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Electromagnetic Radiation Quiz

Total questions: 141

Worksheet time: 2hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation which has a frequency of 4.464 x 1014s-1?

a)

1.338 x 1023m

b)

1.489 x 10-6 m

c)

6.716 x 10-7nm

d)

671.6 nm

e)

7.472 x 10-15nm

2.

What is the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation which has a frequency of 5.732 x 1014s-1?

a)

1.718 x 1023m

b)

1.912 x 106m

c)

5.230 x 10-7 m

d)

523.0 m

e)

5.819 x 10-15 nm

3.

What is the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation which has a frequency of 6.282 x 1014s-1?

a)

1.883 x 1023m

b)

2.095 x 106m

c)

4.772 x 10-7 m

d)

4.772 x 10-7 nm

e)

530.9 nm

4.

Calculate the frequency of visible light having a wavelength of 464.1 nm

a)

139.1 s-1

b)

1.548 x 10-6 s-1

c)

1.548 x 10-15 s-1

d)

6.460 x 1014s-1

e)

6.460 x 105s-1

5.

A police radar unit is operating on a frequency of 9.527 Gigahertz. What is the wavelength of the radiation being employed?

a)

314.7 nm

b)

314.7 m

c)

3.147 cm

d)

314.7 cm

e)

31.78 m

6.

Which one of the following types of radiation has the lowest frequency?

a)

FM radio waves

b)

infrared radiation

c)

microwave radiation

d)

x-rays

e)

ultraviolet rays

7.

Which one of the following types of radiation has the lowest frequency?

a)

gamma rays

b)

infrared radiation

c)

microwave radiation

d)

visible light rays

e)

ultraviolet rays

8.

Which one of the following types of radiation has the highest frequency?

a)

blue visible light

b)

FM radio

c)

infrared radiation

d)

microwave radiation

e)

short wave radio waves

9.

Which one of the following types of radiation has the highest frequency?

a)

x-rays

b)

ultraviolet rays

c)

FM radio waves

d)

microwave radiation

e)

infrared radiation

10.

Which one of the following types of radiation has the shortest wavelength?

a)

FM radio waves

b)

infrared radiation

c)

microwave radiation

d)

ultraviolet rays

e)

x-rays

11.

Which one of the following types of radiation has the shortest wavelength?

a)

FM radio waves

b)

infrared radiation

c)

microwave radiation

d)

ultraviolet rays

e)

visible light rays

12.

Which one of the following types of radiation has the longest wavelength?

a)

gamma rays

b)

green colored visible light rays

c)

red colored visible light rays

d)

ultraviolet rays

e)

x-rays

13.

Which one of the following types of radiation has the longest wavelength?

a)

gamma rays

b)

infrared radiation

c)

microwave radiation

d)

ultraviolet rays

e)

red colored visible light rays

14.

What is the energy, in joules, of one photon of microwave radiation with a wavelength of 0.158 m?

a)

1.26 x 10-24 J

b)

3.14 x 10-26 J

c)

3.19 x 1025J

d)

3.49 x 10-43 J

e)

7.15 x 1040J

15.

What is the energy, in joules, of one photon of visible radiation with a wavelength of 464.1 nm?

a)

1.026 x 10-48 J

b)

2.100 x 1035J

c)

2.341 x 1011J

d)

4.280 x 10-19 J

e)

4.280 x 10-12 J

16.

What is the energy, in joules, of one mole of photons associated with radiation which has a frequency of 3.818 x 1015Hz?

a)

1.045 x 10-25 J

b)

1.524 x 106J

c)

2.530 x 10-18 J

d)

6.564 x 10-7 J

e)

9.568 x 1024J

17.

What is the wavelength, in nm, of radiation which has energy of 3.371 x 10-19 joules per photon?

a)

655.9 nm

b)

152.5 nm

c)

170.0 nm

d)

589.3 nm

e)

745.1 nm

18.

What is the frequency, in Hz, of radiation which has energy of 219.1 kJ per mole (of these photons)?

a)

615.9 x 1014Hz

b)

1.624 x 1014Hz

c)

1.058 x 10-10Hz

d)

5.491 x 1014Hz

e)

3.588 x 10-19Hz

19.

Which statement below is true with regard to Bohr's model of the atom?

a)

The model accounted for the absorption spectra of atoms but not for the emission spectra.

b)

The model could account for the emission spectrum of hydrogen and for the Rydberg equation.

c)

The model was based on the wave properties of the electron.

d)

The model accounted for the emission spectra of atoms, but not for the absorption spectra.

e)

The model was generally successful for all atoms to which it was applied.

20.

The definite energies associated with specific wavelengths in the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen suggest that

a)

electrons have a smaller rest mass than photons

b)

photons have a smaller rest mass than electrons

c)

energy states in the hydrogen atom are quantized

d)

atomic hydrogen is more stable and has a lower potential energy than molecular hydrogen

e)

the potential energy of electrons in the atom can have any arbitrary value over a period of time, but the kinetic energy may only have certain specific values

21.

Calculate the energy required to excite a hydrogen atom by causing an electronic transition from the energy level with n = 1 to the level with n = 4.

a)

2.017 x 10-29 J

b)

2.043 x 10-18 J

c)

2.192 x 105J

d)

2.254 x 10-18 J

e)

3.275 x 10-17J

22.

Calculate the frequency of the light emitted by a hydrogen atom during a transition of its electron from the energy level with n = 6 to the level with n = 3.

a)

1.665 x 10-26 s -1

b)

1.824 x 10-15 s-1

c)

2.740 x 1014s-1

d)

3.649 x 10-15 s-1

e)

9.132 x 1013 s-1

23.

The letter designation for the sub shell is based on

a)

the value of the subsidiary quantum number

b)

the value of the principal qu

24.

The letter designation for the sub shell is based on

a)

the value of the subsidiary quantum number

b)

the value of the principal quantum number

c)

the value of the magnetic quantum number, ml

d)

the value of the spin quantum number, ms

25.

The three quantum numbers which characterize the solutions to the wave equation describing the behavior of the electron in the H atom are usually designated as

a)

1s 2s 2p

b)

n l ms

c)

ml ms mp

d)

n l ml

e)

l ml ms

26.

The wave functions which are solutions to the wave equation which describes the behavior of the electron in the hydrogen atom are described by how many quantum numbers?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

27.

"No two electrons in the same atom can have all its quantum numbers the same." This statement is based on the work of

a)

Louis de Broglie

b)

Werner von Heisenberg

c)

Albert Einstein

d)

Wolfgang Pauli

e)

Erwin Schrödinger

28.

Given the following sets of quantum numbers for n l ml ms, which one of these sets is not a possible set for an electron in an atom?

a)

3 2 2 -½

b)

3 1 -1 ½

c)

4 3 2 ½

d)

4 3 -2 -½

e)

5 2 3 ½

29.

Given the following sets of quantum numbers for n l ml ms, which one of these sets is not a possible set for an electron in an atom?

a)

3 1 -1 0

b)

3 2 2 -½

c)

4 3 2 ½

d)

4 3 -2 -½

e)

5 3 2 ½

30.

The statement that the ground state configuration of an atom is generated by filling in levels from the lowest (energy-wise) to the highest with electrons observing the maximum for each of these levels is

a)

the Aufbau principle

b)

Bustamente's principle

c)

Hund's Rule

d)

Murphy's rule

e)

the Pauli Principle

31.

A possible set of quantum numbers for an electron in the partially filled sub shell in the gallium atom in its ground state configuration would be

a)

3 1 0 -½

b)

3 1 1 ½

c)

4 0 0 -½

d)

4 1 0 ½

e)

4 2 1 ½

32.

The wavelength of a photon is 7 x10-7 m. Calculate the frequency of the photon. Also calculate the energy of the photon in Joules and eV

a)

4.285 x 1015 Hertz, 2.84 x 10-19 Joules, 2.36 eV

b)

4.285 x 1015 Hertz, 2.84 x 10-19 Joules, 1.77 eV

c)

3.236 x 1015 Hertz, 3.42 x 10-19 Joules, 2.36 eV

d)

3.236 x 1015 Hertz, 3.42 x 10-19 Joules, 1.77 eV

33.

The work function of Platinum is twice that of the work function of Calcium. If the minimum photon energy required to emit photoelectrons from the surface of Platinum is E, then that for the surface of Calcium would be

a)

2E

b)

3E/2

c)

E/2

d)

cannot be determined.

34.

The work function of Sodium is greater than that of Potassium. If both the surfaces are irradiated with photons of same wavelength, then the K.E. of the emitted photoelectrons in the Sodium surface as compared to the K.E. of the photoelectrons in the Potassium surface will be

a)

same

b)

less

c)

More

d)

cannot be determined.

35.

The threshold frequency for photoelectric emission in Copper is 1.1x 1015 Hz. Find the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted when light of frequency 1.5 x 1015 Hz is directed on a Copper surface.

a)

1.66e.V

b)

1.32e.V

c)

2.40e.V

d)

none

36.

The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission in Tungsten is 240nm. What wavelength of light must be used in order that the emitted photoelectrons have a K.E. MAX of 1.2 e.V.

a)

200nm

b)

230nm

c)

350nm

d)

19

37.

Frequency below which no electrons are emitted from metal surface is

a)

minimum frequency

b)

angular frequency

c)

maximum frequency

d)

threshold frequency

38.

Energy absorbed by electron is used in

a)

escaping metal

b)

increasing kinetic energy

c)

both A and B

d)

Increasing frequency

39.

In photoelectric effect, electrons should be removed from the

a)

Inner shell

b)

Surface

c)

From core

d)

nucleus

40.

Series that lies in infrared region of electromagnetic spectrum is

a)

Lyman series

b)

Ballmer series

c)

bracket series

d)

both A and B

41.

Atomic spectra is an example of

a)

line spectra

b)

continuous spectra

c)

band spectra

d)

both a and b

42.

According to Bohr's atomic model, angular momentum of electron in nth orbit is equal to an integral multiple of

a)

2h/π

b)

h/2π

c)

h/π

d)

nh/2π

43.

A scientist is trying to eject electrons from a metal by shining a light on it, but none are coming out. To eject electrons, she should change the light by…

a)

decreasing the frequency

b)

increasing the frequency

c)

increasing the intensity

d)

increasing the wavelength

44.

Why is the Bohr model of the atom forbidden by the Heisenberg uncertainty principle?

a)

The Bohr model fails to predict the fine structure in the hydrogen spectrum.

b)

The Bohr model is useful only for one-electron systems.

c)

The Bohr electron is moving in a fixed orbit at a fixed speed.

d)

The direction of the orbiting electron is not known.

45.

How many different states (combinations of l, ml and ms) are possible if n, the major quantum number is 2?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

46.

Why do the spin quantum number ms arise?

a)

The spin of the nucleus

b)

The orbiting of the electron

c)

The overall spin of the atom

d)

The spin of the electron

47.

How many 3d orbital's are there?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

10

48.

How many 3d orbital's are there?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

10

d)

12

49.

There are two 2p electrons in carbon. How are there spins related to each other?

a)

In one orbital and in the same direction

b)

In one orbital and in opposite directions

c)

In two orbital's and in the same direction

d)

In two orbital's and in opposite directions

50.

Atomic mass of an element is not necessarily a whole number because:

a)

It contains electrons, protons and neutrons

b)

It contains allotropic forms

c)

Atoms are no longer considered indivisible

d)

It contains isotopes

e)

none of these.

51.

No two electrons in an atom will have all four quantum numbers equal. The statement is known as

a)

Exclusion principle

b)

Uncertainty principle

c)

Hund's rule

d)

Aufbau principle

e)

Newlands law.

52.

When the 3d orbital is complete, the new electron will enter the

a)

4p orbital

b)

4f orbital

c)

4s orbital

d)

4d orbital

e)

5s orbital.

53.

The preference of three unpaired electrons in the nitrogen atom can be explained by:

a)

Pauling's exclusion principle

b)

Aufbau principle

c)

Uncertainty principle

d)

Hund's rule

54.

The nucleus of an atom contains:

a)

Electrons and protons

b)

Neutrons and protons

c)

Electrons, protons and neutrons

d)

Neutrons and electrons

55.

Which is the lightest among the following?

a)

An atom of hydrogen

b)

An electron

c)

A neutron

d)

A proton

e)

An alpha particle.

56.

Which of the following has no neutrons in the nucleus?

a)

Deuterium

b)

Helium

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Tritium

e)

An alpha particle.

57.

When the value of the azimuthal quantum number is 3, the magnetic quantum number can have values:

a)

+1,-1

b)

+1,0, 1

c)

+2,+1,0, -1,-2

d)

+3,+2, +1,0, -1,-2,-3

e)

+3,-3.

58.

2p orbitals have:

a)

n = 1,l = 2

b)

n=1, l = 0

c)

n = 2, l = 0

d)

n = 2, l =1

e)

n =1, l =1.

59.

The atomic number of an element is 17 and its mass number is 37. The number of protons, electrons and neutrons present in the neutral atom are:

a)

17, 37, 20

b)

20, 17, 37

c)

17, 17, 20

d)

17, 20, 17

e)

37, 20, 17.

60.

The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the nth level is:

a)

n2

b)

n+1

c)

n-1

d)

2n2

e)

2 + n.

61.

The magnetic quantum number decides:

a)

The distance of the orbital from the nucleus

b)

The shape of the orbital

c)

The orientation of the orbital in space

d)

The spin of the electron

e)

None of these.

62.

What is the frequency of light that has a wavelength of?

a)

4.26 ×104 cm?

b)

7.27 ×102 nm?

c)

654 nm

63.

What is the energy of light that has a frequency of?

a)

3.02 ×1013 sec-1

b)

3.72 ×1011 sec-1

c)

7.65 ×1010 sec-1

64.

What is the frequency of light that has energy of?

a)

6.88 ×1023 J

b)

2.72 ×1025 J

65.

What is the energy of light with a wavelength of?

a)

462 cm

b)

46.9 nm

66.

A certain light, A, has a greater frequency than a second light, B.

a)

Which light has the greater energy?

b)

Which light has the shorter wavelength?

c)

Which light has the higher wave number?

67.

Compare IR light with UV light in terms of wavelength, frequency, and wave number.

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68.

The electron in a ground-state H atom absorbs a photon of wavelength 97.20 nm. To what energy level does the electron move?

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69.

Which of these electron transitions correspond to absorption of energy and which to emission?

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70.

For each of the following, give the sublevel designation, the allowable ml values, and the number of orbital:

4 lines
71.

For each of the following sublevels, give the n and l values and the number of orbital:

4 lines
72.

How many electrons in an atom can have each of the following quantum number or sublevel designations?

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73.

How many electrons in an atom can have each of the following quantum number or sublevel designations?

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74.

How many electrons in an atom can have each of the following quantum number or sublevel designations?

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75.

Explain why each of the following sets of quantum numbers would not be permissible for an electron, according to the rules for quantum numbers.

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76.

State which of the following sets of quantum numbers would be possible and which impossible for an electron in an atom.

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77.

The photoelectric work function of a metal is the minimum energy needed to eject an electron by irradiating the metal with light. For calcium, this work function equals4.34 × 10-19 J. What is the minimum frequency of light for the photoelectric effect in calcium?

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78.

What is the minimum frequency of light for the photoelectric effect in calcium?

4 lines
79.

What is the maximum number of electrons in an atom that can have the following quantum numbers? (a) n= 3 and l =1; (b) n=3 and l= 2; (c) n= 3, l =2 and m l =1 (d) n= 3, l =1, and ml= 1 (e) n= 3, l=2, ml=0, and ms =-1/2

4 lines
80.

If an electron falls from the 5th Bohr orbital of hydrogen to the 3rd Bohr orbital of hydrogen, how much energy is released?

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81.

If an electron falls from the 6th Bohr orbital of hydrogen to the 3rd Bohr orbital of hydrogen, what wavelength of light is emitted? Is this in the visible light range?

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82.

If an electron in a hydrogen atom has energy of −6.06×10−20 J, which Bohr orbit is it in?

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83.

The work function of platinum metal is 8.0×10-10J; will a radiation of wave length 200 nm be able to cause a photoelectric effect? If so what will be the velocity of electron ejected from the surface?

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84.

Explain why the electronic configuration of Cr and Cu are written as 3d5, 4s1and 3d104s1instead of 3d44s2and 3d9 4s2?

4 lines
85.

What is the energy necessary to remove the one electron from the H+ Ion?

4 lines
86.

What is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron moving at a speed of 3.00 ×108cm/s?

4 lines
87.

What is the mass of a particle having a de Broglie wavelength of 2.42 ×10-10m and moving at 1.00 ×10-7m/s?

4 lines
88.

A thermal neutron in a reactor has a mass of 1.675 ×10-27kg, a velocity of 800.m/s, and h= 6.662 ×10-34J.s. The de Broglie wavelength of this thermal neutron is------------------?

4 lines
89.

Supply the missing quantum numbers and sublevel names. N l ml name A ? ? 0 4p B 2 1 0 ? C 3 2 -2 ? D ? ? ? 2s

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90.

Calculate the de Broglie wavelength for each of the following. A. an electron with a velocity 10 % of the speed of light B. a tennis ball (55 g) served at 35 m/s

4 lines
91.

Which of the following atoms can achieve the same electron configuration as a noble gas when the atom forms an ion?

a)

argon

b)

nickel

c)

potassium

d)

iron

92.

For which of these compounds is it impossible to explain the correct structure without hybridized orbitals?

a)

H2

b)

CH4

c)

NH3

d)

H2O

93.

The correct formula for ammonium phosphate is

a)

(NH4)3PO4.

b)

NH4PO4.

c)

(NH4)2PO4.

d)

NH4 (PO4)2.

94.

Metals tend to lose one or more electrons to form

a)

cations.

b)

anions.

c)

polyatomic ions

d)

unit cells.

95.

A chemical bond results from the mutual attraction of the nuclei for

a)

electrons.

b)

protons.

c)

neutrons.

d)

dipoles.

96.

A polar covalent bond is likely to form between two atoms that

a)

differs in electro negativity.

b)

are of similar size.

c)

differs in state of matter.

d)

has the same number of electrons.

97.

The Lewis structure of methane, CH4, has

a)

Two double bonds.

b)

One triple bond.

c)

Four single bonds.

d)

Two single bonds and two double bonds.

98.

In a polar covalent bond, the electro negativity of the two atoms is

a)

exactly the same.

b)

so different that one atom takes an electron away from the other atom.

c)

different, but the electrons are still shared by both atoms.

d)

zero.

99.

Multiple covalent bonds may be found in atoms that contain carbon, nitrogen, or

a)

helium.

b)

hydrogen.

c)

argon.

d)

oxygen.

100.

The polarity of a bond is related to the

a)

Lewis structure of each atom.

b)

electro negativity difference between the two atoms.

c)

number of shared pairs that are present.

d)

number of unshared pairs that are present.

101.

In Lewis structures, the atomic symbol represents

a)

valence electrons.

b)

atomic number.

c)

the nucleus and inner-shell electrons.

d)

a stable octet of electrons.

102.

To draw a Lewis structure, you do not need to know

a)

the number of valence electrons for each atom.

b)

the types of atoms in the molecule.

c)

the number of atoms in the molecule.

d)

bond energies.

103.

In Lewis structures, the atomic symbol represents

a)

valence electrons.

b)

atomic number.

c)

the nucleus and inner-shell electrons.

d)

a stable octet of electrons.

104.

Which of the following is a correct statement concerning the mechanism for ionic bond formation?

a)

Electrons are transferred from nonmetallic atoms to metallic atoms.

b)

Protons are transferred from the nuclei of metallic atoms to the nuclei of nonmetallic atoms.

c)

Sufficient electrons are transferred to form ions of equal but opposite charge.

d)

Electron loss is always equal to electron gain.

105.

In which of the following pairs of compounds are both members of the pair molecular compounds?

a)

PCl3 and LiBr

b)

CCl4 and KOH

c)

NaH and CaF2

d)

CO2 and NH3

106.

Eighteen electrons are present in the Lewis structure of which of the following molecules?

a)

CO2

b)

N2O

c)

SO2

d)

HCN

107.

Two nonbonding electrons are present in the Lewis structure of which of the following molecules?

a)

CH4

b)

HCN

c)

SO2

d)

H2O

108.

An angular molecular geometry is associated with molecules in which the central atom has which of the following?

a)

Three bonding groups and one nonbonding group

b)

Two bonding groups and two nonbonding groups

c)

Two bonding groups and zero nonbonding groups

d)

Three bonding groups and zero nonbonding groups

109.

In which of the following pairs of molecules do both members of the pair have the same molecular geometry?

a)

SO2 and CO2

b)

H2S and HCN

c)

NH3 and SO3

d)

H2O and OF2

110.

Which of the following substances has the strongest hydrogen bonds?

a)

CH4

b)

H2Se

c)

C2H6

d)

H2O

111.

Which of the following has the highest London dispersion forces between the molecules?

a)

H2O

b)

H2Se

c)

H2S

112.

Which of the following has the highest London dispersion forces between the molecules?

a)

H2O

b)

H2Se

c)

H2S

d)

H2Te

113.

The Lewis structure of SO2 has ____ lone pairs of electrons and ____ double bonds

a)

6, 1

b)

6, 2

c)

8, 1

d)

8, 2

114.

The Lewis structure of SO3 has ____ lone pairs of electrons and ____ double bonds.

a)

6, 1

b)

6, 2

c)

8, 1

d)

8, 2

115.

The Lewis structure of NH3 has ____ lone pairs of electrons and ____ double bonds.

a)

2, 0

b)

1, 0

c)

0, 1

d)

0, 2

116.

The Lewis structure of SF2 has ____ lone pairs of electrons and ____ double bonds.

a)

8, 0

b)

6, 0

c)

4, 1

d)

2, 2

117.

The Lewis structure of N2H4 has ____ lone pairs of electrons and ____ double bonds.

a)

2, 0

b)

1, 0

c)

0, 1

d)

0, 2

118.

All of the following statements are true about the Lewis structures of covalent molecules EXCEPT

a)

Only one possible Lewis structure can be drawn for any compound.

b)

The structural features in a Lewis structure include single, double and triple bonds and lone electron pairs.

c)

A Lewis structure is necessary to calculate formal charges.

d)

The number of electrons shown in a Lewis structure of a compound must equal the total number of valence electrons in the compound.

119.

All of the following are structural features that may be observed in Lewis structures of covalent molecules EXCEPT

a)

Double bonds

b)

Triple bonds

c)

Melting points

d)

Lone pairs of electrons

120.

The Lewis structure of ClO2- has ____ lone pairs of electrons and ____ double bonds

a)

8, 0

b)

7, 1

c)

6, 1

d)

4, 2

121.

The Lewis structure of ClO3- has ____ lone pairs of electrons and ____ double bonds

a)

10, 0

b)

8, 1

c)

10, 1

d)

6, 10

122.

The Lewis structure of H2CO3 has ____ lone pairs of electrons and ____ double bonds.

a)

8, 0

b)

6, 1

c)

5, 2

d)

4, 3

123.

Why does carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) have a dipole moment of zero?

a)

Because C and Cl have the same electro negativity

b)

Because the bond dipoles cancel out

c)

Because the compound is covalently bonded

d)

Because all of the bonds have partial ionic character

124.

Which of the following compounds exhibits resonance?

a)

CO2

b)

NH3

c)

SO3

d)

SF6

125.

In the Lewis dot structure of PF5, the P atom is surrounded by ____ bonding electron pairs and ____ lone pairs.

a)

5, 0

b)

5, 1

c)

5, 3

d)

4, 2

126.

In the Lewis dot structure of SF4, the S atom is surrounded by ____ bonding electron pairs and ____ lone pairs.

a)

5, 0

b)

4, 1

c)

3, 3

d)

4, 2

127.

Which of the following best describes the VSEPR structure of SF6?

a)

T-shaped

b)

Seesaw shaped

c)

Trigonal bipyamidal

d)

Octahedral

128.

Which of the following best describes the VSEPR structure of IF4 - ?

a)

Tetrahedral

b)

Seesaw shaped

c)

Square planar

d)

Octahedral

129.

Which of the following best describes the VSEPR structure of SF4?

a)

T-shaped

b)

Seesaw shaped

c)

Trigonal bipyamidal

d)

Octahedral

130.

In the CS2 molecule (the carbon is bonded to both sulfurs), the bonding between the carbon and sulfur consists of:

a)

One δ bond

b)

one δ bond and one π bond

c)

two δ bonds

d)

two π bonds

131.

When s and p orbital's are hybridized, how many sp3 hybrid orbitals are formed?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

132.

The hybridization of the oxygen atom in water is

a)

Sp

b)

sp2

c)

sp3

d)

sp3d

133.

Elemental oxygen, O2, has _____ unpaired electrons and therefore is _____

a)

No, diamagnetic

b)

1, paramagnetic

c)

2, paramagnetic

d)

3, paramagnetic

134.

The bond order of the bond in elemental oxygen is

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

135.

A molecule that has equal numbers of electrons in bonding and antibonding molecular orbitals has a bond order of

a)

1

b)

½

c)

0

d)

2

136.

The hybridization of the central carbon in CH3C≡N and the bond angle CCN are

a)

sp2, 180°.

b)

sp, 180°.

c)

sp2, 120°.

d)

sp3, 109°.

137.

Which of the following statements about an sp hybridized carbon is FALSE?

a)

It is divalent.

b)

It forms bonds that are linear.

c)

It has two p orbitals.

d)

It always forms triple bonds to carbon.

138.

Which molecule has the largest dipole moment?

a)

HCl

b)

CCl4

c)

H2S

d)

CO2

139.

Identify the orbital hybridization at the two indicated carbons in the molecule below

a)

C1: sp; C2: sp

b)

C1: sp2; C2: sp2

c)

C1: sp; C2: sp2

d)

C1: sp2; C2: sp

140.

The correct geometry around oxygen in CH3OCH3 is

a)

linear.

b)

bent.

c)

tetrahedral.

d)

Trigonal planar

141.

Which statement is false? A sigma molecular orbital

a)

May result from head-on overlap of p atomic orbital's.

b)

May result from overlap of an s atomic orbital with a p atomic orbital.

c)

appears spherical when viewed along its major axis (axis of overlap).

d)

Is a bonding orbital.

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