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Peds Exam 1 Quiz 2

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the age requirement for informed consent in pediatric procedures?

a)

Age of majority/competence

b)

Age of 12

c)

Age of 16

d)

Age of 21

2.

Which of the following is required for obtaining informed consent in older children and adolescents?

a)

Parental consent

b)

Assent

c)

Emancipation

d)

None of the above

3.

Eligibility for giving informed consent in pediatric procedures includes which of the following?

a)

Treatment without parental consent

b)

Emancipated minor

c)

Mature minor

d)

All of the above

4.

An emancipated minor is legally under the age of majority but is recognized as having legal capacity of an adult under circumstances prescribed by state law, such as _________

a)

pregnancy, marriage, high school graduation, independent living, or military service

b)

owning property, winning a scholarship, traveling abroad, or passing a driving test

c)

receiving a vaccination, attending college, joining a sports team, or volunteering

d)

having a bank account, learning a foreign language, participating in a science fair, or reading a novel

5.

A mature minor can give informed consent for treatment without parental consent.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Assent in pediatric procedures means that the child has been informed and is willing to accept the proposed procedure.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Which of the following is NOT a step in obtaining assent from a child?

a)

A) Telling the patient what to expect

b)

B) Assessing understanding

c)

C) Making sure the child is at least 16 years old

d)

D) Soliciting an expression of willingness

8.

Conditions for which treatment does not require parental consent/knowledge are also known as _________

a)

medically emancipated conditions

b)

informed consent

c)

parental override disorders

d)

nonconsensual treatment

e)

breaking the law

9.

Which of the following conditions may not require parental consent for treatment, depending on the state?

a)

Sexually transmitted infections

b)

Mental health services

c)

Alcohol/drug dependency

d)

All of the above

10.

What is an important aspect of preparation for procedures in children?

a)

Psychologic preparation

b)

Physical exercise

c)

Dietary restrictions

d)

Medication administration

11.

Age-specific guidelines for preparation are based on ________ characteristics.

a)

developmental

b)

cultural

c)

economic

d)

geographical

12.

Parental presence and support is not important during preparation for procedures.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

During early childhood hospitalization, children may cry more frequently and be irritable.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

During hospitalization, clinging to parents/caregivers is a behavior seen in ________ childhood.

a)

early

b)

middle

c)

late

d)

adolescent

15.

Anxiety and acting out or becoming introverted are behaviors seen in ________ during hospitalization.

a)

adolescence

b)

infancy

c)

toddlers

d)

neonates

16.

Expect regression in young children (i.e. bedwetting) during hospitalization.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

For toddlers (age 1 to 3), assessment should be demonstrated on a doll or stuffed animal before assessing the child.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Preschool and school age children (3-12) should NOT be allowed to handle equipment as appropriate during assessment.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Benefits of using a special treatment room for procedures include expecting success, involving the child, and providing ________.

a)

distraction

b)

money

c)

punishment

d)

sedation

20.

Which of the following is a recommended method for bathing and diaper changing in pediatric care?

a)

Wipe back to front

b)

Wipe front to back

c)

Wipe in circular motion

d)

Do not wipe

21.

SATA: Where do pressure ulcers typically occur in children?

a)

Ankles

b)

Back of head and skull

c)

Ears

d)

Sacrum

e)

Scapula

22.

For how long should RR (respiratory rate) be counted in children?

a)

30 seconds

b)

1 minute

c)

2 minutes

d)

5 minutes

23.

When measuring temperature in young children, which is the MOST preferred method?

a)

Oral

b)

Rectal

c)

Axillary

d)

Tympanic

24.

What is the definition of fever/hyperpyrexia?

a)

Fever/hyperpyrexia is an elevation in set point such that body temperature is regulated at a higher level, may be arbitrarily defined as temp above 38 degrees C (100.4 F).

b)

Fever/hyperpyrexia is a decrease in set point such that body temperature is regulated at a lower level, may be arbitrarily defined as temp below 36 degrees C (96.8 F).

c)

Fever/hyperpyrexia is a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to chills and shivering.

d)

Fever/hyperpyrexia is an increase in heart rate without any change in body temperature.

25.

What is the definition of hyperthermia?

a)

Hyperthermia is body temperature exceeding the set point, which usually results from the body or external conditions creating more heat than the body can eliminate

b)

Hyperthermia is a condition where the body temperature drops below normal due to prolonged exposure to cold environments.

c)

Hyperthermia is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to regulate blood sugar levels.

d)

Hyperthermia is the same thing as a fever

e)

Hyperthermia is when the body's set point temperature is made to be higher than normal

26.

At what temperature is fever considered in infants 0-3 months old?

a)

Fever is considered above 38 C or 100.4 F.

b)

Fever is considered above 37 C or 98.6 F.

c)

Fever is considered above 39 C or 102.2 F.

d)

Fever is considered above 36.5 C or 97.7 F.

27.

At what temperature is hypothermia considered in infants 0-3 months old?

a)

Hypothermia is below 36.5 C or 97.7 F.

b)

Hypothermia is below 37.5 C or 99.5 F.

c)

Hypothermia is below 35.0 C or 95.0 F.

d)

Hypothermia is below 38.0 C or 100.4 F.

28.

Which of the following is required for septic work up in infants 0-3 months old?

a)

Blood cultures

b)

Urinalysis/UA and urine culture

c)

Lumbar puncture (CSF)

d)

All of the above

29.

Chest x-ray is used to rule out pneumonia in septic work up for infants 0-3 months old.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Respiratory panel is used to rule out viral and bacterial illness in septic work up for infants 0-3 months old.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

When should antibiotics be started in septic work up for infants?

a)

Before all specimens are collected

b)

After all specimens are collected, before cultures come back

c)

After cultures come back

d)

Only if the patient is in hypotensive shock

32.

How long does it take for C/S (culture/sensitivity) results to come back?

a)

Wait 48-72 hrs for C/S (culture/sensitivity) results.

b)

Wait 12 hours for C/S (culture/sensitivity) results.

c)

Wait 1 week for C/S (culture/sensitivity) results.

d)

Wait 24 hours for C/S (culture/sensitivity) results.

33.

What percentage of all children experience febrile seizures?

a)

3-4% of all children

b)

10-12% of all children

c)

0.5-1% of all children

d)

20-25% of all children

34.

Febrile seizures usually occur between which ages?

a)

Usually between 6 months and 6 years of age

b)

Usually between birth and 3 months of age

c)

Usually between 10 years and 15 years of age

d)

Usually between 7 years and 12 years of age

35.

What is the recurrence rate of febrile seizures?

a)

Recurrence of febrile seizures in about 30% of cases

b)

Recurrence of febrile seizures in about 5% of cases

c)

Recurrence of febrile seizures in about 70% of cases

d)

Recurrence of febrile seizures in about 50% of cases

36.

There is strong evidence to support use of antipyretics or anticonvulsants to prevent recurrent febrile seizures.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

What is the primary purpose of antipyretics for febrile seizures?

a)

To increase comfort

b)

To prevent seizures

c)

To cure the underlying infection

d)

To reduce the risk of epilepsy

38.

Fill in the blank: Hospital cribs look almost like a _____?

a)

cage

b)

bed

c)

box

d)

basket

39.

Where should emergency drug lists be kept for pediatric patients?

a)

At bedside

b)

In the pharmacy

c)

At the nurse's station

d)

In the doctor's office

40.

Fill in the blank: Airborne isolation conditions include measles, TB, varicella, and _____?

a)

Covid-19

b)

Influenza

c)

Hepatitis B

d)

Mumps

41.

Which of the following is a type of physical restraint for pediatric patients?

a)

Therapeutic hugging

b)

Jacket restraints

c)

Mummy/swaddle restraints

d)

All of the above

42.

Fill in the blank: Puncture site for blood on the _____ of an infant's foot.

a)

SOLE

b)

HEEL

c)

TOE

d)

ANKLE

43.

Which of the following are methods for specimen collection in pediatric patients?

a)

A) Gastric washings

b)

B) Nasal washings

c)

C) Both A and B

d)

D) None of the above

44.

What is most frequently used to determine drug dosage in pediatric patients?

a)

Specific dosage per gram of body weight

b)

Specific dosage per kilo of body weight

c)

Specific dosage per liter of body weight

d)

Specific dosage per pound of body weight

45.

The purpose of keeping a pediatric patient upright when administering oral medication is to:

a)

Reduce the risk of aspiration

b)

Increase medication absorption

c)

Decrease medication taste

d)

Prevent dehydration

46.

Which method is recommended for administering oral medication to infants?

a)

Use an oral syringe

b)

Use a spoon

c)

Mix with food

d)

Pour into a cup

47.

Which of the following is used when GI feeding is not possible?

a)

Gavage feedings

b)

TPN

c)

NG/OG

d)

Jejunostomy feedings

48.

Nonnutritive sucking improves digestion during alternative feeding techniques.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

What is the role of intralipid infusion in TPN?

a)

It is part of the central line access for nutrition when GI feeding is not possible.

b)

It is used to prevent infection in TPN administration.

c)

It acts as a source of vitamins in TPN.

d)

It is used to flush the central line after TPN administration.

50.

List one principle of Family Centered Care related to communication.

a)

Information sharing, honest communication, listening and respecting families' beliefs

b)

Limiting family involvement in care decisions

c)

Withholding information to avoid family stress

d)

Prioritizing only the healthcare team's opinions

51.

What does 'teach back education' involve in Family Centered Care?

a)

Patient and family repeat back in their own words what was taught, helping the nurse to evaluate their understanding.

b)

The nurse provides written instructions only, without verbal explanation.

c)

Family members teach the nurse about the patient's preferences.

d)

Education is provided only to the patient, not the family.

52.

How much weight does an infant typically gain every week between 1 month and 1 year?

a)

2-3 oz

b)

5-7 oz

c)

10-12 oz

d)

1-2 oz

53.

By what age should an infant DOUBLE their birth weight?

a)

3 months

b)

6 months

c)

9 months

d)

12 months

54.

By what age should a child TRIPLE their birth weight?

a)

6 months

b)

9 months

c)

1 year

d)

2 years

55.

Height increases by ____ per month for the first 6 months in infants.

a)

1 inch

b)

2 inches

c)

0.5 inch

d)

1.5 inches

56.

Infant growth occurs in "spurts" rather than gradually.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

By what age can infants distinguish between familiar faces and strangers?

a)

6 months

b)

1 month

c)

12 months

d)

2 years

58.

Vision: Binocularity begins by ____ weeks of age in infants.

a)

6 weeks

b)

2 weeks

c)

12 weeks

d)

20 weeks

59.

Parachute reflex appears by ____ months in infants.

a)

7 months

b)

3 months

c)

5 months

d)

9 months

60.

Hearing is present at birth, and infants turn their head towards noise by ____ months.

a)

2-3 months

b)

6-7 months

c)

4-5 months

d)

8-9 months

61.

Pincer grasp develops by ____ months in infants.

a)

9-10 months

b)

3-4 months

c)

6-7 months

d)

12-13 months

62.

Head control develops by ____ months in infants.

a)

3-4 months

b)

1-2 months

c)

5-6 months

d)

7-8 months

63.

Infants typically roll over by ____ months.

a)

5-6 months

b)

2-3 months

c)

8-9 months

d)

10-12 months

64.

What is the direction of development described by 'Cephalocaudal'?

a)

Head to toe

b)

Toe to head

c)

Center to periphery

d)

Side to side

65.

What does proximodistal development refer to?

a)

Development from core to extremities (hands, feet)

b)

Development from extremities to core

c)

Development from head to toe

d)

Development from toe to head

66.

When should infants begin to crawl?

a)

7-10 months

b)

12-24 months

c)

3-5 months

d)

8-12 months

67.

Children should begin to walk with assistance at ___ months old, and they should begin to walk without assistance at ___ months old.

a)

10, 14

b)

11, 12

c)

16, 24

d)

2, 3

68.

Children usually develop a fear of strangers at what age?

a)

1-2 years

b)

3-4 months

c)

6-9 months

d)

7-10 months

69.

What is the FIRST form of verbal communication that babies use?

a)

Crying

b)

Talking

c)

Yelling

d)

Spitting Bars

70.

Babies usually make _____ sounds starting at 6 months of age.

a)

eloquent

b)

crying

c)

imitative

d)

initial

71.

What is the most major dental concern for patients younger than 1 years of age?

a)

Gingivitis

b)

Halitosis

c)

Caries

d)

Thumb-Sucking

72.

Children under 6 months old require a lot of water to maintain hydration.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

What is the most important thing babies need from their nutrition?

a)

Calories

b)

Water

c)

Salts

d)

Lipids

74.

For the first 6 months of life, ______ are the preferred sources of nutrition.

a)

breast milk or formula

b)

water or juice

c)

breast milk or water

d)

beer or Celsius

75.

If a child is diagnosed with failure to thrive, what should their feeding schedule be?

a)

Feeds every 3 hours

b)

Feeds every 6 hours

c)

Feeds every hour

d)

Feeds every 12 hours

76.

How often should the RN monitor the weight of a child who is failing to thrive?

a)

hourly

b)

weekly

c)

monthly

d)

daily

77.

Having an infant sleep in the same bed as his/her parents can help to prevent sudden unexplained infant death.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

SATA: Chose all of the risk factors for sudden unexplained infant death.

a)

overheating

b)

low birth weight

c)

maternal smoking during pregnancy

d)

maternal age younger than 20

e)

prone placement in crib

79.

Infants of male sex are ____ likely to be victims of sudden unexplained infant death than infants of female sex.

a)

less

b)

more

c)

just as

80.

What may indicate that an infant's head position was NOT varied in his/her crib?

a)

Plagiocephaly

b)

Hepatomegally

c)

Adenoma

d)

Cephalocaudally