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Pre op questions

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following positions requires the patient's lower extremities elevated?

a)

Reverse Trendelenburg

b)

Supine

c)

Lateral

d)

Trendelenburg

2.

Which of the following surgeries is indicated in patients with biliary cirrhosis?

a)

Coronary artery bypass graft

b)

Transcatheter aortic valve replacement

c)

Liver transplant

d)

Renal transplantation

3.

Patients with severe and symptomatic spinal stenosis will require to undergo a/an?

a)

Laminectomy

b)

Mastectomy

c)

Lumpectomy

d)

Arthroplasty

4.

Which of the following is a task generally assigned to the circulating surgical technologist?

a)

Cutting sutures as he or she sees fit.

b)

Maintaining the retractor in such a position indicated by the surgeon.

c)

Supporting anesthesia providers.

d)

Assisting with electrocautery of bleeders.

5.

Prepping parameters of a surgical site should:

a)

Only prep the immediate area where the surgical incision will be

b)

Only prep 2 inches above and 2 inches below the site of the surgical incision

c)

Always prep above and below (beyond) the surgical incision site

d)

Never go beyond the area where the surgical intervention will take place

6.

When organizing the Mayo stand, the CST should:

a)

Place only instruments the surgeon is likely to use

b)

Keep the Mayo away from the operating table until the surgeon asks for it

c)

Put nothing on the Mayo stand

d)

Have only clamps and sponges on the Mayo stand

7.

The surgical team has been preparing the room for a case; once the sterile field has been set up, the circulator notifies the surgical technologist the case has been delayed for a few hours. What is the best course of action that should take place next?

a)

Cover the sterile field with a sterile drape and break scrub.

b)

Break down all of the supplies since they should not be exposed to potential contaminants over the next few hours.

c)

Take turns with the circulator to monitor the supplies and each take a 30 minute break.

d)

Ask the Anesthesiologist why the case has been delayed.

8.

Which piece of furniture is placed at the sterile field first?

a)

Back table

b)

Prep table

c)

Mayo stand

d)

Ring stand

9.

During which phase of the wound healing process does platelet aggregation occur?

a)

Inflammatory phase

b)

Proliferative phase

c)

Remodeling phase

d)

Maturation phase

10.

What is the preferred method for the circulator to pass off sharps to the CST (certified surgical technologist) during a back table set-up?

a)

Opening onto an exposed area of the back table

b)

Opening onto the Mayo stand

c)

Held until the CST can receive them

d)

Opening on the back table before the CST goes to scrub

11.

What distance must the certified surgical technologist (CST) keep from the sterile areas until the gown has been secured?

a)

12 inches

b)

24 inches

c)

6 inches

d)

36 inches

12.

What can a CST (certified surgical technologist) be accused of if he/she leaves the Operating Room (OR) before the patient?

a)

End of Case

b)

Abandonment

c)

Accountability

d)

Standard of Care

13.

Which of the following statements is a disadvantage of proper steam sterilization methodologies?

a)

Any type of resistant and protective outer layer of microorganisms is softened by steam

b)

Most economical sterilizing process

c)

It is the safest

d)

Not all items can be steam sterilized.

14.

When closed gloving, where should the surgical technologist place their hand?

a)

in the bias of the gown sleeve in order to don sterile gloves

b)

before the bias of the gown sleeve in order to don sterile gloves

c)

outside the bias of the gown sleeve in order to don sterile gloves

d)

anyway they feel comfortable as long as they get their sterile gloves on

15.

Which of the following monofilament sutures can be used for sternal closure?

a)

Maxon

b)

Chromic gut

c)

Stainless steel

d)

Prolene

16.

Which of the following standard surgical positions places the patient on the table either on their left or right side down?

a)

Lithotomy position

b)

Fowler's surgical position

c)

Prone surgical position

d)

Lateral surgical position

17.

Patients with acute cholecystitis will need to undergo what surgical procedure?

a)

Coronary artery bypass graft

b)

Transcatheter aortic valve replacement

c)

Liver transplantation

d)

Cholecystectomy

18.

You are in the process of inspecting your forceps before placing them on your mayo stand. You notice what appears to be baked tissue in the jaws of your Bonney forceps. What is best practice at this juncture in your set-up?

a)

Clean the Bonney forceps with your normal saline and continue with your set-up.

b)

Isolate the Bonney forceps on your back table and continue with your set-up.

c)

Pass off your Bonney forceps and continue with your set-up.

d)

Consider your entire set-up contaminated and start over with an entirely new set-up.

19.

The position that begins with the patient lying on their side, and then flexes one leg at the hip and knee is referred to as the?

a)

Lithotomy surgical position

b)

Fowler's surgical position

c)

Prone surgical position

d)

Sims' surgical position

20.

What is the 'golden hour'?

a)

The hour immediately after surgery

b)

The hour prior to induction of anesthesia

c)

The initial hour after a traumatic injury

d)

The first hour of a work shift

21.

The following procedure is indicated in patients with metastatic breast cancer

a)

Vasectomy

b)

Mastectomy

c)

Lumpectomy

d)

Arthroplasty

22.

What must the CST (certified surgical technologist) do prior to opening sterile supplies?

a)

Inspect outer packages for tears

b)

Verify sterility by checking chemical indicators

c)

Ignore the expiration date

d)

Do nothing

23.

Which of the following is a non-penetrating towel a-traumatic clip used to secure cords or drapes?

a)

Backhaus

b)

Edna

c)

Jones

d)

Roeder

24.

What is the first item the CST (certified surgical technologist) will hand off to the surgeon prior to the beginning of the case?

a)

Surgical drapes

b)

Medication

c)

Scalpel

d)

Electrocautery

25.

Which of the following is a safe practice regarding the use of sharps?

a)

Having the surgeon place sharps on a designated area on the Mayo stand

b)

Allowing the surgeon to toss the sharp on the Mayo stand

c)

Passing sharps with the cutting edge angled upward

d)

Loading and passing sharps upon request

26.

When opening a sterile item, the first flap is opened in which direction?

a)

Toward you

b)

Away from you

c)

To the left

d)

To the right

27.

Which of the following surgeries is indicated in patients with thyroid carcinoma?

a)

Laparoscopic appendectomy

b)

Proctocolectomy

c)

Partial thyroidectomy

d)

Total thyroidectomy

28.

What is the first sterile area prepared by the CST (certified surgical technologist)?

a)

Mayo stand

b)

Basin set

c)

Prep table

d)

Back table

29.

An oscillating saw moves in which motion?

a)

Up and down motion

b)

Side to side motion

c)

Back and forth motion

d)

Circular motion

30.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of minimally invasive surgery (MIS)?

a)

Increased blood loss

b)

Rapid return of intestinal function

c)

Faster recovery time

d)

Decreased risk of infection

31.

Upon receiving medications onto the sterile field, what is the first task the CST (certified surgical technologist) must perform?

a)

Label all medications

b)

Draw medications into proper syringes

c)

Leave them until the surgeon asks

d)

Nothing further needs to be done

32.

Which of the following techniques will the CST (certified surgical technologist) employ when donning gloves immediately after gowning?

a)

Open glove technique

b)

Traditional gloving

c)

Closed glove technique

d)

Single glove technique

33.

Minimally invasive surgery (MIS), such as laparoscopy, requires:

a)

Long surgical and audio systems

b)

Short instrumentation

c)

Telescopic and imaging systems

d)

Imaging and audio systems

34.

When assisting in pediatric cases, the CST (certified surgical technologist) should always remember which of the following statements?

a)

A) Children are not small adults

b)

B) When in doubt, throw it out

c)

C) They will have a loss of subcutaneous fat

d)

D) Anti-embolic stockings will be used to prevent thromboembolism

35.

Which of the following is the incision of choice for an appendectomy?

a)

Subcostal

b)

McBurney's

c)

Transverse

d)

Left paramedian

36.

The surgical technologist, when donning their gown, should do which of the following?

a)

Grab the gown below the neckline

b)

Grab the gown at the neckline

c)

Grab the gown below the neckline and step away

d)

Grab the gown and let it unfold

37.

A surgical technologist can cover a sterile table for use later under which of the following circumstances?

a)

In an emergency

b)

Up to an hour before a procedure

c)

Up to two hours before a procedure

d)

No circumstances

38.

What is the purpose of the surgical scrub?

a)

Removal of transient flora and reduction of resident flora

b)

Removal of dead skin

c)

General hand hygiene

d)

Complete removal of resident flora

39.

When should sterile supplies be opened?

a)

While the CST (certified surgical technologist) is performing instrument counts

b)

As close to the time of surgery as possible

c)

During the procedure

d)

When the surgeon needs them

40.

The surgery indicated for patients with acute appendicitis is?

a)

Laparoscopic appendectomy

b)

Proctocolectomy

c)

Partial thyroidectomy

d)

Total thyroidectomy

41.

In the operating room, the primary source of any airborne bacteria transmitted to the patient is:

a)

Equipment

b)

Surgical team

c)

ESU

d)

Patient

42.

A surgeon’s preference card indicates the surgeon prefers a cloth towel, medium cloth gown, and size 7 gloves. The surgical assistant prefers a paper towel, small paper gown, and size 6 gloves. This assistant scrubs in first in most cases. What is the correct order from bottom to top for correct placement of the personal protective equipment on your sterile field?

a)

Towel, small paper gown, size 6 gloves, medium cloth gown, size 7 gloves

b)

Towel, size 6 gloves, small paper gown, towel, size 7 gloves, medium cloth gown

c)

Towel, small paper gown, medium cloth gown, size 6 gloves, size 7 gloves

d)

Size 7 gloves, medium cloth gown, cloth towel, size 6 gloves, small paper gown, paper towel

43.

Which procedures is linked with gastric bypass surgery for morbidly obese patients?

a)

Cholecystectomy

b)

Pancreatectomy

c)

Gastrectomy

d)

Appendectomy

44.

Which of the following precautions should the surgical team take during a procedure performed under fluoroscopy?

a)

Don full body and neck lead

b)

Stand far away from the patient

c)

Don skirt apron only

d)

Stand behind lead screen

45.

Which of the following procedures is indicated in patients with severe brain swelling following trauma?

a)

Esophagectomy

b)

Craniotomy

c)

Flexible sigmoidoscopy

d)

Hysterectomy

e)

craniectomy

46.

What is the procedure for managing dressing sponges pre-operatively?

a)

Dressing sponges can be opened onto the sterile field as long as they are not used in place of radiography detectable sponges.

b)

Dressing sponges should be held until final closing counts have been deemed correct, and the surgical procedure has concluded.

c)

Dressing sponges can be opened after the first closing count.

d)

Provided you have enough extra clean radiography detectable sponges after the surgical procedure has concluded, you don’t need to open dressing sponges.

47.

What type of dressing draws fluids from the wound and allows for the passage of air?

a)

Partially occlusive

b)

Semi occlusive

c)

Occlusive

d)

Non occlusive

48.

The following surgical position is used when performing upper abdominal surgeries?

a)

Supine surgical position

b)

Trendelenburg surgical position

c)

Jack knife surgical position

d)

Reverse Trendelenburg surgical position

49.

In the operating room, the healthcare professionals responsible for performing all counts are:

a)

A) Circulator and surgeon

b)

B) Circulator and surgical technologist

c)

C) Circulator and first assistant

d)

D) Circulator and nursing assistant

50.

Back table packs once oriented should be opened as follows?

a)

Center the pack on the table with long ends front and back

b)

Place the pack to the right with short end to the right

c)

Place the pack to the left with short end to the left

d)

Center the pack with long ends left and right

51.

To prevent damage, a telescope should never be carried:

a)

Without a container

b)

With one hand

c)

By its shaft

d)

By its head

52.

After opening your sterile gown onto your mayo stand, you deliver your peel packaged sterile gloves. As the gloves leave the package, they slide off of the package edge and onto the sterile towel and gown. What is your next move?

a)

Get rid of the gown wrapper and contents and open a new gown and a new pair of gloves.

b)

Just leave the room and perform my surgical hand scrub.

c)

Open another pair of surgical gloves to the area beside the sterile gown.

d)

When grabbing your gown after your brushless scrub, only touch the inside of the gown wrapper to retrieve your gloves to the inside sterile gloves.

53.

Which of the following is preferred for closing the abdominal fascia?

a)

Continuous monofilament suture

b)

Continuous multifilament suture

c)

Interrupted monofilament sutures

d)

Interrupted multifilament sutures

54.

Pediatric patients lack this; therefore, it may be difficult to determine whether if they are suffering from hypothermia.

a)

Ability to make a request for a blanket

b)

Bladder control

c)

Shivering ability

d)

Speaking ability

55.

What is the primary role of the CST (certified surgical technologist) in wound management?

a)

Having the proper dressing prepared

b)

Maintenance of the sterile field

c)

Have sharps ready on the operative field

d)

Keeping the wound dry

56.

What is the first step the CST must perform in the event of a sponge miscount in the preoperative phase of case management?

a)

Perform a re-count

b)

Dispose of the miscounted sponges

c)

Alert the surgeon

d)

Continue with the preoperative count

57.

The following procedure is indicated in patients with Hodgkin's lymphoma?

a)

Splenectomy

b)

Colonoscopy

c)

Salpingo-oophorectomy

d)

Video-assist thoracotomy

58.

The return electrode for the ESU in a cholecystectomy will be placed:

a)

On the upper chest

b)

The posterior thigh

c)

On the patient's bicep

d)

Anterior portion of the thigh

59.

The following are all components required when applying a pneumatic tourniquet. Which is the first step?

a)

Wrapping the extremity with the Esmarch.

b)

Applying the tourniquet.

c)

Prepping the extremity.

d)

Padding the area with webril where the tourniquet will be placed.

60.

Once the patient is anesthetized and the surgeon comes in the room and is ready to drape the patient, the surgical technologist should?

a)

Completely open the drape on their back table before placement.

b)

Reach over the patient to pass off the drape.

c)

Once placed the drape on the patient readjust if necessary.

d)

Pass off the drape by grasping the edge and forming a cuff to cover their hands to prevent contamination.

61.

During placement of the laparotomy drape on your patient, you notice the fenestration shift off-center beyond the toweled-out incision site. Identify best practices for addressing this situation.

a)

Ask the circulator to remove the contaminated drape and provide you a new one.

b)

Ask the circulator to remove the contaminated drape and towels and re-prep and re-drape the patient.

c)

Pull the fenestration back to the center.

d)

Request another drape to place on top of the existing drape and make sure it is centered.

62.

What must the CST (certified surgical technologist) be prepared for when assisting on trauma cases?

a)

Use of lap sponges

b)

The possibility of multiple procedures

c)

Lack of communication among team members

d)

Extensive room turnover

63.

Once the patient has been brought to the room, if during the first count the surgical technologist drops a lap pad, it:

a)

is collected by the circulator as part of the count

b)

may be bagged and tossed in the waste

c)

is disposed of

d)

is picked up and used

64.

A patient with inflammation involving the appendix would undergo what surgical procedure?

a)

Laparoscopic appendectomy

b)

Proctocolectomy

c)

Partial thyroidectomy

d)

Total thyroidectomy

65.

Donning PPE is inclusive of eye protection: appropriate eye protection would consist of what?

a)

Eye protection should permit adequate peripheral vision.

b)

Because face shields open from the top, they should only be worn with goggles.

c)

To ensure a proper seal, eye protection will be tight enough to produce some amount of discomfort.

d)

Removal of eye protection does not require aseptic technique.

66.

Which of the following is a principle of back table set-up a CST (certified surgical technologist) should know?

a)

Develop and maintain a logical pattern and repeat for every case

b)

Set up differently for every case

c)

Always consult with the circulator while setting up the back table

d)

Work all sections of the table at once

67.

The following procedure is indicated in patients with severe intractable joint pain.

a)

Vasectomy

b)

Mastectomy

c)

Lumpectomy

d)

Arthroplasty

68.

Why is a surgical scrub performed?

a)

Reduce resident flora and rid of transient flora

b)

Protect the surgical technologist from potential of infectious microorganisms

c)

Sterilize the skin prior to contact with a patient

d)

Disinfect the skin against any potential pathogens

69.

Which of the following closure devices should the CST (certified surgical technologist) have ready for use on obese patients?

a)

Derma - Bond

b)

Montgomery straps

c)

Butterfly bandages

d)

Mesh

70.

When performing a laparoscopic procedure, it is important to have the following instrumentation available on the sterile field:

a)

Bookwalter

b)

Osteotome and curette

c)

Drills and depth gauge

d)

Trocars and veress needle

71.

Surgery for lower pilonidal sinus excision requires the patient to be placed in which following positions?

a)

Supine

b)

Trendelenburg

c)

Jack knife (krask)

d)

Reverse Trendelenburg

72.

After the patient has been draped, what is the furniture the surgical technologist should bring up to the field first?

a)

Back table

b)

Kick bucket

c)

Mayo stand

d)

ESU unit

73.

The following refers to the wound closure of a wound that is not sutured but heals from the base as granulation tissue forms?

a)

Primary intention

b)

Secondary intention

c)

Third intention

d)

Proliferative healing

74.

When positioning a patient on the operating room surgical table, the surgical team must consider which of the following?

a)

Arms should never be extended away from the body at an angle greater than 110 degrees.

b)

The patient's position can be changed upon request by the surgical assistant.

c)

A horseshoe rest is used to support a patient's head in the prone position.

d)

Positioning injuries are usually caused by equipment malfunction.

75.

Which of the following is a primary factor that can affect wound healing?

a)

Type of dressing

b)

The patient's physical condition

c)

Time of procedure

d)

Surgical approach

76.

An example of a multifilament nonabsorbable suture is?

a)

Polyglycolic acid/Dexon

b)

Plain gut

c)

Surgical silk

d)

Polyglactinone 25/Monocryl

77.

Which of the following surgeries is indicated in patients with severe trauma involving both renal veins and leading to acute renal failure?

a)

Coronary artery bypass graft

b)

Transcatheter aortic valve replacement

c)

Liver transplantation

d)

Kidney transplant

78.

Surgery for cancer invading the common bile duct, may provide palliative care by performing which of the following procedure?

a)

Laparoscopic appendectomy

b)

Proctocolectomy

c)

Partial thyroidectomy

d)

Whipple procedure

79.

The following procedure is indicated in patients requiring a pulmonary lobectomy for cancer?

a)

Upper endoscopy

b)

Colonoscopy

c)

Salpingoophorectomy

d)

Video-assist thoracotomy

80.

A 65-year-old diabetic man enters the emergency room with a penetrating stomach wound. Which of the following would increase his risk of surgical site infection?

a)

Insulin use for diabetes treatment

b)

Alcohol abuse

c)

Previous surgery

d)

Blood thinners

81.

What type of shock is most commonly seen in infants and children in the operating room?

a)

Septic shock

b)

Hypovolemic shock

c)

Cardiogenic shock

d)

Neurogenic shock

82.

The Patient Return Electrode (PRE) must be placed over:

a)

Implants

b)

Small muscle masses

c)

Bony protuberances

d)

Large muscle masses

83.

The CST (certified surgical technologist) must do what prior to accepting medications onto the sterile field?

a)

Have a medication cup ready

b)

Verify the dosage with the circulator

c)

Prepare hypodermic needle and syringe

d)

Verify the name and dosage of the medication

84.

Which phase of anesthesia occurs intraoperatively?

a)

Maintenance

b)

Induction

c)

Recovery

d)

Emergence

85.

The certified surgical technologist (CST) must don a sterile gown and sterile gloves, prior to approaching their sterile field. They are to never fold their arms and place palms in their axillary region of their gown. This is because?

a)

The axilla is part of the sterile gown.

b)

The axillary regions are not considered sterile.

c)

Once turning the gown, it is all considered sterile.

d)

The axilla cannot be verified.

86.

Which of the following positions is frequently used in cranial procedures?

a)

Trendelenburg

b)

Kraske

c)

Fowler’s

d)

Sim’s

87.

Upon opening your back-table pack in the non-sterile role, you find that it contains a wrapped sterile basin set. Describe best practices for obtaining the basin set to open it and retrieve its contents.

a)

Continue opening your other items with a plan to place the wrapped sterile basin into a ring stand so you can open it after you are in the first scrub role.

b)

Continue opening your other items with a plan to pass off the sterile basin set to your circulator to open after you are in the first scrub role.

c)

Get rid of this pack and find one without a basin inside of it.

d)

Grab the basin set off of the opened back-table, place it in a ring stand, and open it.

88.

In preparation for a surgical procedure it is imperative that the surgical team prepare all necessary equipment and supplies, as well as ensure everything is functioning. These activities are best accomplished during?

a)

Intraoperative phase

b)

Preoperative phase

c)

Decontamination phase

d)

Postoperative phase

89.

What is the term for patients who are 100 pounds over their ideal body weight?

a)

Morbid obesity

b)

Physically – challenged

c)

Obese

d)

Comorbid ailments

90.

A CST (certified surgical technologist) must possess a keen surgical conscience, knowledge of aseptic technique, and the ability to:

a)

Set up a sterile field

b)

Stand aside during emergencies

c)

Perform a basic hand wash

d)

Solve problems

91.

The surgical procedure indicated for a patient with end stage renal failure is?

a)

Coronary artery bypass graft

b)

Transcatheter aortic valve replacement

c)

Liver transplantation

d)

Renal transplantation

92.

Appropriately performing the skin prep requires:

a)

Use of the same sponge to back over an area that could have been missed

b)

Prepping a contaminated area first

c)

Use of separate sponges for each area

d)

Allow for fluids to pool under the patient

93.

The best instrument to use to secure the electrocautery cord and suction tubing onto the sterile field, is which of the following?

a)

Backhaus

b)

Hemostat

c)

Allis

d)

Kocher

94.

Identify the position utilized for colonoscopy procedures.

a)

Fowlers

b)

Reverse Trendelenburg

c)

Sims

d)

Trendelenburg

95.

Regardless of the surgical procedure that a patient will be undergoing, all surgical patients are initially placed in which position?

a)

Trendelenburg position

b)

Lithotomy position

c)

Supine position

d)

Jackknife position

96.

Prior to a surgical procedure, all the following must be removed by the nurse in the holding area except?

a)

plates and screws

b)

prosthesis

c)

hearing aids

d)

contact lenses

97.

What is the intraoperative medical condition characterized by elevated temperature and uncontrolled muscle spasms?

a)

Malignant hyperthermia

b)

Anaphylaxis

c)

Seizure

d)

Hypertensive crisis

98.

Which of the following graspers will the CST (certified surgical technologist) have ready for use in an appendectomy?

a)

Kocher

b)

Babcock

c)

Lane

d)

Allis

99.

Balloon dissectors can be used as an alternative to which of the following devices?

a)

Veress needle

b)

Port

c)

Trocar

d)

Cannula with sheath

100.

When the CST is across the table from the surgeon, what technique should be used when passing instrumentation?

a)

Non-dominant hand to non-dominant hand

b)

Dominant hand to dominant hand

c)

allow the surgeon to take instruments from the mayo stand

d)

no special technique is required

101.

The case cart for the next case in an operating room should be brought in?

a)

after the room has been turned over

b)

after the operating room table is made

c)

after the previous patient leaves the room

d)

after all the furniture is dry

102.

placing a rolled sheet, pad or blanket to elevate a pregnant patients right hip is done to relieve pressure from?

a)

sciatic nerve

b)

kidney

c)

abdominal aorta and vena cava

d)

bladder

103.

which of the following positions will a patient be placed for a mediastinoscopy

a)

prone

b)

low lithotomy

c)

supine

d)

trendelenburg

104.

which of the following standard surgical positions is used in pilonidal sinus excision

a)

lithotomy surgical position

b)

fowlers surgical position

c)

prone surgical position

d)

lateral surgical position

105.

what type of sutures are Silk, and Mersilene?

a)

absorbable sutures

b)

multifilament sutures

c)

synthetic sutures

d)

monofilament sutures

106.

which of the following is the correct sequence of actions when performing a sponge count before starting a case?

a)

remove paper bands before separating sponges into separate piles

b)

leave paper bands on and fanfold each sponge while counting

c)

remove paper bands and keep all sponges stacked in one pile

d)

remove paper bands and place sponges in a fanfold to count

107.

which of the following positions places the patient on their back and then flexes the hips and knees?

a)

lithotomy surgical position

b)

fowlers surgical position

c)

prone surgical position

d)

lateral surgical position

108.

which of the following is not true of the surgical scrub?

a)

there is a timed method and a counted method

b)

increasing the duration of the scrub is the most effective method of reducing the bioburden of microorganisms

c)

the surgical scrub eliminates transient flora and reduces resident flora

d)

subsequent to the first scrub of the day Avaguard may be used for subsequent cases