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Self-versus Non-Self

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Refer to the diagram titled 'Self-versus Non-Self'. Which of the following is recognized as 'non-self' by the immune system cell?

a)

Self cell

b)

Non-self cell

c)

Immune system cell

d)

All of the above

2.

Refer to the diagram titled 'Self-versus Non-Self'. The immune system cell recognizes and responds to cells that are identified as _________.

a)

non-self

b)

self

c)

neutral

d)

friendly

3.

Refer to the diagram titled 'Self-versus Non-Self'. True or False: The immune system cell attacks self cells.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Georgia is the #2 state in the United States with the Highest Rates of HIV.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

List three aspects related to HIV mentioned in the slide: Diagnoses, Deaths, and ________.

a)

Prevalence

b)

Vaccination

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Allergies

6.

What type of virus affects the immune system in HIV/AIDS?

a)

Bacteriophage

b)

Retrovirus

c)

Adenovirus

d)

Herpesvirus

7.

Which cells does HIV target and destroy?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Platelets

c)

CD4 white blood cells (T Cells)

d)

B cells

8.

CD4+ T-cells become ______ to make new viral particles daily.

a)

'HIV factory'

b)

'immune boosters'

c)

'antibody producers'

d)

'virus killers'

9.

As HIV infection progresses, what happens to the CD4+ T-cell count and viral load?

a)

CD4+ T-cell count rises, viral load falls

b)

CD4+ T-cell count falls, viral load rises

c)

Both rise

d)

Both fall

10.

The immune system weakens as HIV progresses.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

True or False: Everyone with HIV has AIDS.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

In the diagram, what process is indicated by the arrow labeled 'Reverse transcription and integration'?

a)

Virus entry

b)

Viral RNA conversion to DNA and integration into host genome

c)

Budding of new virus

d)

Destruction of host cell

13.

Which of the following body fluids can spread HIV?

a)

Blood

b)

Semen

c)

Rectal fluids

d)

Vaginal fluids

e)

All of the above

14.

HIV can be transmitted through breastmilk (perinatally).

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Which of the following is NOT a way HIV is transmitted?

a)

By casual contact

b)

Blood (parenterally)

c)

Semen

d)

Vaginal fluids

16.

HIV can be spread by sharing household utensils, towels, linens, or toilets.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

HIV can be transmitted via mosquitoes or insects.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Fill in the blank: HIV is spread through infected ________ contact.

a)

body fluid

b)

air

c)

sweat

d)

saliva

19.

Is HIV/AIDS considered a worldwide epidemic?

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Which of the following is a population at risk for HIV/AIDS?

a)

People engaging in sexual activities

b)

People who exercise regularly

c)

People who eat healthy

d)

People who read books

21.

Sharing ________ increases the risk of HIV/AIDS transmission. (Fill in the blank)

a)

drug needles

b)

clothes

c)

books

d)

food

22.

The use of ________/alcohol is a risk factor for HIV/AIDS.

a)

drugs

b)

fruits

c)

exercise

d)

books

23.

Incarceration is listed as a risk factor for HIV/AIDS.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

HIV/AIDS leads to a ________ immune system.

a)

weakened

b)

strong

c)

improved

d)

enhanced

25.

Fill in the blank: People with HIV/AIDS are more likely to get ________ infections and cancers.

a)

opportunistic

b)

bacterial

c)

hereditary

d)

congenital

26.

Which of the following disorders are people with HIV/AIDS prone to?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Diabetes

c)

Fungal infection

d)

Lung cancer

27.

Fill in the blank: People with HIV/AIDS are prone to ________ infection complications.

a)

Salmonella

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Influenza

d)

Chickenpox

28.

Dementia is one of the disorders people with HIV/AIDS are prone to.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

True or False: Hypertension is not associated with HIV/AIDS.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Fill in the blank: People with HIV/AIDS are at higher risk for ________, a viral infection causing sores.

a)

Herpes

b)

Influenza

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Malaria

31.

Fill in the blank: ________ is a skin condition that people with HIV/AIDS may be prone to.

a)

Eczema

b)

Psoriasis

c)

Vitiligo

d)

Rosacea

32.

Which of the following is a condition associated with AIDS?

a)

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

b)

Diabetes

c)

Asthma

d)

Hypertension

33.

Which of the following is a condition associated with AIDS?

a)

Kaposi sarcoma

b)

Influenza

c)

Arthritis

d)

Migraine

34.

Which of the following is a condition associated with AIDS?

a)

Lymphoma

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Anemia

d)

Epilepsy

35.

Which of the following is a condition associated with AIDS?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Bronchitis

c)

Scoliosis

d)

Cataract

36.

Which of the following is a condition associated with AIDS?

a)

Heart failure

b)

Stroke

c)

Appendicitis

d)

Glaucoma

37.

Name one psychosocial impact of HIV/AIDS on overall health.

a)

Psychosocial

b)

Respiratory

c)

Digestive

d)

Musculoskeletal

38.

What is an important aspect of managing HIV/AIDS related to prevention?

a)

Health Promotion and prevention

b)

Surgical intervention

c)

Ignoring symptoms

d)

Limiting physical activity

39.

What should be considered for people with HIV/AIDS as they age?

a)

Considerations for aging

b)

Increased physical activity only

c)

Avoiding all medications

d)

Ignoring regular check-ups

40.

What condition is shown in the images below?

a)

Psoriasis

b)

Kaposi’s Sarcoma

c)

Melanoma

d)

Eczema

41.

What type of test can be done at home to detect HIV?

a)

OraQuick In-Home HIV test

b)

Blood Pressure Monitor

c)

Pregnancy Test Kit

d)

Glucose Meter

42.

Which test measures the number of copies of HIV in the blood?

a)

Viral load testing

b)

CD4 count

c)

ELISA test

d)

Western blot

43.

CD4 counts measure the blood level of which type of cells attacked by HIV?

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Erythrocytes

c)

Platelets

d)

Neutrophils

44.

Antigen/antibody testing measures the level of HIV antibodies and antigens.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

What does Genetic Resistance Testing (GART) help to identify?

a)

Mutations that are no longer responding to the antiretroviral agents

b)

The viral load in the patient’s blood

c)

The patient’s immune response to HIV

d)

The duration of HIV infection

46.

Which of the following is NOT a related condition test for HIV/AIDS?

a)

CBC with differential

b)

Lipid Profile

c)

Blood sugar test

d)

QuantiFERON TB testing

47.

Other tests may be performed to monitor toxicities from which type of drugs?

a)

Antiretroviral drugs

b)

Antihistamine drugs

c)

Analgesic drugs

d)

Antacid drugs

48.

According to the CDC Recommendations for Annual HIV Testing and One-Time Screening, you should be tested annually for HIV if you have which of the following?

a)

A) A sexually transmitted infection

b)

B) Use injection drugs

c)

C) Consider yourself at risk

d)

D) All of the above

49.

According to the CDC Recommendations for Annual HIV Testing and One-Time Screening, women of childbearing age with which of the following identifiable risks should be tested for HIV?

a)

Used injection drugs

b)

Engaged in sex work

c)

Had sexual partners who were infected or at risk

d)

Had sexual contact with men from countries with high HIV prevalence

e)

All of the above

50.

According to the CDC Recommendations for Annual HIV Testing and One-Time Screening, you should be tested for HIV if you received a blood products transfusion between ______ and ______.

a)

1978 and 1985

b)

1986 and 1992

c)

1993 and 2000

d)

2001 and 2008

51.

According to the CDC Recommendations for Annual HIV Testing and One-Time Screening, you should plan to get tested for HIV if you plan to get married.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

According to the CDC Recommendations for Annual HIV Testing and One-Time Screening, you should be tested for HIV if you are undergoing medical evaluation or treatment for symptoms that may be HIV related.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

According to the CDC Recommendations for Annual HIV Testing and One-Time Screening, you should be tested for HIV if you have been or are in a correctional institution such as jail and prison.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

According to the CDC Recommendations for Annual HIV Testing and One-Time Screening, you should be tested for HIV if you are a sex worker or have had sex with a sex worker.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

According to the CDC Recommendations for Annual HIV Testing and One-Time Screening, in the absence of any of the above conditions, you should be tested (screened) once if you are between the ages of ______ and ______ years.

a)

18 and 65

b)

13 and 64

c)

21 and 70

d)

25 and 60

56.

According to the CDC Recommendations for Annual HIV Testing and One-Time Screening, as part of routine prenatal screening, you should be tested for HIV when you are _______.

a)

pregnant

b)

over 50 years old

c)

a healthcare worker

d)

traveling internationally

57.

Which confirmatory tests are mentioned for HIV detection?

a)

PCR and ELISA

b)

Western Blot and ELISA

c)

PCR and Western Blot

d)

Antigen/antibody combination only

58.

Newer antigen/antibody PCR combination (fourth generation tests) detects HIV in 99% of people within ____ to ____ days of exposure.

a)

13 to 42

b)

1 to 7

c)

30 to 90

d)

50 to 120

59.

What is the window period for the Nucleic Acid Test (NAT)?

a)

10-33 days

b)

1-3 days

c)

50-70 days

d)

100-120 days

60.

What is the window period for the Antigen/Antibody Lab Test?

a)

18-45 days

b)

2-7 days

c)

60-90 days

d)

120-180 days

61.

What is the window period for the Rapid Antigen/Antibody Test?

a)

18-90 days

b)

1-7 days

c)

91-180 days

d)

7-14 days

62.

What is the window period for the Antibody Test?

a)

23-90 days

b)

1-7 days

c)

91-180 days

d)

181-365 days

63.

Which of the following best describes the definition of Elisa?

a)

A technique that detects a specific protein from a protein mixture

b)

A very sensitive and sophisticated method that detects the presence of antigen and antibody in the patient's blood

c)

A method that uses gel electrophoresis

d)

A cost-effective protein test

64.

Which of the following best describes the definition of Western Blot?

a)

A technique that detects a specific protein from a protein mixture

b)

A very sensitive and sophisticated method that detects the presence of antigen and antibody in the patient's blood

c)

A method that does not use gel electrophoresis

d)

A cost-effective protein test

65.

Which of the following is true about the qualitative or quantitative nature of Elisa?

a)

Qualitative only

b)

Quantitative only

c)

Qualitative as well as quantitative

d)

Semi-quantitative only

66.

Which of the following is true about the qualitative or quantitative nature of Western Blot?

a)

Qualitative, sometimes semi-quantitative

b)

Quantitative only

c)

Qualitative as well as quantitative

d)

Only qualitative

67.

Which method is more cost-effective?

a)

Elisa

b)

Western Blot

68.

Can you rely on symptoms to tell if you have HIV?

a)

Yes

b)

No

69.

The only way to know for sure if you have HIV is to _________?

a)

get tested

b)

ask a friend

c)

wait for symptoms

d)

guess based on how you feel

70.

The only way to know for sure if you have HIV is to get tested.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Which of the following is an immunologic indication to assess for in a physical assessment?

a)

Dry skin

b)

Low white blood cell counts

c)

Cough

d)

Diarrhea

72.

Which of the following is an integumentary indication to assess for in a physical assessment?

a)

High blood immunoglobulin levels

b)

Poor wound healing

c)

Seizures

d)

Tuberculosis

73.

Which of the following is a respiratory indication to assess for in a physical assessment?

a)

A) Cough, shortness of breath

b)

B) Weight loss

c)

C) Lymphadenopathy

d)

D) Night sweats

74.

Which of the following is a GI indication to assess for in a physical assessment?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Seizures

c)

Cytomegalovirus

d)

Kaposi's sarcoma

75.

Which of the following is a central nervous system indication to assess for in a physical assessment?

a)

Headache

b)

Dry skin

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Nausea

76.

Which of the following is a protozoal-like opportunistic infection?

a)

Toxoplasmosis

b)

Candidiasis

c)

Cytomegalovirus

d)

Kaposi's sarcoma

77.

Which of the following is a fungal infection to assess for in a physical assessment?

a)

Candidiasis

b)

Giardiasis

c)

Herpes simplex virus

d)

Hodgkin's lymphoma

78.

Which of the following is a bacterial infection to assess for in a physical assessment?

a)

Mycobacterium avium complex

b)

Varicella-zoster virus

c)

Kaposi's sarcoma

d)

Night sweats

79.

Which of the following is a viral infection to assess for in a physical assessment?

a)

Cytomegalovirus

b)

Cryptococcosis

c)

Weight loss

d)

Seizures

80.

Which of the following is a malignancy to assess for in a physical assessment?

a)

Kaposi's sarcoma

b)

Cough

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Toxoplasmosis

81.

Fill in the blank: A low CD4+/CD8+ ratio (<2) is an example of an ________ indication.

a)

immunologic

b)

neurologic

c)

metabolic

d)

cardiac

82.

Fill in the blank: Night sweats are an example of an ________ indication.

a)

integumentary

b)

respiratory

c)

cardiac

d)

gastrointestinal

83.

Fill in the blank: Weight loss is a ________ indication.

a)

GI

b)

Cardiac

c)

Renal

d)

Dermatological

84.

Fill in the blank: Seizures are a ________ system indication.

a)

central nervous

b)

digestive

c)

respiratory

d)

circulatory

85.

Fill in the blank: Cryptosporidiosis is a type of ________ infection.

a)

protozoal-like opportunistic

b)

bacterial

c)

fungal

d)

viral

86.

Fill in the blank: Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is a type of ________ infection.

a)

fungal

b)

bacterial

c)

viral

d)

parasitic

87.

Fill in the blank: Tuberculosis is a type of ________ infection.

a)

bacterial

b)

viral

c)

fungal

d)

parasitic

88.

Herpes simplex virus is a type of ________ infection.

a)

viral

b)

bacterial

c)

fungal

d)

parasitic

89.

Fill in the blank: Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is a type of ________.

a)

malignancy

b)

infection

c)

fracture

d)

allergy

90.

Fill in the blank: AIDS wasting syndrome is a possible ________ of HIV/AIDS.

a)

complication

b)

prevention

c)

origin

d)

cure

91.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom that may appear within 2-4 weeks of HIV infection?

a)

Fever

b)

Headache

c)

Rash

d)

High blood pressure

92.

Fill in the blank: Initially, HIV infection is usually _________

a)

asymptomatic

b)

symptomatic

c)

fatal

d)

painful

93.

Which of the following symptoms are associated with the progression of HIV/AIDS?

a)

Swollen lymph nodes

b)

Weight loss

c)

Night sweats

d)

All of the above

94.

Rash and sore throat are possible early manifestations of HIV infection.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

With progression, HIV/AIDS may cause ________, diarrhea, cough, and muscle aches.

a)

fever

b)

rash

c)

headache

d)

nausea

96.

Which of the following is the first stage of HIV infection?

a)

Chronic HIV

b)

AIDS

c)

Acute HIV

d)

Latent HIV

97.

Fill in the blank: Stage HIV-III is the final, most serious stage of HIV infection and is known as _____

a)

AIDS

b)

Hepatitis

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Malaria

98.

When the CD4 cell count falls below 200 cells/mm3 in an HIV-infected person, it indicates:

a)

AIDS diagnosis

b)

Complete recovery

c)

HIV is cured

d)

No change in health status

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