wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

General & Ocular Pharmacology Quiz

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

First inactive drug has no effect but when given together with 2nd active drug, the first drug enhances the effect of the 2nd active drug.

a)

potentiation

b)

additi

c)

synergism

d)

antagonism

2.

Enhancement of drug effect when vasopressor agent-adrenaline is incorporated with local anesthetic agent lidocaine:

a)

potentiation

b)

additive

c)

synergism

d)

antagonism

3.

Chemical agent which prevent the agonist to interacts at its receptor site thus inhibiting the effect of the agonist:

a)

potentiation

b)

additive

c)

synergism

d)

antagonism

4.

Primary function of liver for biotransformation:

a)

transformation of the drug to polar form enhancing renal excretion

b)

transforming the drug to bound form to prolong their effects

c)

enhancing binding of free form of the drug to receptor

d)

transforming the drug from bound to free form to enhance renal excretion

5.

"The greater the concentration of the drug in the plasma, the greater is the rate of renal excretion"

a)

zero order kinetics of drug elimination

b)

first order kinetics of drug elimination

c)

zero order kinetics of absorption

d)

first order kinetics of absorption

6.

"The rate of drug elimination is constant regardless of drug concentration in the plasma"

a)

zero order kinetics of drug elimination

b)

first order kinetics of drug elimination

c)

zero order kinetics of absorption

d)

first order kinetics of absorption

7.

Enhancement of drug effect when NSAID-ibuprofen is combined with paracetamol:

a)

potentiation

b)

additive

c)

synergism

d)

antagonism

8.

Enhancement of drug effect if NSAID- Ibuprofen is combined with NSAID-mefenamic acid:

a)

potentiation

b)

additive

c)

synergism

d)

antagonism

9.

Direct routes of drug administration e.g IV. IA, IC follows:

a)

zero order kinetics of drug elimination

b)

first order kinetics of drug elimination

c)

zero order kinetics of absorption

d)

first order kinetics of absorption

10.

Most commonly abused OTC:

a)

cocaine

b)

paracetamol

c)

methamphetamine

d)

morphine

11.

Refers to the disappearance of active drug molecules from the general circulation by metabolism leading to termination of desired pharmacologic effect:

a)

biotransformation

b)

excretion

c)

elimination

d)

bioavailability

12.

Part of prescription order which gives direction pharmacist:

a)

inscription

b)

subscription

c)

superscription

d)

transcription

13.

Part of prescription order which gives full instructions to the patient on how to take the medications:

a)

inscriptionk

b)

subscription

c)

superscription

d)

transcription

14.

The followings are the information given in inscription except:

a)

amount of drug to be taken

b)

generic name

c)

dosage form of the drug

d)

available preparation of drug

15.

Which of the following is a controlled drug which requires prescription order and S2#?

a)

cocaine

b)

mefloenamic acid

c)

clarithromycin

d)

oxytetrahydrozoline

16.

Margin of safety means:

a)

concentration of drug in the body over the concentration of drug in plasma

b)

measures the safety and usefulness of the drugs

c)

plasma is cleared of the drug within the specified unit of time

d)

50% of the drug is removed from the above after discontinue taking the medication

17.

Type of antagonism without interacting to the receptor sites:

a)

competitive antagonism

b)

non-competitive antagonism

c)

physiologic antagonism

d)

chemical antagonism

18.

The followings are the mechanism of drug renal excretion except:

a)

glomerular filtration

b)

tubular reabsorption

c)

tubular secretion

d)

none of the above

19.

Exocrine gland that excrete the largest concentration of the medication:

a)

lactating mammary glands

b)

salivary glands

c)

lacrimal glands

d)

sweat glands

20.

The following organs are both organs for metabolism & excretion of the drug except:

a)

lungs

b)

digestive organs

c)

liver

d)

kidneys

21.

What is the meaning of "first order of drug elimination"?

a)

fraction of the drug reaches the general circulation

b)

100% of the drug reaches the general circulation

c)

rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration of the drug in the plasma

d)

implies elimination at constant rate regardless of concentration of drug in the plasma

22.

Which of the following is the most important parameter of pharmacokinetic?

a)

volume of distribution

b)

therapeutic index

c)

total body clearance

d)

half life

23.

The followings are the parameters of pharmacokinetic except:

a)

volume of distribution

b)

therapeutic window

c)

total body clearance

d)

half life

24.

What is "zero order of drug elimination"?

a)

fraction of the drug reaches the general circulation

b)

100% of the drug reaches the general circulation

c)

rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration of the drug in the plasma

d)

implies elimination at constant rate regardless of concentration of drug in the plasma

25.

The followings are information included in transcription except:

a)

route of drug administration

b)

frequency of intake

c)

amount of medication to be taken

d)

generic form of the medication

26.

What is the mechanism of NaCl tablet absorption?

a)

active transport

b)

simple diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

phagocytosis

27.

Pertains to the body of the prescription order:

a)

transcription

b)

inscription

c)

superscription

d)

subscription

28.

Legal concept of prescription stating that the practitioners should educate the patient regarding the drugs to be given to the patient:

a)

doctrine of minors and incompetents

b)

doctrine of informed consent

c)

doctrine of respondent superior

d)

doctrine of independence

29.

Legal concept of prescription states the responsibility of the practitioner for whatever actions done by his subordinate:

a)

doctrine of minors and incompetents

b)

doctrine of informed consent

c)

doctrine of respondent superior

d)

doctrine of independence

30.

Legal concept of prescription characterized by allowing to patient to know the procedure to be done, pros & cons, benefits and adverse effects of the procedures to be done:

a)

doctrine of minors and incompetents

b)

doctrine of informed consent

c)

doctrine of respondent superior

d)

doctrine of discharge

31.

What is substance-I of the controlled substances approved by the BFAD?

a)

has less abuse potential and limited physical or psychological dependence

b)

has high abuse potential and abuse leading to severe psychic or physical dependence

c)

has high abuse potential and no accepted medical use

d)

has limited physical or psychological abuse potential

32.

What is substance-V of the controlled substances approved by the BFAD

a)

less abuse potential and limited physical or psychological dependence

b)

high abuse potential and abuse leading to severe psychic or physical dependence

c)

high abuse potential and no accepted medical use

d)

limited physical or psychological abuse potential

33.

Which of the following drug belongs to substance-I of the controlled substance?

a)

methamphetamine

b)

loperamide

c)

cocaine

d)

phenobarbital

34.

Which of the following is not the specific receptor theory-mechanism of action of proparacaine?

a)

block the internal opening of sodium channels

b)

incorporate and becomes part of cell membrane

c)

block the external opening of sodium channels

d)

compete with calcium guarding Na+ channels

35.

Prescribing guideline of this controlled substance states that it should not be refilled >5x after the date of PO is issued:

a)

C-III

b)

C-V

c)

C-I

d)

C-II

36.

Prescribing guideline of this controlled substance states that it should not be available for therapeutic use:

a)

C-III

b)

C-V

c)

C-I

d)

C-II

37.

Prescribing guideline of this controlled substance states that it should not be dispensed if more than 6 months after the date of PO is issu

a)

C-III

b)

C-V

c)

C-I

d)

C-II

38.

Prescribing guideline of this controlled substance states that it should not be supplied >3days after the date of PO is issued:

a)

C-III

b)

C-V

c)

C-I

d)

C-II

39.

Part of the prescription order which means "take"

a)

transcription

b)

inscription

c)

superscription

d)

subscription

40.

Part of the prescription order which means "write"

a)

transcription

b)

inscription

c)

superscription

d)

subscription

41.

Not a carrier-mechanism of drug absorption which are characterized by movement of drug molecules from higher to lower concentration:

a)

active transport

b)

simple diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

phagocytosis

42.

The following are the characteristics of lipid soluble medication EXCEPT:

a)

non-polar form

b)

uncharged form

c)

unionized form

d)

pH=6.0

43.

Which of the following is lipid insoluble medication which requires BAK for absorption?

a)

proparacaine

b)

alkaloids

c)

carbachol

d)

prednisone

44.

Ofloxacin ophthalmic solution for sore or pink eyes caused by virus:

a)

protective

b)

prophylactic

c)

diagnostic

d)

curative

e)

palliative

45.

Nifedipine for chronic essential hypertension:

a)

protective

b)

prophylactic

c)

diagnostic

d)

curative

e)

palliative

46.

Naprosyn to relieve pain in rheumatoid arthritis:

a)

protective

b)

prophylactic

c)

diagnostic

d)

curative

e)

palliative

47.

Pilocarpine to maintain the intraocular pressure in angle closure glaucoma:

a)

protective

b)

prophylactic

c)

diagnostic

d)

curative

e)

palliative

48.

Cyclopentolate as mydriatic agent during ophthalmoscopy:

a)

protective

b)

prophylactic

c)

diagnostic

d)

curative

e)

palliative

49.

Tobramycin ophthalmic solution for ophthalmia neonatorum:

a)

protective

b)

prophylactic

c)

diagnostic

d)

curative

e)

palliative

50.

The following are the ocular side effects of oral contraceptives except:

a)

central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)

b)

contact lens intolerance

c)

central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)

d)

far-sightedness

51.

The following drugs are used for myasthenia gravis except:

a)

physostigmine

b)

edrophonium

c)

neostigmine

d)

ambenonium

52.

Triads of clinical manifestations after giving atropine IV except:

a)

dry mouth

b)

loose bowel movement

c)

tachycardia

d)

mydriasis

53.

Best term for open angle glaucoma:

a)

uncompensated glaucoma

b)

narrow angle glaucoma

c)

emergency glaucoma

d)

compensated glaucoma

54.

Most common ocular side effect of pilocarpine and atropine ophthalmic solution:

a)

iris cyst

b)

uveitis

c)

ciliary spasm

d)

ciliary congestion

55.

Medication that produced melanin-like deposits on the cornea and conjunctiva on repeated use:

a)

atropine

b)

tropicamide

c)

epinephrine

d)

benoxinate

56.

Medication that produced iris cyst formation reversed by 2.5% phenylephrine:

a)

atropine

b)

betaxolol

c)

hydroxyamphetamine

d)

echothiophate

57.

Route of corticosteroid treatment having high incidence of secondary open-angle glaucoma:

a)

topical

b)

parenteral

c)

alimentary

d)

inhalation

58.

Longest-acting, strongest and most primitive mydriatic and cycloplegic agent:

a)

pilocarpine

b)

atropine

c)

tropicamide

d)

cyclopentolate

59.

Classify cyclopentolate:

a)

cholinergic agonist

b)

adrenergic agonist

c)

cholinergic antagonist

d)

adrenergic antagonist

60.

Antipsychotic agent which causes contact lens intolerance:

a)

phenothiazine

b)

etretinate

c)

progestins

d)

clomiphene

61.

Fertility drug that causes contact lens intolerance:

a)

phenothiazine

b)

etretinate

c)

progestins

d)

clomiphene

62.

Newest form of vitamin A which causes contact lens intolerance:

a)

phenothiazine

b)

etretinate

c)

progestins

d)

clomiphene

63.

Non-active agent that dissolves the active form of the drug, controlling its viscosity and aids the transport of the active drug:

a)

buffering agent

b)

ophthalmic vehicle

c)

excipient

d)

surfactant

64.

Chemical agent that gives form or consistency to the drug preparation but with limited used in ophthalmic preparation:

a)

buffering agent

b)

ophthalmic vehicle

c)

excipient

d)

surfactant

65.

Anatomic space in an eyeball separated by ocular barriers:

a)

compartment

b)

compartment modeling

c)

compartment analysis

d)

cavities

66.

What happen when micelles form in water?

a)

tail of amphophilic surfactant forms a core encapsulating oil droplet

b)

head of amphophilic surfactant forms a core encapsulating water droplet

c)

head of amphophilic surfactant comes in contact with oil

d)

tail of amphophilic surfactant comes in contact with water

67.

What happen in reverse micelles?

a)

tail of amphophilic surfactant forms a core encapsulating oil droplet

b)

head of amphophilic surfactant forms a core encapsulating water droplet

c)

head of amphophilic surfactant comes in contact with oil

d)

tail of amphophilic surfactant comes in contact with water

68.

Characteristic of the 'head' of amphophilic surfactant:

a)

hydrophilic

b)

lipophilic

c)

zwitterions

d)

cationic

69.

Characteristic of the tail of amphophilic surfactant?

a)

hydrophilic

b)

lipophilic

c)

zwitterions

d)

cationic

70.

The following the indications of thimerosal (Merthiolate) except:

a)

preservative in tattoo inks

b)

preservative in ophthalmic solution

c)

preservative in vaccines

d)

preservative in IV fluids

71.

Lubricants in ophthalmic ointment except:

a)

carboxymethylcellulose

b)

lanolin

c)

white petrolatum

d)

mineral oil

72.

Lubricants in ophthalmic solution except:

a)

methylellulose

b)

polyvinyl alcohol

c)

dextran

d)

polyvinyl pyrrolidine

73.

Hydrolytic enzyme that destroy the norepinephrine of adrenergic nerve:

a)

MAO

b)

COMT

c)

AchEk

d)

A & B only

74.

Hydrolytic enzyme that destroy the neurotransmitter of cholinergic nerve:

a)

MAO

b)

COMT

c)

AchE

d)

A & B only

75.

Neurotransmitter at terminal ends of adrenergic nerve:

a)

norepinephrine

b)

serotonin

c)

acetylcholine

d)

dopamine

76.

Neurotransmitter at terminal ends of cholinergic nerve:

a)

norepinephrine

b)

serotonin

c)

acetylcholine

d)

dopamine

77.

Inhibitor of adrenergic nerve at alpha-2 receptor:

a)

yohimbin

b)

timolol

c)

prazosin

d)

tropicamide

78.

Inhibitor of adrenergic nerve at alpha-1 receptor:

a)

yohimbine

b)

timolol

c)

prazosin

d)

tropicamide

79.

Inhibitor of cholinergic nerve at nicotinic receptor:

a)

curare

b)

timolol

c)

prazosin

d)

tropicamide

80.

Inhibitor of adrenergic nerve at beta-2 receptor:

a)

curare

b)

timolol

c)

prazosin

d)

tropicamide

81.

Inhibitor of adrenergic nerve at beta-1 receptor:

a)

curare

b)

timolol

c)

prazosin

d)

tropicamide

82.

Inhibitor of cholinergic nerve at muscarinic receptor:

a)

yohimbine

b)

propanolol

c)

curare

d)

atropine

83.

Antidote for physostigmine poisoning:

a)

pilocarpine

b)

propanolol

c)

atropine

d)

yohimbine

84.

Diagnostic agent used to identify the cause of sudden ptosis in myasthenia gravis:

a)

physostigmine

b)

edrophonium

c)

neostigmine

d)

ambenonium

85.

Drug of choice to relieve ptosis in myasthenia gravis:

a)

physostigmine

b)

edrophonium

c)

neostigmine

d)

ambenonium

86.

Lowest concentration of pilocarpine to constrict the pupils in Adie's syndrome:

a)

0.5%

b)

10%

c)

1%

d)

0.1%

87.

Reversing agent to the mydriatic effect of atropine:

a)

cyclopentolate

b)

pilocarpine

c)

dorzolamide

d)

phenylephrine

88.

Desired effect of pilocarpine used in glaucoma:

a)

open the trabecular meshwork

b)

decrease aqueous humor secretion

c)

contraction of Bruck's muscles

d)

A & C only

Similar Resources on Wayground

MCN 2nd year

83 questions

MCN 2nd year

quiz

Worksheet

•

University - Professi...

Physiology Phase 2

91 questions

Physiology Phase 2

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade - Professio...

TES SIDANG LAKSANA 2025

90 questions

TES SIDANG LAKSANA 2025

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

ดิวe¹11111111111

93 questions

ดิวe¹11111111111

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

Model (1) Worksheet

91 questions

Model (1) Worksheet

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

CRCST Certification-Style Timed Test 1

90 questions

CRCST Certification-Style Timed Test 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

Histology and Tissues Quiz

93 questions

Histology and Tissues Quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development