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Immunoassays CH5 MEDL 214

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In an immunoassay, an antibody molecule recognizes and binds to a(n) _______.

a)

antigen

b)

enzyme

c)

hormone

d)

vitamin

2.

Binding in an immunoassay is related to which of the following?

a)

Concentration of each reactant

b)

Specificity of antibody for antigen

c)

Affinity and avidity for pair

d)

Environmental conditions

e)

All of the above

3.

Binding in an immunoassay is related to the concentration of each _______.

a)

reactant

b)

enzyme

c)

substrate

d)

antibody

4.

Binding in an immunoassay is related to the specificity of _______ for antigen.

a)

antibody

b)

enzyme

c)

substrate

d)

hormone

5.

Binding in an immunoassay is related to environmental _______.

a)

conditions

b)

colors

c)

shapes

d)

distances

6.

Fill in the blank: In immune precipitation, ______ is dilute agarose dissolved in aqueous buffer.

a)

gel

b)

serum

c)

antibody

d)

precipitate

7.

What happens in the prozone during immune precipitation in gel?

a)

Maximal precipitation is formed

b)

No precipitation is formed because the amount of Ag exceeds the amount of Abs supplied by the test kit, and cross-linking is decreased

c)

The gel dissolves in water

d)

Antibody concentration is zero

8.

Fill in the blank: The zone of equivalence is the optimal ratio of concentration of antibody to concentration of ______ that results in maximal precipitation.

a)

antigen

b)

enzyme

c)

hormone

d)

lipid

9.

What is the simplest and least sensitive passive method in unlabeled immunoassays?

a)

Double diffusion

b)

ELISA

c)

Radioimmunoassay

d)

Western blot

10.

Which method in unlabeled immunoassays quantifies protein using a passive method?

a)

Single diffusion

b)

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

c)

Radioimmunoassay

d)

Fluorescence polarization immunoassay

11.

Immunoelectrophoresis is also known as:

a)

Immunofixation electrophoresis

b)

Double diffusion

c)

Rocket technique

d)

Single diffusion

12.

What does turbidimetry measure?

a)

Light scattered

b)

Light transmitted

c)

Heat produced

d)

Color change

13.

What does nephelometry measure?

a)

Light transmitted

b)

Light scattered

c)

Heat produced

d)

Color change

14.

Fill in the blank: Complexes act as particles in suspension that can ______ light.

a)

scatter

b)

absorb

c)

reflect

d)

transmit

15.

In nephelometry, most instruments measure forward light scattered at less than ______ because the sensitivity is increased.

a)

90°

b)

180°

c)

120°

d)

60°

16.

The reagent (antigen or antibody) in labeled immunoassays is labeled by attaching a ________.

a)

particle or molecule

b)

liquid crystal

c)

fiber optic cable

d)

magnetic field

17.

What is the main benefit of labeling in immunoassays?

a)

It increases the cost

b)

It improves analytic sensitivity

c)

It reduces specificity

d)

It makes the process slower

18.

General Considerations: Immunoassays are used almost exclusively, with two exceptions. Which of the following is NOT an exception?

a)

A) Estrogen and progesterone receptor assays

b)

B) Thyroid hormone–binding ratio (thyroxine-binding globulin)

c)

C) Blood glucose monitoring

d)

D) Both A and B

19.

General Considerations: Immunoassay design has many variables, leading to ________.

a)

diverse arrays

b)

uniform results

c)

limited choices

d)

predictable outcomes

20.

Which condition is represented by the diagram labeled 'Ab excess'?

a)

ProZone

b)

PostZone

c)

Equivalence — Lattice formation

d)

None of the above

21.

What is the name of the condition where lattice formation occurs in immunoassays?

a)

Equivalence — Lattice formation

b)

Prozone — No lattice formation

c)

Postzone — No lattice formation

d)

Agglutination — No lattice formation

22.

What are the most common enzyme labels used in immunoassays?

a)

horseradish peroxidase, alkaline phosphatase, glucose-7-phosphate dehydrogenase

b)

lipase, amylase, trypsin

c)

DNA polymerase, RNA ligase, helicase

d)

catalase, urease, lactase

23.

Enzymes are biologic catalysts that increase the rate of conversion of substrate to product and are not consumed by reaction.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Enzymes can catalyze many substrate molecules.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Enzyme activity may be monitored by the amount of product or effect of product on coupled reaction.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

What are fluorescent labels also known as?

a)

Fluorochromes or fluorophores.

b)

Chromatophores.

c)

Photophores.

d)

Phycobilins.

27.

What do luminescent labels emit as a result of electrical, biochemical, or chemical reaction?

a)

A photon of light

b)

A magnetic field

c)

A stream of electrons

d)

A burst of heat

28.

What was the first chemiluminescent label used in immunoassays?

a)

Luminol

b)

Horseradish peroxidase

c)

Alkaline phosphatase

d)

Fluorescein

29.

Luminol is a cyclic diacylhydrazide that emits what type of energy?

a)

Light energy

b)

Sound energy

c)

Thermal energy

d)

Electrical energy

30.

Acridinium esters are what type of organic molecule?

a)

Triple-ringed organic molecule

b)

Linear-chain hydrocarbon

c)

Single-ring aromatic compound

d)

Branched aliphatic compound

31.

Acridinium esters are linked by what type of bond to an organic chain?

a)

Ester bond

b)

Amide bond

c)

Ether bond

d)

Ionic bond

32.

What does a radiolabeled antigen (Ag*) compete with for binding sites in a competitive immunoassay?

a)

Unlabeled antigen (Ag)

b)

Radiolabeled antibody (Ab*)

c)

Enzyme substrate

d)

Buffer solution

33.

In a competitive immunoassay, as the amount of Ag increases, what happens to the binding of Ag* to the antibody?

a)

Less Ag* binds to the antibody.

b)

More Ag* binds to the antibody.

c)

Binding of Ag* to the antibody remains unchanged.

d)

Ag* and Ag bind equally to the antibody.

34.

In a one-step competitive immunoassay, which components are simultaneously incubated together?

a)

Ag* and Ag only

b)

Ag* and Ab only

c)

Ag*, Ag, and reagent antibody (Ab)

d)

Ag and Ab only

35.

In the sequential step of a competitive immunoassay, which component is incubated with Ab first?

a)

A) Ag

b)

B) Ag*

c)

C) Both Ag and Ag*

d)

D) Ab

36.

In a competitive immunoassay, Ag* is constant and limited.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

What is the main principle of a competitive labeled immunoassay?

a)

The labeled antigen competes with the unlabeled antigen for binding to the antibody.

b)

The labeled antibody binds only to the labeled antigen.

c)

The labeled antigen binds to all available antibodies without competition.

d)

The labeled antigen is not separated from the bound antigen.

38.

In the competitive labeled immunoassay shown in the figure , what is formed after the separation step?

a)

Only free labeled antigen

b)

Precipitate containing bound labeled antigen

c)

Only free unlabeled antigen

d)

No precipitate is formed

39.

Fill in the blank: The immunoassay shown in the figure is called a __________ labeled immunoassay.

a)

competitive

b)

direct

c)

sandwich

d)

indirect

40.

What is used to detect antigen in noncompetitive immunoassays?

a)

Labeled reagent antibody

b)

Unlabeled antigen

c)

Buffer solution

d)

Enzyme substrate

41.

Why is excess labeled antibody required in noncompetitive immunoassays?

a)

To ensure that labeled antibody reagent does not limit reaction.

b)

To increase the background noise in the assay.

c)

To reduce the sensitivity of the assay.

d)

To prevent the binding of antigen to the antibody.

42.

The concentration of antigen is directly proportional to what in noncompetitive immunoassays?

a)

Bound-labeled antibody

b)

Free-labeled antibody

c)

Total antibody concentration

d)

Enzyme substrate concentration

43.

The relationship between antigen concentration and bound-labeled antibody is linear up to a limit, then is subject to what effect?

a)

High-dose hook effect

b)

Prozone effect

c)

Competitive inhibition

d)

Allosteric modulation

44.

Precipitation occurs when the environment is altered, affecting the _______ of protein.

a)

solubility

b)

color

c)

temperature

d)

density

45.

Solid phase in labeled immunoassays is used to immobilize reagent antibody or antigen and separate free from ________ after washing.

a)

bound-labeled reactant

b)

unlabeled buffer

c)

enzyme substrate

d)

washing solution

46.

Which of the following is an advantage of using solid-phase separation in immunoassays?

a)

It is more difficult to automate

b)

It requires more manipulation and time

c)

It is easier to perform and to automate and requires less manipulation and time

d)

It is less accurate than other immunoassays

47.

What is an advantage of sandwich-type immunoassays?

a)

The production of linear calibration curves.

b)

They require no antibodies.

c)

They are not specific to the target analyte.

d)

They do not require any labeling reagents.

48.

What is a disadvantage of sandwich-type immunoassays?

a)

These assays are subjected to false-positive and false-negative interferences.

b)

They require no antibodies for detection.

c)

They are only used for detecting nucleic acids.

d)

They cannot be automated.

49.

Heterophile Abs are formed from patients who have which type of diseases?

a)

Autoimmune disease and other disorders.

b)

Genetic disorders only.

c)

Nutritional deficiencies only.

d)

Congenital heart diseases only.

50.

Although the principle is different, the 'hook' effect is similar to which effect?

a)

The prozone effect.

b)

The Bohr effect.

c)

The Tyndall effect.

d)

The Pasteur effect.

51.

What does PETINIA stand for in the context of labeled immunoassays?

a)

Particle-enhanced turbidimetric inhibition immunoassay

b)

Protein-enhanced time-resolved immunoassay

c)

Polymer-enzyme triggered immunoassay

d)

Photometric enzyme-tagged immunoassay

52.

What does ELISA stand for in the context of labeled immunoassays?

a)

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays

b)

Electrolyte-linked immunosorbent analysis

c)

Enzyme-labeled immunospecific assay

d)

Erythrocyte-linked immunosorbent assay

53.

What does EMIT stand for in the context of labeled immunoassays?

a)

Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique

b)

Electro-magnetic immunoassay test

c)

Enzyme-mediated immunoassay technology

d)

Enhanced-molecule immunoassay tool

54.

What does CEDIA stand for in the context of labeled immunoassays?

a)

Cloned enzyme donor immunoassays

b)

Competitive enzyme detection immunoassay analysis

c)

Chemiluminescent enzyme detection immunoassay

d)

Covalent enzyme donor immunoassay

55.

What does MEIA stand for in the context of labeled immunoassays?

a)

Microparticle capture enzyme immunoassay

b)

Monoclonal enzyme immunoassay

c)

Multiple enzyme immunoassay analysis

d)

Micro-enzyme immunoassay

56.

What does the abbreviation FETI stand for in labeled immunoassays?

a)

Fluorescence excitation transfer immunoassay

b)

Fluorescent enzyme tracer immunoassay

c)

Fast enzyme tagging immunoassay

d)

Formaldehyde enhanced test immunoassay

57.

What does the abbreviation FPIA stand for in labeled immunoassays?

a)

Fluorescence polarization immunoassay

b)

Fluorescent protein immunoassay

c)

Fixed phase immunoassay

d)

Formalin precipitation immunoassay

58.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Rapid Immunoassay, POC Testing?

a)

Easy to use

b)

Requires complex instrumentation

c)

Simple and fast

d)

Site-neutral

59.

Fill in the blank: Rapid Immunoassay, POC Testing is ______ to use, simple, fast, site-neutral, requiring no instrumentation.

a)

easy

b)

difficult

c)

expensive

d)

dangerous

60.

Which of the following describes a change that can occur in Rapid Immunoassay, POC Testing following binding?

a)

Changes in a physical or chemical property

b)

Change in temperature only

c)

Change in color only

d)

No change occurs

61.

When activated B cells multiply, what do they produce?

a)

Plasma cells

b)

Antigens

c)

Histamines

d)

T lymphocytes

62.

4.) During the ELISA test, the secondary antibody was attached to an enzyme. What happens when that enzyme becomes attached to the substrate?

a)

a.) The enzyme and the substrate reacted with the primary antibody and caused a color change.

b)

b.) The enzyme and the substrate work worked together to destroy the antigen, resulting in a color change.

c)

c.) The enzyme caused the substrate to change, resulting in a color change.

d)

d.) The substrate caused the enzyme to change, resulting in a color change.

63.
What is a primary antibody?
a)
the second antibody used to detect foreign particle
b)
particle produced by the antigen
c)
the first antibody used to detect foreign particle
d)
second cell produced by the macrophage
64.
Which of the following are commonly tested for using the ELISA method?
a)
HIV
b)
Pregnancy
c)
Lyme Disease
d)
All of these
65.

Select all the answers that are characteristics of antibodies.

a)

This molecule is produced by white blood cells

b)

These molecules give the body immunity

c)

A vaccine causes the body to produce these

d)

These are part of the pathogen

e)

This molecule triggers an immune response