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WorksheetsProf Ed Final Coaching
Total questions: 120
Worksheet time: 3600secs
Name
Class
Date
1.
Under the Code of Ethics, a teacher shall place premium upon which of the following?
a)
Material gains
b)
Quality education
c)
Political stability
d)
Social recognition
2.
A teacher is accused of immorality. What is the first step according to due process before any disciplinary action?
a)
Suspension without pay
b)
Transfer to another school
c)
Immediate dismissal
d)
Written notice and investigation
3.
Republic Act No. 7836 refers to
a)
Magna Carta for Public School Teachers
b)
Philippine Teachers Professionalization Act
c)
Education Act of 1982
d)
Child and Youth Welfare Code
4.
The Magna Carta for Public School Teachers ensures the following, EXCEPT
a)
Academic freedom
b)
Freedom from compulsory assignments outside school hours
c)
Salary increases every year regardless of performance
d)
Security of tenure
5.
Which principle in the Code of Ethics states that a teacher should recognize the learner as the primary beneficiary of education?
a)
Commitment to learners
b)
Commitment to the profession
c)
Commitment to the community
d)
Commitment to the state
6.
Which law created the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)?
a)
RA 7836
b)
RA 4670
c)
RA 9293
d)
PD 223
7.
The maximum teaching load for teachers according to the Magna Carta is
a)
6 hours of actual classroom teaching per day
b)
8 hours of actual classroom teaching per day
c)
40 hours per week including preparation time
d)
30 hours of teaching per week only
8.
A teacher running for any local elective position should
a)
File a leave of absence without pay
b)
Resign from the teaching position
c)
Request to teach part-time only
d)
Continue teaching without restriction
9.
The Code of Ethics says that a teacher shall avoid which of the following?
a)
Inspiring patriotism
b)
Demonstrating fairness
c)
Soliciting contributions from learners
d)
Respecting individual differences
10.
Which is NOT a ground for revocation of a teacher’s license?
a)
Conviction of a crime involving moral turpitude
b)
Gross immorality
c)
Academic freedom exercise
d)
Fraud in obtaining license
11.
Who is considered the “Father of the Philippine Teaching Profession” for his role in teacher professionalization?
a)
Jose Rizal
b)
Manuel L. Quezon
c)
Sen. Leticia Ramos-Shahani
d)
Dr. Jose V. Aguilar
12.
According to RA 4670, the term for probationary service for teachers before attaining permanent status is
a)
6 months
b)
1 year
c)
3 years
d)
5 years
13.
A teacher intentionally alters learners’ grades for a fee. This is a violation of
a)
Code of Ethics only
b)
Code of Ethics and Civil Service Rules
c)
Civil Service Rules only
d)
Labor Code only
14.
Which of the following is TRUE under RA 7836 as amended by RA 9293?
a)
Non-education graduates can never teach in the Philippines
b)
Non-education graduates can teach if they pass the LET and complete education units
c)
Non-education graduates are automatically licensed to teach
d)
Only those with master’s degrees can take the LET
15.
Which statement is TRUE about teacher participation in politics under the Code of Ethics?
a)
Teachers are prohibited from voting
b)
Teachers may participate in political discussions in class
c)
Teachers should refrain from promoting their political beliefs in the classroom
d)
Teachers can require students to join political rallies
16.
According to the Magna Carta, which is a teacher’s right in disciplinary proceedings?
a)
To have counsel or representation
b)
To refuse investigation
c)
To choose the penalty
d)
To decide the length of suspension
17.
What is the PRC’s main function for teachers?
a)
Curriculum development
b)
Conduct of the Licensure Examination for Teachers
c)
School accreditation
d)
Teacher salary standardization
18.
Under the Code of Ethics, a teacher shall base evaluation of learners on
a)
Test scores only
b)
Effort and behavior only
c)
Objective and valid criteria
d)
Teacher’s personal preference
19.
Which is a teacher’s responsibility to the community under the Code of Ethics?
a)
Actively participate in community programs
b)
Keep away from civic affairs
c)
Avoid any involvement in local projects
d)
Focus only on classroom duties
20.
A teacher facing criminal charges may be suspended for a maximum of
a)
30 days
b)
60 days
c)
90 days
d)
120 days
21.
Which principle promotes respect for the dignity of the teaching profession?
a)
Teachers should demonstrate mastery of the subject
b)
Teachers should limit communication with parents
c)
Teachers should encourage competitive spirit among learners
d)
Teachers should dress and behave appropriately
22.
When a teacher engages in research, the primary aim should be
a)
Earning financial rewards
b)
Gaining public recognition
c)
Improving teaching and learning
d)
Meeting PRC requirements
23.
Which RA amended RA 7836 to allow more qualifications for teaching?
a)
RA 9293
b)
RA 10533
c)
RA 9155
d)
RA 6728
24.
The teacher’s role in the implemented curriculum is primarily to
a)
Design the national curriculum
b)
Deliver planned learning experiences effectively
c)
Approve school budget allocations
d)
Write laws for education reform
25.
In the intended curriculum, teachers are expected to
a)
Interpret learning competencies into daily lessons
b)
Assess learners’ test results only
c)
Focus solely on extra-curricular activities
d)
Create the national assessment framework
26.
The hidden curriculum refers to
a)
The learning objectives listed in the curriculum guide
b)
Unplanned lessons learned through school culture and interactions
c)
The competencies prescribed by DepEd
d)
The national curriculum framework
27.
Which is NOT part of the teacher’s role in curriculum evaluation?
a)
Assessing student learning outcomes
b)
Giving feedback on curriculum relevance
c)
Revising the national curriculum standards alone
d)
Suggesting improvements to school administrators
28.
In the context of the K to 12 curriculum, teachers are expected to apply spiral progression by
a)
Re-teaching topics in increasing depth and complexity
b)
Teaching all topics in one year only
c)
Eliminating prerequisite lessons
d)
Replacing foundational skills with enrichment activities
29.
Which curriculum level involves the actual experiences of learners inside and outside the classroom?
a)
Intended curriculum
b)
Implemented curriculum
c)
Attained curriculum
d)
Assessed curriculum
30.
The attained curriculum is concerned with
a)
Teacher lesson plans
b)
School rules and regulations
c)
Students’ actual learning outcomes
d)
Hidden values taught by teachers
31.
The flipped classroom strategy involves
a)
Giving lectures in class and homework at home
b)
Rotating subject schedules weekly
c)
Reversing teacher and student roles in grading
d)
Assigning instructional content for home study and doing activities in class
32.
Which best describes curriculum integration?
a)
Teaching subjects separately without connections
b)
Connecting learning across subject areas to make it meaningful
c)
Eliminating minor subjects from the curriculum
d)
Assigning students to different learning tracks
33.
In outcome-based education (OBE), teachers first identify
a)
Learner activities
b)
Instructional materials
c)
Assessment questions
d)
Expected learning outcomes
34.
In experiential learning, the first step in Kolb’s cycle is
a)
Abstract conceptualization
b)
Reflective observation
c)
Concrete experience
d)
Active experimentation
35.
A science teacher begins a lesson with a simple experiment and then guides students to form general principles. This is an example of
a)
Deductive method
b)
Inductive method
c)
Lecture method
d)
Socratic method
36.
Which law institutionalized the K to 12 Basic Education Program in the Philippines?
a)
RA 7836
b)
RA 4670
c)
RA 9293
d)
RA 10533
37.
A teacher participates in a school learning action cell (LAC) to discuss lesson implementation. This is part of
a)
Curriculum development process
b)
DepEd budget allocation
c)
Classroom discipline policy
d)
Teacher licensing renewal
38.
The project method is most closely associated with which educational philosophy?
a)
Perennialism
b)
Essentialism
c)
Progressivism
d)
Behaviorism
39.
Which strategy is most suitable for values formation?
a)
Values clarification
b)
Drill and practice
c)
Lecture method
d)
Programmed instruction
40.
A teacher modifies activities to suit the needs of learners with disabilities. This is an example of
a)
Curriculum enrichment
b)
Curriculum replacement
c)
Curriculum reduction
d)
Curriculum adaptation
41.
Teachers participate in curriculum mapping primarily to
a)
Align instructional plans with learning standards and competencies
b)
Prepare school annual budgets
c)
Report class attendance to DepEd
d)
Write textbooks for publishing
42.
In the K to 12 curriculum, contextualization means
a)
Using only examples from foreign cultures
b)
Relating lessons to learners’ real-life situations and local culture
c)
Limiting lessons to the textbook
d)
Focusing on abstract concepts only
43.
Which statement shows the teacher’s role in the enacted curriculum?
a)
Approving curriculum laws
b)
Setting national learning standards
c)
Implementing lesson plans with appropriate teaching strategies
d)
Supervising DepEd divisions
44.
Which is an example of the null curriculum?
a)
Lessons in financial literacy not included in the program
b)
School clubs promoting leadership skills
c)
DepEd-mandated lesson guides
d)
Unplanned life skills learned through peer interaction
45.
The curriculum guide prescribes 80 hours for a subject per year, but the teacher actually conducts 60 hours. This affects the
a)
Hidden curriculum
b)
Intended curriculum
c)
Implemented curriculum
d)
Assessed curriculum
46.
A Grade 6 teacher links a science lesson on plants with an art activity on botanical drawing. This illustrates
a)
Curriculum enrichment
b)
Interdisciplinary approach
c)
Curriculum alignment
d)
Curriculum omission
47.
DepEd requires teachers to localize learning materials. This process is called
a)
Curriculum adaptation
b)
Curriculum enrichment
c)
Curriculum omission
d)
Curriculum reduction
48.
The teacher uses results of periodic tests to revise teaching strategies. This demonstrates
a)
Curriculum termination
b)
Curriculum omission
c)
Curriculum evaluation
d)
Curriculum reduction
49.
When a teacher asks a series of questions that lead students to discover an answer, this is called
a)
Discovery learning
b)
Socratic questioning
c)
Role-playing
d)
Simulation
50.
A teacher groups learners with different abilities so they can help one another in accomplishing a task. This strategy is
a)
Cooperative learning
b)
Peer tutoring
c)
Competitive learning
d)
Individualized learning
51.
Which is the main advantage of using the deductive method?
a)
Promotes active discovery by students
b)
Focuses on hands-on experiences
c)
Avoids rote memorization
d)
Saves time in presenting rules and principles
52.
In role-playing, the main focus is to
a)
Develop memorization of facts
b)
Teach grammar and vocabulary
c)
Practice real-life situations and empathy
d)
Present historical facts only
53.
A mathematics teacher starts with a general rule and then applies it to specific examples. This illustrates
a)
Inductive method
b)
Deductive method
c)
Problem-based learning
d)
Experiential learning
54.
Which strategy is most appropriate if the goal is to promote critical thinking through exploring real-world problems?
a)
Problem-based learning
b)
Mastery learning
c)
Drill and practice
d)
Direct instruction
55.
Which type of questioning encourages divergent thinking?
a)
Closed questions
b)
Factual questions
c)
Open-ended questions
d)
Yes-no questions
56.
When using scaffolding, the teacher
a)
Removes all guidance from the start
b)
Gives temporary support until the learner can work independently
c)
Assigns tasks with no assistance
d)
Focuses only on rote recall
57.
Which is the best strategy for teaching psychomotor skills?
a)
Lecture method
b)
Demonstration method
c)
Panel discussion
d)
Debate method
58.
Which teaching strategy uses cues, prompts, and fading to help learners master a skill?
a)
Scaffolding
b)
Modeling
c)
Mastery learning
d)
Programmed instruction
59.
A teacher assigns students to research on their own and then present their findings to the class. This is
a)
Cooperative learning
b)
Mastery learning
c)
Direct instruction
d)
Inquiry-based learning
60.
A teacher asks learners to act out a debate between historical figures. This combines
a)
Lecture and simulation
b)
Role-play and dramatization
c)
Drill and practice
d)
Concept mapping
61.
In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory, the immediate environment of the learner such as family, peers, and school is called
a)
Mesosystem
b)
Macrosystem
c)
Microsystem
d)
Exosystem
62.
Which principle of educational technology emphasizes that technology should serve instructional goals, not dictate them?
a)
Technology integration principle
b)
Technology is neutral
c)
Technology drives curriculum
d)
Technology replaces teachers
63.
Which method uses advance organizers to help students link prior knowledge with new information?
a)
Ausubel’s expository teaching
b)
Bruner’s discovery learning
c)
Piaget’s developmental teaching
d)
Gardner’s multiple intelligences
64.
In the ASSURE model, the step "S" stands for
a)
State objectives
b)
Select instructional materials
c)
Set evaluation criteria
d)
Support learning
65.
According to Erikson, children aged 6-12 need opportunities to develop a sense of competence. Failure may lead to
a)
Inferiority
b)
Shame and doubt
c)
Role confusion
d)
Mistrust
66.
According to Piaget, the stage where a child can perform mental operations on concrete objects but not yet on abstract ideas is
a)
Sensorimotor
b)
Preoperational
c)
Concrete operational
d)
Formal operational
67.
A teacher praises a student every time they submit homework on time. This is an example of
a)
Negative reinforcement
b)
Extinction
c)
Punishment
d)
Positive reinforcement
68.
In Thorndike’s Law of Effect, learning is strengthened when
a)
Practice is avoided
b)
The response is followed by a satisfying consequence
c)
Rewards are withheld
d)
Punishment is immediate
69.
When a teacher uses an interactive simulation to teach a science concept, this is an example of
a)
Audio-visual aid
b)
Drill and practice
c)
Programmed instruction
d)
Computer-assisted instruction
70.
In the demonstration method, the teacher’s main role is to
a)
Facilitate group work
b)
Model the correct procedure for learners to observe
c)
Assign practice exercises only
d)
Ask questions without showing a process
71.
The think-pair-share strategy primarily develops
a)
Independent research skills
b)
Teacher-centered instruction
c)
Peer collaboration and communication
d)
Competitive learning environment
72.
A teacher uses a video to introduce a lesson, followed by group activities and a written reflection. The video serves as
a)
Summative assessment tool
b)
Hidden curriculum
c)
Replacement for teaching
d)
Instructional stimulus
73.
Which statement about educational technology is TRUE?
a)
It is limited to using computers and projectors in class
b)
It is concerned only with creating gadgets
c)
It involves the systematic use of tools, media, and processes to improve learning
d)
It replaces the teacher entirely in the learning process
74.
Which is the best example of Vygotsky’s Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)?
a)
A child learning to walk without help
b)
A child playing alone in the corner
c)
A student repeating memorized facts
d)
A learner solving a problem with guidance from a teacher
75.
In Erikson’s psychosocial theory, the primary task of adolescence is
a)
Trust vs. mistrust
b)
Industry vs. inferiority
c)
Identity vs. role confusion
d)
Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
76.
Which principle of inclusive education is reflected when a teacher adapts lesson materials for both gifted learners and those with learning disabilities?
a)
Differentiated instruction
b)
Equality of inputs
c)
Rote memorization
d)
Teacher-centered learning
77.
A child with ADHD benefits most from
a)
Very long lectures with minimal breaks
b)
Sudden changes in daily schedule
c)
Minimal supervision
d)
Structured routines and clear expectations
78.
Under RA 7277 (Magna Carta for Persons with Disabilities), schools must ensure
a)
Separate schools for all learners with disabilities
b)
Exclusion from extracurricular activities
c)
Physical accessibility and non-discrimination in admission
d)
Higher tuition fees for students with disabilities
79.
Which statement best applies Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences in teaching adolescents?
a)
Use a single method for all learners to ensure fairness
b)
Provide varied activities tapping different strengths
c)
Focus only on logical-mathematical skills
d)
Avoid activities requiring movement or music
80.
A teacher notices a student with repeated difficulty in reading despite normal intelligence and effort. The student most likely has
a)
Dyslexia
b)
Dysgraphia
c)
Dyscalculia
d)
ADHD
81.
A child who cannot yet think abstractly but can classify objects according to several features is most likely in which Piagetian stage?
a)
Preoperational
b)
Concrete operational
c)
Sensorimotor
d)
Formal operational
82.
A teacher arranges peer-tutoring pairs in which a stronger student helps a classmate understand a concept. This strategy is grounded in
a)
Skinner’s operant conditioning
b)
Piaget’s equilibration theory
c)
Vygotsky’s social constructivism
d)
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
83.
Which inclusive practice supports a learner with low vision in a regular classroom?
a)
Providing large-print materials and seating near the board
b)
Asking the student to rely on classmates for reading
c)
Excluding the student from visual tasks
d)
Assigning only oral work
84.
A teacher modifies the pace of lessons and uses visual aids to help a hearing-impaired learner. This reflects
a)
Universal Design for Learning (UDL)
b)
Single-track curriculum
c)
Hidden curriculum
d)
Null curriculum
85.
In inclusive education, the principle that all learners, regardless of ability, learn together in the same environment is known as
a)
Segregation
b)
Full inclusion
c)
Mainstreaming
d)
Pull-out program
86.
When a student learns to associate the sound of the school bell with the end of class, this illustrates
a)
Operant conditioning
b)
Social learning
c)
Discovery learning
d)
Classical conditioning
87.
Which principle of learning states that learners remember best the first and last items presented?
a)
Law of readiness
b)
Law of effect
c)
Primacy-recency effect
d)
Law of exercise
88.
When a teacher removes a difficult homework requirement after students perform well in class, this is
a)
Positive reinforcement
b)
Negative reinforcement
c)
Positive punishment
d)
Extinction
89.
Bandura’s social learning theory emphasizes that learning occurs through
a)
Trial and error
b)
Reinforcement only
c)
Observation and imitation of models
d)
Drill and practice
90.
Which learning principle is applied when lessons are sequenced from simple to complex?
a)
Law of readiness
b)
Law of exercise
c)
Law of effect
d)
Law of sequence
91.
Which statement best describes a criterionreferenced test?
a)
Measures performance compared to a set standard
b)
Ranks students against one another
c)
Measures IQ level only
d)
Is graded on a curve
92.
In operant conditioning, reinforcement given after a set number of correct responses is called
a)
Fixed-interval schedule
b)
Variable-ratio schedule
c)
Variable-interval schedule
d)
Fixed-ratio schedule
93.
In the 21st-century skills framework, “information literacy” means
a)
Using technology to entertain
b)
Avoiding digital tools in research
c)
Memorizing facts from books
d)
Evaluating and using information effectively and ethically
94.
Which assessment tool is best for measuring problem-solving skills in real-life contexts?
a)
True/false test
b)
Matching type test
c)
Performance task
d)
Cloze test
95.
A teacher gives immediate feedback after each quiz. This is based on the principle that
a)
Delayed feedback increases curiosity
b)
Feedback is not necessary in learning
c)
Immediate feedback strengthens correct responses
d)
Only peer feedback matters
96.
The principle of transfer of learning is best illustrated when
a)
A student memorizes multiplication tables
b)
A learner applies math skills learned in school to budgeting at home
c)
A child recites a poem word for word
d)
A student repeats information without understanding
97.
According to the law of readiness, learning is most effective when
a)
The learner is physically and mentally prepared
b)
The learner is forced to start before they are ready
c)
Tasks are repeated regardless of interest
d)
Rewards are removed
98.
Which principle supports the use of group activities to encourage interaction?
a)
Social nature of learning
b)
Individuality of learners
c)
Principle of reinforcement
d)
Law of effect
99.
In the constructivist approach, the teacher’s primary role is to
a)
Deliver facts through lecture
b)
Serve as a facilitator of knowledge construction
c)
Ensure rote memorization
d)
Avoid learner collaboration
100.
The spacing effect suggests that learning is better when
a)
Study sessions are distributed over time
b)
All studying is done in one long session
c)
The learner avoids breaks
d)
The learner studies at random intervals
101.
Which learning principle is violated when a teacher provides inconsistent grading for similar work?
a)
Principle of reinforcement
b)
Law of exercise
c)
Principle of fairness and consistency
d)
Principle of transfer
102.
Assessment of learning is primarily used to
a)
Monitor ongoing progress
b)
Guide instruction in the middle of a lesson
c)
Diagnose learner difficulties
d)
Provide final judgment of learning achievement
103.
A performance-based assessment that asks students to design an innovative product applies which 21st-century skill?
a)
Collaboration
b)
Information literacy
c)
Creativity and innovation
d)
Digital ethics
104.
In authentic assessment, tasks should be
a)
Memorization-based
b)
Real-world and meaningful
c)
Limited to paper-and-pencil tests
d)
Strictly multiple-choice
105.
When a teacher uses peer assessment in group projects, which 21st-century skill is most promoted?
a)
Collaboration
b)
Leadership
c)
Creativity
d)
Self-direction
106.
In a rubric for oral presentation, “voice projection” falls under which category?
a)
Delivery skills
b)
Content knowledge
c)
Collaboration skills
d)
Creativity
107.
Assessment for learning is designed to
a)
Certify learning at the end of instruction
b)
Help teachers adjust teaching during learning
c)
Compare students’ scores to a standard
d)
Rank students based on performance
108.
A teacher wants to assess critical thinking. Which question is most appropriate?
a)
Define photosynthesis.
b)
List the steps in the water cycle.
c)
Evaluate which renewable energy source is most sustainable and justify your answer.
d)
Name three types of clouds.
109.
Which assessment principle is applied when results are used to improve both teaching and learning?
a)
Validity
b)
Reliability
c)
Formative purpose
d)
Objectivity
110.
A digital portfolio showcasing a student’s work over a semester is an example of
a)
Summative assessment only
b)
Formative and summative assessment
c)
Diagnostic assessment
d)
Placement test
111.
When a teacher asks students to use Google Docs to collaboratively write a story, which skills are assessed?
a)
Creativity and physical fitness
b)
Problem solving and numeracy
c)
Leadership and financial literacy
d)
Collaboration and ICT literacy
112.
A science teacher asks students to conduct an experiment and submit a lab report. This assessment is
a)
Traditional
b)
Authentic
c)
Diagnostic
d)
Placement
113.
The K to 12 curriculum emphasizes which type of assessment to measure real-world application of skills?
a)
Norm-referenced
b)
Multiple-choice testing only
c)
Authentic performance-based
d)
Aptitude testing
114.
Which tool is MOST appropriate for assessing collaboration in a group task?
a)
Checklist of teamwork behaviors
b)
Multiple-choice quiz
c)
Matching type
d)
Oral recitation
115.
A pre-test given before instruction is an example of
a)
Formative assessment
b)
Diagnostic assessment
c)
Summative assessment
d)
Norm-referenced testing
116.
In assessing creativity, which criterion is LEAST relevant?
a)
Originality
b)
Practicality
c)
Rote accuracy
d)
Flexibility
117.
A teacher uses Kahoot! quizzes during review sessions. This best represents
a)
Blended assessment using technology
b)
Pure summative testing
c)
Norm-referenced grading
d)
Rote assessment
118.
Which is the MOST appropriate assessment for collaboration and communication skills in science?
a)
Individual multiple-choice test
b)
Matching type quiz
c)
Silent reading test
d)
Group debate on an environmental issue
119.
A reliable test is one that
a)
Measures what it is supposed to measure
b)
Produces consistent results over time
c)
Is easy to grade
d)
Is inexpensive to administer
120.
A valid assessment tool in math should
a)
Include only easy questions
b)
Be graded quickly
c)
Measure the intended math skills
d)
Include as many items as possible regardless of relevance
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