)

Avoid condoms while breastfeeding because of estrogen changes

25.

A rooming-in term newborn is sleepy and feeding ineffectively at 20 hours. What is the best initial nursing action?

a)

Switch fully to formula for the next 24 hours

b)

Place skin-to-skin, assess latch and transfer, and wake for feeds every 2-3 hours

c)

Offer a pacifier between feeds to organize sleep

d)

Delay feeds until the infant is more alert spontaneously

26.

A 10-week client asks how to lower nausea while continuing a prenatal vitamin. Which advice is best today?

a)

Take the vitamin with a small snack and try vitamin B6 as needed

b)

Take the vitamin at bedtime and avoid all liquids after dinner

c)

Take the vitamin on an empty stomach and walk briskly after meals

d)

Take the vitamin every other day and add high-dose ginger capsules

27.

A 20-week client wants to begin a new exercise routine. Which plan is most appropriate?

a)

Start high-intensity intervals four days weekly with heat exposure

b)

Begin moderate aerobic activity most days and avoid contact sports

c)

Perform heavy powerlifting with breath-holding to increase tone

d)

Use hot yoga daily to reduce swelling and improve sleep

28.

A 24-week client develops lightheadedness when lying flat. What should the nurse teach first?

a)

Sleep supine with two pillows for chest expansion

b)

Rest in left lateral tilt to relieve vena cava pressure

c)

Wear a tight abdominal binder throughout the night

d)

Restrict evening fluids to prevent nocturnal symptoms

29.

A 28-week client asks about travel on a two-hour domestic flight. Which counsel is most appropriate?

a)

Avoid all flights after the second trimester regardless of risk

b)

Fly if uncomplicated, hydrate, move often, and wear seatbelt low

c)

Use sedatives to sleep and keep legs extended during flight

d)

Decline seatbelts to prevent pressure on the gravid abdomen

30.

A 30-week client reports mild dependent ankle edema by evening only. What is the best reply?

a)

Physiologic swelling is common; elevate legs and rest left-side

b)

Any leg swelling is an emergency that requires ED evaluation

c)

Sodium tablets twice daily help remove interstitial fluid

d)

Daily diuretics prevent skin breakdown in late pregnancy

31.

A 32-week client asks when to start counting fetal movements. Which instruction is most accurate?

a)

Ten movements in thirty minutes are required every evening

b)

Ten movements within two hours during usual active periods

c)

Five movements after meals are adequate for reassurance

d)

Movement counting ends after thirty weeks as patterns stabilize

32.

At the first prenatal visit, which routine labs should be obtained in a low-risk pregnancy? Select all that apply.

a)

ABO/Rh type and antibody screen

b)

HIV, hepatitis B surface antigen, and syphilis testing

c)

Rubella immunity and varicella history or titer as indicated

d)

Complete blood count and urine culture

e)

D-dimer and troponin to establish a baseline

33.

A 34-week client asks about TDaP timing in pregnancy. Which response is best?

a)

Defer to postpartum to reduce third-trimester syncope risk

b)

Administer during 27-36 weeks to optimize infant antibodies

c)

Provide only if there is a current community pertussis outbreak

d)

Administer in the first trimester to avoid late reactions

34.

A 39-week client in early labor requests nonpharmacologic pain measures. Which action is best now?

a)

Supine bedrest to conserve energy and slow descent

b)

Upright mobility, rhythmic breathing, heat or counter-pressure

c)

Directed Valsalva pushing between every contraction

d)

Restrict oral fluids to minimize gastric volume

35.

A vigorous term newborn is placed on the warmer immediately after birth. Which next step best supports physiologic transition?

a)

Dry thoroughly and place skin-to-skin with the parent

b)

Complete a full bath before attempting the first feed

c)

Give glucose water to prevent early hypoglycemia

d)

Separate for routine measurements before contact

36.

In the first hour after an uncomplicated vaginal birth, which practices promote optimal newborn adaptation? Select all that apply.

a)

Delayed cord clamping when feasible

b)

Early breastfeeding when feeding cues appear

c)

Continuous separation for nursery observation

d)

Thermal protection and avoidance of heat loss

e)

Routine suctioning of mouth and nares without indication

37.

During second stage with a reassuring tracing, which pushing support is most appropriate?

a)

Lithotomy with sustained Valsalva for timed cycles

b)

Physiologic spontaneous pushing in positions of comfort

c)

Breath-holding counts of ten with each contraction

d)

Delayed pushing until crowning is visible

38.

A term multip requests hydrotherapy in active labor without risk factors. What should the nurse do?

a)

Offer hydrotherapy using unit screening and temperature control

b)

Decline hydrotherapy due to infection concerns in labor

c)

Approve hydrotherapy only during second-stage pushing

d)

Limit immersion to five minutes to avoid tachycardia

39.

Immediately after birth, the fundus is firm at the umbilicus and bleeding is moderate rubra. Vitals are stable. What is the next best step?

a)

Support skin-to-skin and initiate the first breastfeed

b)

Place a Foley catheter to prevent bladder distention

c)

Begin oxytocin infusion only if bleeding increases

d)

Transfer the infant to nursery for bathing and weights

40.

On postpartum day two, which lochia pattern is expected for a stable client?

a)

Alba with minimal volume and no odor

b)

Rubra with decreasing volume and no clots

c)

Serosa with foul odor and moderate clots

d)

No flow with a rising uterine fundal height

41.

A breastfeeding parent reports nipple pain on day three. Which latch cues should the nurse emphasize? Select all that apply.

a)

Nose-to-nipple alignment and wait for a wide gape

b)

Asymmetric latch with more areola visible above

c)

Chin contact with rounded cheeks without dimpling

d)

Center the nipple in a closed mouth and push quickly

e)

Pull the infant's head forward by the occiput firmly

42.

A 12-hour-old term newborn has RR 48 with irregular pattern, acrocyanosis, and a strong cry. What action is indicated?

a)

Provide oxygen via mask due to peripheral cyanosis

b)

Observe, keep warm, and proceed with routine care

c)

Initiate CPAP to prevent early respiratory fatigue

d)

Delay feeds until respiratory rate is under forty

43.

A parent asks when to bathe a healthy term infant born thirty minutes ago. What is the priority action?

a)

Bathe now to reduce bacterial colonization of the skin

b)

Delay bathing until thermal stability and bonding are established

c)

Bathe the scalp only and leave the body uncovered

d)

Remove vernix completely using alcohol wipes

44.

At a six-week postpartum visit, which concern requires urgent evaluation?

a)

Mild perineal soreness that improves daily

b)

Severe headache with visual disturbance

c)

Brief 'baby blues' that resolved within two weeks

d)

Light serosa with no clots or foul odor

45.

A healthy exclusively breastfed infant at two weeks has surpassed birth weight with six to eight wets and several yellow stools daily. What supplement is indicated?

a)

Daily vitamin D drops for the infant

b)

Daily water between feeds for stool softening

c)

Daily iron drops beginning at two weeks

d)

Daily formula substitution to increase intake

46.

A term infant at twenty-four hours has a bilirubin in the low-intermediate risk zone and is feeding well. What is the best plan today?

a)

Encourage frequent effective feeds and schedule routine follow-up

b)

Begin prophylactic phototherapy for one full day

c)

Keep the infant NPO to reduce bilirubin production

d)

Supplement glucose water to prevent kernicterus

47.

A multip at 41 weeks requests strategies to improve labor progress without medications. Which nursing measures are appropriate? Select all that apply.

a)

Upright and mobile positions to open pelvic diameters

b)

Hydration, light nutrition, and regular bladder emptying

c)

Continuous labor support and relaxation techniques

d)

Supine rest for the majority of labor to conserve energy

e)

Directed pushing prior to complete dilation for momentum

48.

A postpartum client asks when sexual activity may safely resume. Which guidance is most appropriate?

a)

Resume at one week to reduce perineal stiffness

b)

Resume when bleeding has ceased, healing is complete, comfort is present, and contraception is arranged

c)

Resume at exactly six months regardless of recovery

d)

Avoid barrier contraception while breastfeeding

49.

A rooming-in term newborn is very sleepy at twenty hours and feeds poorly at the breast. What is the best initial action?

a)

Switch to exclusive formula for the next twenty-four hours

b)

Place skin-to-skin, assess latch and transfer, wake to feed every two to three hours

c)

Offer a pacifier between feeds to organize sleep cycles

d)

Delay all feeds until the infant becomes more alert

50.

A 34-week client asks about car safety for the newborn. Which instruction is most accurate?

a)

Use a forward-facing seat if birthweight is under three kilograms

b)

Use a rear-facing, rear-seat, properly fitted seat for all tra

51.

A 34-week client presents with BP 168/112, headache, RUQ pain, and brisk reflexes. What is the first nursing action?

a)

Institute seizure precautions and start magnesium per protocol (correct)

b)

Obtain a 24-hour urine for protein quantification

c)

Encourage fluids and reassess symptoms later

d)

Prepare oxytocin for immediate induction of labor

52.

A 29-week client has PPROM with clear fluid, afebrile, and a Category I tracing. What is the priority nursing plan now?

a)

Begin latency antibiotics and arrange antenatal corticosteroids (correct)

b)

Perform sterile vaginal exams every two hours

c)

Discharge on pelvic rest with daily home checks

d)

Start oxytocin to shorten latency period

53.

During oxytocin induction, contractions reach 6 in 10 minutes with recurrent late decelerations. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Increase oxytocin one increment

b)

Stop oxytocin and begin intrauterine resuscitation (correct)

c)

Start amnioinfusion immediately

d)

Apply fundal pressure during each contraction

54.

A shoulder dystocia is declared. Which maneuver should the nurse facilitate first?

a)

McRoberts position with suprapubic pressure (correct)

b)

Fundal pressure with maternal hyperextension

c)

Vacuum extraction without repositioning

d)

Supine position with straightened legs

55.

A postpartum client with uterine atony and asthma needs a second uterotonic. Which medication should the nurse avoid?

a)

Oxytocin IV infusion

b)

Misoprostol PR dosing

c)

Carboprost IM (correct)

d)

Tranexamic acid IV

56.

A 10-week client with hyperemesis gravidarum has ketonuria and orthostasis. Which nursing actions are indicated now? Select all that apply.

a)

Start IV fluids with thiamine before dextrose (correct)

b)

Correct electrolytes and monitor I&O closely (correct)

c)

Begin high-fat meals to slow gastric emptying

d)

Administer antiemetics per protocol and reassess response (correct)

e)

Discharge with ginger tea instructions only

57.

A 28-week client with GDM on insulin shows fasting 92 mg/dL and 2-hr PP 120-130 mg/dL. What is the nurse's best interpretation?

a)

Poor control that requires insulin escalation today

b)

Targets are met; reinforce monitoring and surveillance plan (correct)

c)

Over-control; discontinue all insulin therapy

d)

Lab error; repeat values before any counseling

58.

A 36-week client with placenta previa has painless vaginal bleeding. What is the best nursing action?

a)

Avoid vaginal exam; monitor FHR, secure IV access, and prepare for cesarean if bleeding persists (correct)

b)

Perform a sterile vaginal exam to assess dilation

c)

Ambulate to test hemodynamic stability

d)

Start oxytocin to accelerate birth

59.

A 32-week client with suspected abruption has constant pain, a firm abdomen, and FHR 90. What is the priority?

a)

Activate obstetric emergency, establish large-bore IVs, and prepare for urgent birth (correct)

b)

Encourage ambulation and oral hydration

c)

Begin tocolysis to stop contractions

d)

Discharge with strict bed rest instructions

60.

A client experiences a generalized seizure in labor. Which immediate nursing actions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

a)

Protect airway and turn to the left lateral position (correct)

b)

Administer magnesium sulfate per protocol (correct)

c)

Insert a tongue blade to prevent biting

d)

Assess FHR and maternal status after the event (correct)

e)

Delay any delivery planning for 24 hours

61.

A 37-week VBAC labor shows sudden abdominal pain, loss of station, and fetal bradycardia. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Encourage pushing with strong bearing down

b)

Call an obstetric emergency and stop oxytocin if infusing (correct)

c)

Obtain a urine sample for ketone evaluation

d)

Begin amnioinfusion to relieve cord compression

62.

A 16-week client has heavy bleeding and cramping; ultrasound shows products of conception in the uterus. Which nursing actions are indicated now? Select all that apply.

a)

Assess hemodynamic stability and obtain IV access (correct)

b)

Review Rh type and prepare RhIG if indicated (correct)

c)

Discharge with NSAIDs and rest only

d)

Prepare for uterine evacuation per orders (correct)

e)

Delay all interventions for 48 hours

63.

A client in second stage with chorioamnionitis has a fetal baseline of 170 with maternal fever. What is the best nursing plan?

a)

Continue assisted second stage with broad-spectrum antibiotics and prepare neonatal sepsis evaluation (correct)

b)

Defer delivery until fever resolves spontaneously

c)

Stop antibiotics during pushing to avoid nausea

d)

Convert to cesarean for all chorio cases

64.

On postoperative day 1 after cesarean, a client has dyspnea and a tender swollen calf. What is the priority?

a)

Initiate PE/DVT protocol, apply oxygen, and arrange diagnostic imaging (correct)

b)

Ambulate briskly to mobilize the clot

c)

Massage the calf to promote circulation

d)

Apply heat and reassess the next morning

65.

A postpartum client on methylergonovine develops BP 172/106. What is the nurse's best action?

a)

Continue methylergonovine to control bleeding

b)

Hold methylergonovine and treat severe hypertension per protocol (correct)

c)

Switch to carboprost despite reactive airway disease

d)

Recheck blood pressure in four hours without changes

66.

An Rh-negative client delivered an Rh-positive infant 26 hours ago with a fetomaternal hemorrhage of ~20 mL. What must the nurse ensure?

a)

No further care because the window has closed

b)

Administer an appropriate dose of RhIG now based on FMH volume (correct)

c)

Provide MMR vaccine instead of immunoglobulin

d)

Delay any injections until the two-week visit

67.

A hemodynamically stable ectopic pregnancy (β-hCG 2500, no cardiac activity) is diagnosed. Which nursing actions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

a)

Educate on methotrexate precautions and avoidance of folate supplements (correct)

b)

Arrange serial β-hCG monitoring until undetectable (correct)

c)

Encourage vigorous exercise to promote resolution

d)

Teach emergency symptoms of rupture and when to seek care (correct)

e)

Begin oxytocin to expedite uterine evacuation

68.

A near-complete dilation labor shows persistent Category III tracing despite resuscitation. What is the priority?

a)

Continue observation for another hour

b)

Prepare for operative delivery while continuing resuscitation (correct)

c)

Start oxytocin to quicken descent

d)

Discontinue all monitoring equipment

69.

At 30 weeks with preterm labor, the cervix is 3 cm/80% and membranes are intact. What is the best nursing plan?

a)

Administer betamethasone and consider tocolysis to allow steroid course (correct)

b)

Begin immediate induction of labor

c)

Strict bed rest without medications

d)

Prophylactic broad-spectrum antibiotics for all

70.

A postpartum day-3 client has fever 38.6 °C, uterine tenderness, and foul lochia. Which nursing actions are indicated now? Select all that apply.

a)

Initiate broad-spectrum IV antibiotics promptly (correct)

b)

Assess for retained tissue and arrange imaging if indicated (correct)

c)

Manage pain, hydration, and monitor response (correct)

d)

Routine douching to clear discharge

e)

Reinforce hand hygiene and perineal care education (correct)

71.

A laboring client has recurrent variable decelerations with intact membranes. What is the best nursing sequence?

a)

Increase oxytocin and continue supine position

b)

Reposition, give IV bolus, consider O₂, and prepare for amnioinfusion after ROM (correct)

c)

Apply fundal pressure during contractions

d)

Discontinue monitoring to decrease maternal anxiety

72.

A postpartum client presents with insomnia, pressured speech, and fixed delusions about the infant. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Offer teas and schedule routine follow-up

b)

Initiate emergency psychiatric evaluation and ensure dyad safety (correct)

c)

Encourage journaling about emotions daily

d)

Discharge with telephone support numbers

73.

An oxytocin induction patient becomes drowsy with headache; labs show Na 124. Which immediate steps are appropriate? Select all that apply.

a)

Stop oxytocin and evaluate for water intoxication (correct)

b)

Notify provider and correct sodium per protocol (correct)

c)

Increase oxytocin to finish labor sooner

d)

Reassess fluid intake and limit excess free water (correct)

e)

Ignore values and repeat labs tomorrow

74.

A 28-week client with a history of cerclage reports regular contractions. What is the best nursing action?

a)

Increase activity and oral hydration only

b)

Notify the provider urgently and assess for cerclage removal (correct)

c)

Start oxytocin to achieve effective labor

d)

Reassure that cerclage prevents labor progression

75.

A 30-week client hospitalized for pyelonephritis has fever, flank pain, and CVA tenderness. What is the priority nursing plan?

a)

Oral antibiotics and discharge with follow-up

b)

Begin IV antibiotics and fluids; monitor for preterm labor (correct)

c)

Delay antibiotics until culture results return

d)

Encourage cranberry juice as sole therapy