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Vibration Analysis Quiz

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

The RMS level is...

a)

Half the peak level

b)

Twice the peak level

c)

0.707 times the peak level (for a pure sine wave)

d)

Half the peak-to-peak level

2.

Identify the RMS level on this chart (choose between A, B, C, and D as indicated on the graph).

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

3.

The relationship between frequency and period is:

a)

They are the same

b)

Frequency (Hz) = 1/period (seconds)

c)

Frequency (Hz) = period 2

d)

Period (minutes) = 1/frequency (CPM) 2

4.

Is the RMS level of this vibration signal equal to 0.707 times the peak level?

a)

Yes

b)

No

5.

The measurement that is proportional to the rate of change of velocity is...

a)

Displacement

b)

Velocity

c)

Acceleration

d)

Jerk

6.

The measurement that is proportional to the fatigue experienced by the shaft and bearing is...

a)

Jerk

b)

Displacement

c)

Velocity

d)

Acceleration

7.

The measurement unit that is most sensitive to low frequency vibration is...

a)

Displacement

b)

Velocity

c)

Acceleration

d)

Hertz

8.

When integrating from acceleration to velocity what happens to the phase?

a)

It shifts by 90 degrees

b)

It shifts by 180 degrees

c)

It does not change

d)

It depends on the location of the phase reference

9.

Phase is measured in units of...

a)

Seconds

b)

RPM

c)

Degrees

d)

Orders

10.

What is the phase relationship between these two signals?

a)

In phase

b)

180 degrees out of phase

c)

90 degrees out of phase

d)

270 degrees out of phase

11.

Which statement is true?

a)

Orders of running speed are reported in units of ‘X’

b)

CPM and Orders are the same when dealing with 2-pole motors

c)

Orders are only used for variable speed machines

d)

None of the above

12.

If the 10X peak is at 2500 CPM, the running speed of the machine must be _____ CPM

a)

250

b)

2500

c)

25,000

d)

41.6

13.

A sine wave in the time waveform will produce what in the spectrum?

a)

Harmonics that are not evenly spaced

b)

Harmonics that are evenly spaced

c)

A single peak

d)

Sidebands

14.

A periodic (repetitive) but non sinusoidal wave will produce what kind of spectrum?

a)

An attractive spectrum

b)

A single peak

c)

Sidebands

d)

Harmonics

15.

A single impulse (impact) in the time waveform will produce what in the spectrum?

a)

Half-order harmonics

b)

A raised noise floor

c)

Odd harmonics

d)

Even harmonics

16.

Two sine waves that are very close to the same frequency (say, 0.5 Hz apart) will...

a)

cause beating

b)

cancel each other out

c)

create harmonics

d)

create sidebands

17.

Sub-harmonics can best be described as...

a)

same as normal harmonics, but smaller

b)

½x, 1x, 1½x, 2x etc.

c)

1x, 2x, 3x, 4x, 5x etc.

d)

19x, 20x, 21x

18.

Amplitude Modulation can best be described as...

a)

the periodic change in the frequency of a signal

b)

the sound a radio makes when it is not correctly tuned

c)

the periodic change in the amplitude of a signal

d)

harmonics that don't look quite right

19.

When sampling data, how does the sample rate relate to Fmax?

a)

The sample rate is 2.56 x the Fmax

b)

They are the same

c)

The sample rate is the Fmax divided by 2.56

d)

None of the above

20.

For the same Fmax, if you increase the number of Lines of Resolution...

a)

You cannot change the number of lines without also changing Fmax

b)

The measurement will take longer to complete

c)

The test time will not change

d)

The measurement will take less time to acquire

21.

Why not collect data with the highest Fmax setting supported by your analyzer (and just 800 lines)?

a)

Because the test will take longer

b)

Because with a higher Fmax setting the resolution is reduced

c)

Because you will need a special transducer

d)

All of the above

22.

Why not collect data with the highest Lines of Resolution setting supported by your analyzer?

a)

The test takes longer

b)

The data takes more memory in the database

c)

The data takes longer to unload from the data collector

d)

All of the above

23.

When route testing rotating machinery in a condition monitoring program, which window setting (of the options below) is most commonly used?

a)

Hanning

b)

Flat top

c)

Exponential

d)

Uniform/rectangular/no window

24.

The window most commonly used for bump tests is:

a)

Hanning

b)

Flat top

c)

Hamming

d)

Uniform/rectangular/no window

25.

The primary reason for using the Hanning window is:

a)

To speed up the measurement

b)

To reduce the impact of “leakage”

c)

To increase frequency accuracy

d)

To increase amplitude accuracy

26.

When route testing rotating machinery in a condition monitoring program, how many averages are normally taken?

a)

Between 1 and 10

b)

10 - 20

c)

20 - 30

d)

100+

27.

When route testing rotating machinery in a condition monitoring program, what type of averaging (of the options below) is typically used?

a)

Linear

b)

Time synchronous

c)

Peak hold

d)

Exponential

28.

True or false: Linear averaging works by averaging the time waveform

a)

True

b)

False

29.

How many revolutions of the shaft would you normally like to see in a time waveform (if the fault condition causes a change in vibration multiple times per revolution)?

a)

4 - 10

b)

10 - 50

c)

50 - 100

d)

100+

30.

If you increase the Lines Of Resolution setting, will you see more or fewer revolutions of the shaft in the time waveform?

a)

More revolutions

b)

Fewer revolutions

c)

The same number

31.

If you wish to capture a short-duration event in greater detail (i.e. capture more samples during the event), which of the following settings should you change?

a)

Fmax (frequency range)

b)

Lines Of Resolution

c)

Number of averages

d)

Settling time

32.

If you increase the Fmax (frequency range) setting, will you see more or fewer revolutions of the shaft in the time waveform?

a)

More revolutions

b)

Fewer revolutions

c)

The same number

33.

Which of the following fault conditions is easier to diagnose if you use time waveform analysis instead of using spectrum analysis alone (which one benefits the most)?

a)

Unbalance

b)

Misalignment

c)

Broken gear teeth

d)

Cavitation

34.

Is it possible to detect bearing wear with time waveform analysis?

a)

No

b)

Yes

35.

What type of sensors are typically used to monitor the movement of a shaft inside a journal bearing?

a)

Accelerometers

b)

Proximity probes

c)

Velocity probes

d)

Charge mode accelerometers

36.

When monitoring a large journal bearing with two proximity probes, which graph is most commonly analysed?

a)

Overall trend

b)

Time waveform

c)

Orbit

d)

Spectrum

37.

Which sensor involves a magnet and a coil moving relative to each other?

a)

Shaft rider

b)

Proximity probe

c)

Accelerometer

d)

Velocity sensor

38.

Which of these accelerometers sensitivities would best measure very low amplitude vibration?

a)

10 mV/g

b)

50 mV/g

c)

100 mV/g

d)

500 mV/g

39.

Select the best accelerometer mounting point from the available options:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

40.

Which of these are important factors for selecting a test point?

a)

Safe access to the test point

b)

Good mechanical transmission path

c)

As close to the bearing as possible

d)

All of the above

41.

Which is the best method of mounting an accelerometer (the best frequency response)?

a)

Stinger, or probe tip

b)

Flat magnetic mount

c)

Two-pole magnetic mount

d)

Stud mount

42.

What are the benefits of mounting (or target) pads?

a)

They show exactly where the sensor should be mounted

b)

They provide a flat surface for the sensor

c)

They are easy to clean (to remove debris)

d)

All of the above

43.

In the context of a condition monitoring program, what is repeatability?

a)

The ability to test machines in the same order every time

b)

The ability to perform a test in exactly the same way every time

c)

The ability to perform measurements very quickly

d)

All of the above

44.

Insufficient settling time, a sensor heating up or cooling down during the test or thumping the sensor against the machine will result in...

a)

a typical reading

b)

a damaged sensor

c)

an error message on the data collector

d)

a “ski-slope” in the spectrum

45.

If the vibration at 1X increases dramatically what should you do?

a)

Schedule the rotor for balancing

b)

Schedule the rotor for cleaning

c)

Perform additional analysis to ensure that it requires balancing

d)

Wait to see if the vibration gets any worse

46.

Which peaks in the spectrum are associated with unbalance in a machine with a supported rotor (bearings at each end)?

a)

1X, 2X, and 3X

b)

1X in the axial direction

c)

1X in the vertical and horizontal direction

d)

Wait to see if the vibration gets any worse

47.

The forces generated by an unbalance mass are proportional to...

a)

the amount of lubricant in the bearings

b)

the load on the machine

c)

the speed of the machine (linearly)

d)

the square of the speed of the machine

48.

If a rotor has static unbalance...

a)

the two ends of the machine in the vertical direction will be in phase

b)

the two ends of the machine in the vertical direction will be out of phase

49.

If a rotor has a couple imbalance...

a)

the two ends of the machine in the vertical direction will be in phase

b)

the two ends of the machine in the vertical direction will be 180 deg out of phase

50.

How will the vibration change?

a)

The 1X amplitude will increase in the vertical and horizontal direction without a change in the axial direction

b)

The 1X amplitude will increase in the vertical, horizontal and axial directions

51.

What vibration pattern will likely be measured if a vertical machine goes out of balance?

a)

1X higher at the top of the machine than the bottom and higher in one radial axis

b)

1X the same amplitude in all radial directions

c)

Primarily a high 1X Axial

d)

1X higher at the bottom of the machine than the top with harmonics

52.

A ship sailing west and being blown by a wind from the north will travel which direction?

a)

South

b)

North-west

c)

North-east

d)

South-west

53.

When performing a single-plane balance on a flexible rotor, the trial weight should produce a force equal to ____ of the rotor weight.

a)

50%

b)

20%

c)

10%

d)

15%

54.

The desired effect of adding a balance weight is to...

a)

have the opposite effect of the original unbalance

b)

get close to the accepted tolerance level

c)

stop the machine from shaking

d)

replace any mass lost from drilling

55.

You may be unsuccessful in balancing a machine due to:

a)

Looseness

b)

Calculation errors

c)

Resonance

d)

Any of these (and more)

56.

True or false: You can achieve a balance solution by adding weight or by removing an equivalent mass on the opposite side of the rotor

a)

True

b)

False

57.

True or false: If the residual (existing) unbalance is less than the permissible (minimum acceptable) unbalance, the rotor is out of balance

a)

True

b)

False

58.

When looking for misalignment, one should analyse vibration data:

a)

In all axes on both sides of the coupling

b)

In the axial direction only

c)

In the radial directions only

d)

At the coupling

59.

Is it possible to detect misalignment using a laser alignment system?

a)

No

b)

No, unless it wasn’t available when the machine was last aligned

c)

Yes

d)

It depends upon the brand of alignment system

60.

To confirm the existence of angular misalignment one would look for what phase relationship across the coupling in the axial direction?

a)

180 degrees out of phase

b)

90 degrees out of phase

c)

In-phase

d)

There is no clear phase relationship

61.

True or false: One typically has angular or offset misalignment, but rarely both types at the same time.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Which of the following are common causes of misalignment?

a)

Inaccurate assembly of components

b)

Relative position of components changing after assembly

c)

Distortion due to forces exerted by piping

d)

All of the above

63.

It is important to correct a misalignment condition because...

a)

the high vibration level can create resonant conditions

b)

the coupling warranty will be voided

c)

misaligned machines can create pipe-strain

d)

high vibration levels can damage bearings and cause premature failure

64.

If the vibration does not indicate that misalignment exists, does it mean that the machine is correctly aligned?

a)

Yes

b)

No

65.

If a shaft is bent, what will be the phase relationship when measured at either end of the machine?

a)

In-phase in the vertical direction, but out-of-phase in the horizontal direction

b)

In-phase when measured axially

c)

Out-of-phase when measured axially

d)

Phase is not a useful tool for diagnosing a bent shaft

66.

When aligning a machine, always make sure you:

a)

Use dial indicators

b)

Use a laser system

c)

Lock out the machine so it cannot be started accidentally

d)

Verify the alignment with a straight edge

67.

The bottom line is that precision aligned machines will be more:

a)

Noisy

b)

Expensive to maintain

c)

Susceptible to bearing wear

d)

Reliable

68.

Are alignment tolerances normally tighter on high speed machines or low speed machines?

a)

Low speed machines

b)

High speed machines

69.

What would happen if you did not correct the soft foot condition?

a)

It would be difficult to align the machine

b)

The case of the motor would be distorted and there would be an uneven air gap between the rotor and stator

c)

The bearings and seals would be under stress

d)

All of these reasons and others are correct

70.

True or false: A soft foot check should be completed before and after vertical angular misalignment has been corrected.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

What is “bar sag”?

a)

When the circumference of the coupling is not perfectly round

b)

Where the bars used to support the dial indicators bend or sag due to gravity

c)

The amount the shaft sags due to gravity

d)

The stem sticking as it moves in or out of the dial

72.

When moving a machine, horizontal moves are often done with ______ and vertical moves by adding ______.

a)

Shims, spacers

b)

Spacers, shims

c)

Jacking bolts, shims

d)

Shims, jacking bolts

73.

Which of the following is a cause of rotating looseness?

a)

Motor not bolted down securely

b)

Loose cowling or other metallic structure

c)

Wear within a rolling element bearing

d)

Pedestal bearing not bolted down sufficiently

74.

Rotating looseness typically results in what pattern in the vibration spectrum?

a)

1X harmonics (and in some cases 2X, 3X, 4X...)

b)

Non synchronous peaks

c)

Sidebands

d)

All of the above

75.

A more serious form of rotating looseness or rotating looseness in a journal bearing creates which pattern in the vibration spectrum?

a)

Larger 1X harmonics

b)

Sub-harmonics

c)

A high 1XH

d)

A symmetrical time waveform

76.

Can phase be used to detect rotating looseness?

a)

Yes, the lack of a phase relationship points to looseness

b)

Yes, there is 180 degree phase shift

c)

Yes, all radial points are in phase

d)

No

77.

Foundation flexibility (structural weakness) most commonly results in what pattern in the vibration spectrum?

a)

1X harmonics

b)

1XV much higher than 1XH

c)

1XH much higher than 1XV

d)

1X sidebands

78.

Rotating looseness is associated with which pattern in the time waveform?

a)

Clipping or asymmetry

b)

Modulation

c)

Sinusoidal

d)

Random impacting

79.

If the sheaves are eccentric, how will the vibration change?

a)

The vibration at 1X will increase

b)

The vibration at 2X will increase

c)

You will witness peak below running speed with harmonics

d)

The vibration will not change

80.

Will the 1X vibration reduce to normal levels if you balance an eccentric sheave?

a)

No

b)

Yes

81.

If the sheaves are misaligned, how will the vibration change?

a)

The vibration at 1X will increase and there will be harmonics

b)

The vibration at 2X will increase

c)

You will witness peak below running speed with harmonics

d)

The vibration will increase in the axial direction at 1X

82.

Why would you use a strobe on a belt drive?

a)

It freezes the motion so repairs can be made

b)

It enables you to inspect the sheaves and belts for wear and other damage

c)

It enables you to test the natural frequency of the belts

83.

Is the vibration known as the “belt rate” higher or lower in frequency than the running speed (of either pulley/sheave)?

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

The same

d)

It depends on the diameters of the sheaves

84.

At what frequency do belts resonate?

a)

At the running speed of the sheave in question

b)

It depends on the belts and their tension

c)

Belts do not resonate, they just flap when loose

d)

Does anyone really know?

85.

What percentage of bearings reach their design lifetime?

a)

No more than 10%

b)

No more than 50%

c)

No more than 90%

d)

100%

86.

Order normalizing a graph is useful because...

a)

it helps to identify the source of the vibration that damaged the bearings

b)

it highlights which peaks are synchronous and non-synchronous

c)

forcing frequencies are always orders

d)

order normalizing is not useful

87.

A decibel (dB) or logarithmic graph scale helps with bearing analysis because...

a)

it is easier to determine relative amplitude

b)

it is easier to see higher frequencies

c)

one can see low amplitude peaks in the presence of high amplitude peaks

d)

it is easier to determine which peaks are non-synchronous

88.

Why is a high pass filter used in a demodulation/enveloping system?

a)

To amplify the useful low frequency signals

b)

To amplify all of the high amplitude high frequency signals

c)

To remove the high amplitude, low frequency signals

d)

To remove the high frequency noise

89.

If you see low amplitude, non-synchronous peaks in an envelope spectrum, what should your response be?

a)

Check the machine for rotating looseness

b)

Check the machine for gear faults

c)

Schedule the bearings for replacement

d)

Continue to monitor the machine and check spectra and time waveforms

90.

What should you do if you detect non-synchronous harmonics with 1X sidebands however the frequency does not match the bearing frequencies in your database?

a)

Suspect that it is a different fault condition

b)

Assume that it is a bearing from a nearby machine

c)

Assume that the bearing does actually have a fault condition and proceed accordingly

d)

Report a bug to your data collector vendor

91.

In countries with a 50 Hz line frequency, if the machine turns at just under 3000 RPM, is it a two-pole motor or a four-pole motor?

a)

Two-pole motor

b)

Four-pole motor

92.

The slip frequency is...

a)

the actual speed of the motor

b)

another term for the synchronous speed

c)

the difference between the actual speed and the synchronous speed

d)

the number of times per second that the squirrel slips inside the cage

93.

Select a cause for an eccentric stator.

a)

Purchasing from “Jim-Bob's Used Stators” instead of your normal source

b)

Over-lubrication, which increases the slip

c)

Soft foot

d)

Loose holding-down bolts

94.

pole-pass frequency is...

a)

the number of poles times the motor running speed

b)

the difference between the number of poles and the synchronous speed

c)

the same as the line frequency (50 or 60 Hz)

d)

the slip frequency times the number of poles

95.

What would you suspect if you saw that the 1X through 4X peaks were surrounded by sidebands (with very little separation)?

a)

There is rotating looseness

b)

There may be broken rotor bars or a cracked end-ring

c)

The rotor was loose and the air-gap changes periodically

d)

The resolution of the analyzer is too high

96.

What would you suspect if you saw that the twice-line-frequency peak was high?

a)

There could be soft foot

b)

The stator may be eccentric

c)

There could be loose windings or laminations

d)

Any of the above could be correct

97.

The gear mesh frequency is calculated by...

a)

adding the number of teeth on each gear

b)

dividing the number of teeth on the input by the teeth on the output

c)

multiplying the number of teeth on the gear by the speed of that gear

d)

multiplying the number of teeth on each gear

98.

Apart from the gear mesh frequency peak, what other pattern is typically found in the vibration spectrum from a gearbox?

a)

Beating

b)

Non synchronous peaks

c)

Sub synchronous peaks

d)

Shaft rate sidebands around gear mesh

99.

What other condition monitoring technology is especially useful in gearbox monitoring?

a)

InfraRed Thermography

b)

Ultrasound

c)

Wear particle analysis (ferrography)

d)

Vibration is the only useful technology

100.

What is the best tool for detecting cracked or broken gear teeth?

a)

Motor current analysis

b)

Perform thermographic analysis on the lubricant

c)

Spectrum analysis

d)

Time waveform analysis

101.

If a gearbox was quoted as having a speed ratio 1:8, which statement is true?

a)

If the output speed was 8000 RPM, the input speed must be 1000 RPM

b)

If the intermediate shaft turned at 1000 RPM, the motor turns at 3000 RPM

c)

If the input shaft turns at 8000 RPM, the output shaft turns at 1000 RPM

d)

It is a double reduction gearbox

102.

Which one (or more) of the following will results in an increase in amplitude at the pump vane rate frequency?

a)

Non-uniform variable pitch blades

b)

Blade or vane wear (abrasion or cavitation)

c)

Operation (improper performance parameters)

d)

Inlet or discharge line restrictions

e)

All of the above

103.

How would the spectrum change if the pumping system was experiencing cavitation?

a)

An increase in both the vane pass frequency and the noise floor

b)

An increase in amplitude at the pump running speed

c)

An increase in amplitude in an area below the running speed

d)

A series of harmonics of pump vane rate

104.

How would the spectrum change if the pumping system was experiencing turbulence?

a)

An increase in amplitude at the pump vane rate frequency

b)

An increase in amplitude at the pump running speed

c)

A hump of noise in an area below the running speed

d)

An increase in high frequency vibration

105.

Under what conditions might you observe running speed sidebands around the pump vane rate peak?

a)

Rotating looseness in the pump bearings

b)

Damage on the inner race of the bearing

c)

Impeller loose on the shaft

d)

Flow turbulence

106.

Resonance occurs when...

a)

there is rotating looseness

b)

the machine speed varies

c)

vibration levels increase

d)

a forcing frequency coincides with a natural frequency

107.

In order to avoid resonance, one should operate a machine…

a)

at a natural frequency

b)

at any speed that is not within +/-20% of the natural frequency

c)

above the natural frequency

d)

below the natural frequency

108.

If the running speed of the machine was changed so that it coincided with a natural frequency, how would the vibration amplitude change?

a)

It will remain unchanged

b)

It will increase if the machine was out-of-balance and the machine speed was decreased

c)

It will decrease in amplitude due to the resonance

d)

It will increase in amplitude due to the resonance

109.

A bump test is…

a)

a way to seek revenge on annoying machines

b)

a way to test whether your suspicion of a natural frequency could be correct

c)

a way to tell if your colleague is awake

d)

a way to change the dynamics of the machine

110.

Is it possible to perform a bump test on a machine when it is running?

a)

No

b)

Yes

111.

Why would you perform an ODS test?

a)

To visualize vibration, which may include mode shapes due to resonance

b)

To model the structure of the machine mathematically to understand its modal parameters

c)

To generate an animation of the structure for your records

d)

To test how the machine vibration changes as speed changes

112.

How would the natural frequency, and the amplitude of vibration at resonance, change if the damping is increased?

a)

Natural frequency will increase and amplitude will decrease

b)

Natural frequency will decrease and amplitude will increase

c)

Natural frequency won’t change and amplitude will decrease

d)

Natural frequency will decrease and amplitude won’t change

113.

How would the natural frequency, and the amplitude of vibration at resonance, change if the mass of the machine is increased?

a)

Natural frequency will increase and amplitude will decrease

b)

Natural frequency will decrease and amplitude will increase

c)

Natural frequency won’t change and amplitude will increase

d)

Natural frequency will decrease and amplitude won’t change

114.

Which series of standards is used to check measurements taken from (non-contact displacement) proximity probes?

a)

ISO 10816

b)

ISO 7919

c)

ISO 18436

d)

ISO 1940

115.

True or false: Alarms can be set on overall level readings but not on spectra or time waveforms.

a)

True

b)

False

116.

It is important to set alarms on vibration spectra because…

a)

you will detect changes in the data and begin analysing the right data more quickly

b)

most software can use the alarms to diagnose fault conditions

c)

the exception reports generated can be automatically sent to plant management

d)

ISO 10816 will advise of the fault severity

117.

In a condition monitoring program, the most important reason to set alarms is to:

a)

Be sure you are in compliance with ISO standards

b)

Be in compliance with insurance company standards

c)

Make the analysis process more efficient

d)

Detect bearing defects

118.

Why is it important to perform acceptance testing?

a)

Because not all machines that you purchase will actually be in perfect condition

b)

Because the vendors are more likely to manufacture high quality equipment

c)

Because it will provide you with baseline “as new” vibration readings

d)

Because more than 60% of machines are defective

119.

How do you set the vibration limits to be used in acceptance testing?

a)

Use the same limits you use in your normal vibration program

b)

The vendor/supplier of the equipment will often provide the limits

c)

Use ISO standards and other industry standards

d)

All of the above

120.

What sort of fault conditions would normally be tested for during acceptance testing?

a)

Bearing defects, resonance, and unbalance

b)

Cavitation and turbulence within the pump

c)

Rated machine speed and current

d)

Air flow through cooling fans