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Quiz for MO's

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Under the TSCS (CCA) Rules, 1991, which of the following penalties requires a detailed inquiry under Rule 20 before imposition?

a)

Censure

b)

Withholding of increments without cumulative effect

c)

Compulsory retirement

d)

Recovery from pay for pecuniary loss

2.

As per Rule 3 of TSCS (CCA) Rules, 1991, which authority has the power to classify posts of State Services and Subordinate Services?

a)

Government

b)

Public Service Commission

c)

Head of Department

d)

Finance Department

3.

Under the 1991 Rules, which penalty does not amount to a break in service for pensionary benefits?

a)

Removal from service

b)

Compulsory retirement

c)

Dismissal from service

d)

Termination of probation

4.

Rule 24 of TSCS (CCA) Rules, 1991, deals with the communication of orders. Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Only the operative portion of the order needs to be communicated.

b)

Both operative portion and reasons must be communicated.

c)

Orders can be communicated orally if urgent.

d)

Communication is optional if penalty is minor.

5.

Which of the following is a minor penalty under Rule 9 of the TSCS (CCA) Rules, 1991?

a)

Reduction to a lower grade or post

b)

Withholding of increments without cumulative effect

c)

Dismissal from service

d)

Removal from service

6.

Under Rule 20, the charged officer must be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard. Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement?

a)

Supply of articles of charge and statement of imputations

b)

Right to inspect listed documents

c)

Right to cross-examine witnesses

d)

Right to choose a lawyer of own choice without restrictions

7.

Appeal against the order of suspension under the 1991 Rules lies to which authority?

a)

Same authority which passed suspension order

b)

Appellate authority specified for disciplinary matters

c)

Government only

d)

State Public Service Commission

8.

Which of the following is true regarding Rule 10 (Suspension) of TSCS (CCA) Rules, 1991?

a)

Suspension can be ordered only by Government.

b)

Suspension is treated as punishment.

c)

A Government servant under suspension is entitled to subsistence allowance.

d)

Suspension automatically ends after 90 days.

9.

As per the TSCS (CCA) Rules, 1991, which penalty can never be imposed without holding an inquiry under Rule 20?

a)

Censure

b)

Recovery from pay

c)

Reduction to lower stage in time scale of pay for 3 years

d)

Withholding of promotion

10.

Under Rule 22, if the appellate authority enhances the penalty, what safeguard must it provide?

a)

No safeguard required, as appellate power is absolute

b)

Must give opportunity to make representation before enhancement

c)

Must obtain prior Government approval

d)

Must consult the Public Service Commission

11.

Which rule of the TSCS (CCA) Rules, 1991 empowers the competent authority to place a government servant under suspension?

a)

Rule 9

b)

Rule 10

c)

Rule 12

d)

Rule 20

12.

Which of the following is a major penalty under Rule 9?

a)

Censure

b)

Withholding of increments without cumulative effect

c)

Reduction to a lower grade/post

d)

Recovery from pay

13.

A government servant dismissed from service under the 1991 Rules:

a)

May be reappointed in the same department with Government approval

b)

Cannot be reappointed under any Government department

c)

Automatically reinstates after 5 years

d)

Can be reappointed only with PSC approval

14.

Which of the following authorities can impose the penalty of dismissal from service?

a)

Any superior officer

b)

Appointing authority or higher authority

c)

Immediate controlling officer

d)

District Collector only

15.

When a government servant is convicted on a criminal charge, which rule permits action without holding a departmental inquiry?

a)

Rule 14

b)

Rule 19

c)

Rule 20

d)

Rule 24

16.

During suspension, what percentage of subsistence allowance is payable during the first 3 months?

a)

25% of basic pay + DA

b)

50% of basic pay + DA

c)

75% of basic pay + DA

d)

100% of basic pay + DA

17.

Appeal against an order of withholding promotion lies to:

a)

Public Service Commission

b)

Government only

c)

The authority prescribed as appellate under the rules

d)

Finance Department

18.

Rule 13 of the CCA Rules, 1991 deals with:

a)

Nature of penalties

b)

Common proceedings against multiple employees

c)

Revision powers

d)

Suspension

19.

As per the rules, an order of suspension should be reviewed every:

a)

30 days

b)

90 days

c)

120 days

d)

180 days

20.

Which of the following is not a stage where consultation with Telangana State Public Service Commission is mandatory?

a)

Before imposing dismissal

b)

Before imposing removal

c)

Before imposing censure

d)

Before imposing compulsory retirement

21.

When an employee is under suspension and is acquitted in a criminal case, the suspension period is generally treated as:

a)

Break in service

b)

Period not counted for pension

c)

Duty, with full pay and allowances

d)

Leave without pay

22.

The maximum time limit to file an appeal under TSCS (CCA) Rules, 1991 is:

a)

30 days from receipt of order

b)

45 days from receipt of order

c)

60 days from receipt of order

d)

90 days from receipt of order

23.

Who can act as Presenting Officer in a departmental inquiry?

a)

Any Government servant appointed by disciplinary authority

b)

Only Government Law Officer

c)

Only Vigilance Officer

d)

PSC nominee

24.

Reduction to a lower stage in time scale of pay, if imposed for more than 3 years, is treated as:

a)

Minor penalty

b)

Major penalty

c)

Suspension

d)

Recovery penalty

25.

Under Rule 23, when an appellate authority considers an appeal, it:

a)

Must always hold a fresh inquiry

b)

Can confirm, enhance, reduce, or set aside the penalty

c)

Can only confirm the penalty

d)

Must refer the case to Government

26.

Under Rule 20, if the charged officer does not submit a written statement of defence, the inquiry officer shall:

a)

Drop the charges

b)

Report the case to Government

c)

Proceed with the inquiry ex-parte

d)

Cancel the inquiry

27.

A penalty of censure has what impact on the service of an employee?

a)

Break in service

b)

Bars promotion permanently

c)

Minor adverse entry in service record

d)

Leads to suspension

28.

Which of the following is correct about removal and dismissal?

a)

Removal and dismissal both disqualify from future employment

b)

Removal does not disqualify, dismissal does

c)

Dismissal

29.

Which of the following is correct about removal and dismissal?

a)

Removal and dismissal both disqualify from future employment

b)

Removal does not disqualify, dismissal does

c)

Dismissal is minor, removal is major

d)

Both are same in effect

30.

If a government servant dies during the pendency of disciplinary proceedings:

a)

Proceedings abate and no penalty is imposed

b)

Proceedings continue against family

c)

Pensionary benefits are forfeited automatically

d)

Proceedings convert to criminal case

31.

Rule 25 deals with:

a)

Revision of penalties

b)

Communication of suspension orders

c)

Orders against which no appeal lies

d)

Withholding increments

32.

In a departmental inquiry, copies of listed documents should be supplied:

a)

Only if employee demands

b)

Only if Government approves

c)

Mandatorily, whether demanded or not

d)

Not required at all

33.

Which penalty is considered the severest under the Rules?

a)

Compulsory retirement

b)

Removal

c)

Dismissal

d)

Reduction in rank

34.

Under the rules, if subsistence allowance is deliberately misused by not attending inquiry proceedings, it may be:

a)

Enhanced to 100%

b)

Reduced to nil

c)

Converted into loan

d)

Automatically regularized

35.

Who is competent to order withholding of increments of a subordinate?

a)

Government only

b)

The disciplinary authority competent to impose minor penalties

c)

District Judge

d)

Public Service Commission

36.

In case of common proceedings involving officers of different cadres, the competent disciplinary authority is:

a)

The lowest authority among them

b)

The highest authority among them

c)

Government only

d)

Head of Department

37.

Which of the following orders is appealable under the TSCS (CCA) Rules, 1991?

a)

An interlocutory order in inquiry

b)

An order of suspension

c)

An order sanctioning prosecution

d)

An order of transfer

38.

The penalty of reduction to a lower grade/post affects:

a)

Seniority only

b)

Pay and seniority both

c)

Only pension

d)

Promotion eligibility alone

39.

Under Rule 37, review of disciplinary cases is permissible by:

a)

Disciplinary authority only

b)

Government or Head of Department

c)

Governor only

d)

Appellate authority only

40.

A patient dies after a road traffic accident due to lack of blood availability at your Government Hospital. Which immediate administrative step should you take?

a)

Blame blood bank and close the case

b)

Order inquiry and report to DMHO immediately

c)

Call patient relatives to settle dispute privately

d)

Issue press note denying responsibility

41.

Fire accident occurs in hospital ICU. As Superintendent, your first step is:

a)

Inform media

b)

Call for Fire and Safety Department help

c)

Suspend all staff on duty

d)

Wait for higher authority orders

42.

During NQAS (National Quality Assurance Standards) inspection, the hospital is found lacking biomedical waste segregation. As administrator, the immediate action is:

a)

Issue circular and conduct staff training

b)

Ignore as inspection is temporary

c)

Blame outsourced agency

d)

Suspend sanitation staff

43.

In a District Hospital, frequent power failures disrupt oxygen concentrators. As Superintendent, what is the best long-term measure?

a)

Advise staff to manage manually

b)

Procure diesel generator / solar backup

c)

Refer all patients elsewhere

d)

Ignore until Govt sanctions power line

44.

Biomedical waste collection contractor stops service abruptly. Best solution?

a)

Dump waste in open field

b)

Temporary tie-up with nearest Govt. hospital for disposal

c)

Wait for DMHO orders

d)

Leave it to sanitation staff

45.

Sudden outbreak of dengue cases leads to shortage of beds. Your best decision?

a)

Refer all patients out

b)

Convert waiting halls/school buildings into temporary wards

c)

Ask patients to manage at home

d)

Close hospital for fumigation

46.

Audit finds irregular use of hospital funds. As Superintendent, you should:

a)

Blame accountant

b)

Seek explanation from concerned DDO, submit report to DMHO

c)

Return unspent funds

d)

Ignore as it's routine

47.

A senior staff nurse repeatedly refuses to attend night duties. As the Medical Officer, your first step should be:

a)

Suspend her immediately

b)

Issue oral warning only

c)

Issue written explanation notice

d)

Ignore to avoid conflict

48.

A pharmacist is suspected of selling government medicines outside. What is the correct course?

a)

Call police directly without departmental action

b)

Seize stock, report to higher authority, and initiate disciplinary proceedings

c)

Ignore as no written complaint exists

d)

Transfer pharmacist silently

49.

An ANM (Auxiliary Nurse Midwife) is continuously absent without sanctioned leave. As PHC MO, you should:

a)

Mark absent and send report to DMHO for disciplinary action

b)

Adjust attendance to avoid trouble

c)

Stop salary immediately without report

d)

Transfer her to another PHC

50.

A lab technician is found intoxicated during duty hours. What is the appropriate first action?

a)

Suspend immediately and send report

b)

Issue charge memo and remove from hospital instantly for patient safety

c)

Call his family to take him home

d)

Ignore as it's a personal matter

51.

A junior doctor refuses to follow infection control protocols despite repeated instructions. Best administrative step?

a)

Ignore since he is a doctor

b)

Issue written warning, document incident, escalate if repeated

c)

Shout in front of staff to set example

d)

Stop salary directly

52.

A ward boy is abusive towards patients' relatives. As Medical Officer, what is the best response?

a)

Apologize on his behalf and ignore

b)

Warn and reassign him, issue memo if repeated

c)

Terminate service immediately

d)

Allow relatives to handle him

53.

During a hospital inspection, one staff deliberately argues with senior officials and disrupts work. Your step?

a)

Immediately issue show cause notice

b)

Argue back in front of inspectors

c)

Apologize to inspector on staff's behalf and ignore

d)

Transfer the staff instantly

54.

A staff nurse refuses to administer vaccines citing "personal beliefs." As MO in-charge of PHC, your correct step is:

a)

Respect her belief and assign others

b)

Report to DMHO and issue charge memo for dereliction of duty

c)

Ignore as vaccines are optional

d)

Allow her to work only in OP ward

55.

A senior employee from PHC, constantly intimidates juniors and discourages them from attending instructions from MO in implementing national programs. What should be done?

a)

Ignore since he is senior

b)

Counsel, warn in writing, and report if repeated

c)

Remove from service directly

d)

Leave matter to juniors to complain

56.

A Medical Officer applied for Earned Leave (EL) of 30 days but left station before sanction. What is the correct position?

a)

EL automatically stands sanctioned

b)

EL is treated as "leave not due"

c)

EL is treated as "unauthorized absence"

d)

EL is adjusted as commuted leave

57.

Which type of leave cannot be claimed as a right but may be granted in special circumstances?

a)

Earned Leave

b)

Casual Leave

c)

Extraordinary Leave

d)

Maternity Leave

58.

A doctor requests Maternity Leave for 180 days. Which of the following is correct?

a)

Only 90 days are allowed

b)

120 days + rest as leave not due

c)

180 days are permissible with pay

d)

Leave is without pay

59.

Which of the following is true about Casual Leave (CL)?

a)

It is treated as duty for all purposes

b)

CL can be combined with EL

c)

CL can be carried forward to next year

d)

CL can be encashed at retirement

60.

If a doctor exhausts all leave but still requires rest after major surgery, which leave is applicable?

a)

Earned Leave

b)

Extraordinary Leave (EOL)

c)

Half Pay Leave

d)

Casual Leave

61.

Leave sanctioning authority for a Civil Assistant Surgeon (CAS) in PHC is:

a)

District Collector

b)

DMHO

c)

Superintendent of District Hospital

d)

Health Secretary

62.

A doctor on maternity leave delivers twins. She applies for Child Care Leave (CCL). Which of the following is correct?

a)

CCL not admissible for twins

b)

CCL admissible up to 2 years until children reach 18 years (or 22 for disabled)

c)

Only 6 months CCL allowed

d)

CCL requires special Government Order

63.

Leave can be refused:

a)

If patient load is high and relieving arrangements are not possible

b)

For maternity leave

c)

For leave on medical certificate

d)

For earned leave due for encashment

64.

Which leave is not debitable against leave account?

a)

Casual Leave

b)

Earned Leave

c)

Half Pay Leave

d)

Commuted Leave

65.

As a PHC Medical Officer functioning as DDO, you notice salary bills prepared by clerk include one staff member already transferred out. Your correct action is:

a)

Sign the bill as usual

b)

Stop payment to that staff and return bill for correction

c)

Forward the wrong bill to Treasury and let them handle

d)

Pay first, adjust later

66.

Which of the following is NOT the duty of a DDO?

a)

Drawing salaries

b)

Sanctioning leave

c)

Remitting statutory deductions like GPF/NPS

d)

Preparing budget estimates

67.

If a staff member's GPF subscription is deducted but not remitted by DDO, the responsibility lies with:

a)

Treasury Officer

b)

Accountant

c)

DDO personally

d)

Head of Department only

68.

As DDO, you are required to verify contingent bills before submitting to Treasury. What should you check first?

a)

Whether funds are available in budget head

b)

Whether staff are satisfied with bills

c)

Whether DMHO has approved all hospital activities

d)

Whether patients are benefitted

69.

DDO finds electricity bill amounting to ₹5,00,000 for hospital. The budget head has only ₹3,00,000 left. Correct action?

a)

Pay full bill from hospital development fund

b)

Pay ₹3,00,000, report excess liability to higher authority

c)

Refuse to pay and ignore

d)

Borrow from private sources

70.

In case of fraudulent drawal of pay by producing fake attendance, who is held primarily responsible?

a)

Clerk preparing bill

b)

Treasury Officer

c)

DDO

d)

DMHO

71.

As DDO, if you delegate preparation of salary bills to a junior assistant, your responsibility is:

a)

Reduced to zero

b)

Only partial if fraud occurs

c)

Full, as final signing authority lies with DDO

d)

Lies with Treasury

72.

Which of the following transactions cannot be carried out directly by a DDO?

a)

Payment of salaries

b)

Remittance of income tax deductions

c)

Transfer of budget head amounts without approval

d)

Payment of arrears

73.

As Superintendent of an Area Hospital, you receive complaints of poor sanitation. Can you use HDF / RKS funds for engaging extra sanitation workers?

a)

Yes, permissible

b)

No, sanitation is only outsourced

c)

Only with DMHO approval

d)

Only if Collector orders

74.

Which of the following cannot be spent from RKS funds?

a)

Purchase of emergency drugs not supplied in regular indent

b)

Hiring of security services

c)

Payment of salary to regular staff

d)

Minor civil repairs (painting, electrification)

75.

In PHC, a vehicle repair bill of ₹25,000 comes for the ambulance. Can RKS funds be used?

a)

Yes, ambulance repairs are permissible

b)

No, only medicines can be purchased

c)

Only if DMHO gives written order

d)

Not allowed under any condition

76.

In an emergency outbreak, hospital requires tents and cots for temporary ward. Which fund is most appropriate?

a)

RKS fund

b)

HDF only

c)

Salaries budget head

d)

CM Relief Fund

77.

The main purpose of RKS/HDF funds is:

a)

Salary disbursement

b)

Flexibility for hospital development and patient welfare

c)

Building major new structures

d)

Reimbursement of officers' travel expenses

78.

As MO of a PHC, you notice OPD records are poorly maintained. What is your primary responsibility?

a)

Ignore, since ANM maintains them

b)

Ensure proper recording and conduct surprise checks

c)

Wait for DMHO inspection

d)

Ask patients to maintain their own records

79.

Which of the following is a mandatory monthly report to be sent from PHC?

a)

Staff attendance only

b)

Financial audit report

c)

HMIS (Health Management Information System) reports

d)

Only outbreak reports

80.

If medicines supplied to PHC are about to expire, your correct action is:

a)

Distribute them immediately irrespective of prescription

b)

Return to district drug store or redistribute to other PHCs in need

c)

Destroy without record

d)

Keep them as stock

81.

In PHC, staff nurse refuses to attend delivery duty at night citing "personal reasons". Your correct action:

a)

Allow and adjust duty yourself

b)

Counsel and reassign; if repeated, report as indiscipline under CCA Rules

c)

Ignore complaint

d)

Wait for Collector orders

82.

As PHC in-charge, you receive a complaint from a patient named Aditi about informal payments being collected by the ward boy. What should be your immediate step?

a)

Ignore unless patient gives proof

b)

Conduct enquiry and stop malpractice immediately