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II. Electrical & Avionics Lv 2 & 3 (Pt I & II)

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which Integrated Modular Avionics (IMA) components are supplied by PEPDC1 (Primary Electrical Power Distribution Center 1)?

a)

CPIOM (Core Processing Input/Output Module)-E1

b)

IOM (Input/Output Module)-A1

c)

CPIOM (Core Processing Input/Output Module)-C1

d)

CPIOM (Core Processing Input/Output Module)-F1

2.

When the NSS 1 RESET is pulled, which components of the Network Server Subsystem (NSS) are powered down?

a)

INSU (Integrated Network Server Unit) 1 / INSU 2

b)

INSU (Integrated Network Server Unit) 1 / AMAT (Aircraft Multipurpose Access Terminal) / Printer

c)

INSU (Integrated Network Server Unit) 1 only

d)

INSU (Integrated Network Server Unit) 1 / CDAU (Centralized Data· Acquisition Unit)

3.

What is the AMAT (Aircraft Multipurpose Access Terminal) equipped with for use of removable media?

a)

PCMCIA slot, PID (Personal Identification Device) reader, DVD/CD reader

b)

DVD/CD reader only

c)

PCMCIA slot, DVD/CD reader only

d)

PCMCIA slot, PIO reader only

4.

From where do the Integrated Network Server Units (INSUs) receive Aircraft Condition and Monitoring System Real Time (ACMS-RT) data?

a)

Solid State Flight Data Recorder (SSFDR)

b)

Aircraft Multipurpose Access Terminal (AMAT)

c)

Military Mission Management Computer (M-MMC)

d)

Centralized Data Acquisition Unit (CDAU)

5.

Regarding the Central Maintenance Subsystem (CMS), a 'Fault Case' is:

a)

The result provided by the System Report Test at the end of an interactive BITE.

b)

The correlation of all the Fault Codes occurred during a flight.

c)

An item of the Post Flight Report computed from the correlation of all the symptom's caused by a failure.

d)

All of the above.

6.

From which subsystem of the Aircraft Integrated Monitoring and Diagnostics System (AIMDS) are we able to use the Data Recording?

a)

Data Loading and Configuration Subsystem (DLCS).

b)

Aircraft Condition and Monitoring Subsystem (ACMS).

c)

Structural Lifetime Monitoring Subsystem (LTMS).

d)

Central Maintenance Subsystem (CMS).

7.

What is the Avionics Status used for?

a)

To allow the operator to display in real time the list of failure messages of a system or a group of systems.

b)

To allow the operator to perform the trouble shooting of a recurring fault.

c)

Allows the operator to get access to interactive mode.

d)

All of the above.

8.

What does the system report/test function allow?

a)

To allow the operator to display in real time the list of failure messages of a system or a group of systems.

b)

Allows the operator to execute interactive tests on BITE and specific maintenance functions.

c)

Proceed to a maintenance data extended search.

d)

Manage the database.

9.

In the Control Display System (CDS), from where do all the left hand side Display Units receive their electrical power?

a)

DC BUS 2

b)

DC ESS BUS

c)

AC BUS 1

d)

AC ESS BUS

10.

The Engine and Warning Display (EWD) is composed of what 3 windows?

a)

Engine Display / Mailbox / Warning Display

b)

Engine Display / Flight Controls Display / Warning Display

c)

Engine Display / Mailbox / System Display

d)

Engine Display / Warning Display / Air Data

11.

Which component of the Head Up Display System (HUDS) includes a software component providing BITE functions?

a)

Personalized Memory Module (PMM)

b)

Head Up Display Computer (HUDC)

c)

Head Up Projection Unit (HPU)

d)

Head Up Combiner Unit (HCU)

12.

Which Software is held within the Digital Map Generation Computer (DMGC)?

a)

Operational Program, Digital Map Ground Database, Obstacles Software Pin Programming

b)

Operational Program, Configuration Files, Obstacles Software Pin Programming

c)

Operational Program, Digital Map Ground Database, Configuration Files.

d)

Configuration Files, Digital Map Ground Database, Obstacles Software Pin Programming

13.

What is the Alerts Level Classification if an amber caution message is displayed on the Engine and Warning Display (EWD) without any visual or aural attention getters?

a)

Level 1

b)

Level O

c)

Level 2

d)

Level 3

14.

Where is the Solid State Flight Data Recorder (SSFDR) powered from?

a)

From the 28VDC ESS BUS via the Power Interlock Circuit

b)

115VAC from AC BUS 1

c)

From the 115VAC ESS BUS via the Power Interlock Circuit

d)

28VDC from DC BUS 1

15.

Where is the Solid State Flight Data Recorder (SSFDR) located?

a)

Rear part of the aircraft

b)

Upper avionics compartment

c)

Lower avionics compartment

d)

Loadmaster Workstation

16.

From where is the Digital Flight Data Recorder System (DFDRS) recorded data downloaded using the readout support equipment?

a)

From an interface connector located on the Solid State Flight Data recorder (SSFDR)

b)

From an interface connector located on the Centralized Data Acquisition Unit (CDAU)

c)

From the Maintenance Access Terminal (MAT)

d)

From an interface connector located at the Loadmaster Workstation

17.

Which bus in the Electrical Network receives its power directly from the Static Inverter?

a)

DC Essential bus

b)

AC Emergency bus

c)

AC Essential bus

d)

DC APU bus

18.

From where can a battery voltage check of the 3 aircraft batteries be carried out?

a)

Electrical Control Panel

b)

An indicator located on the front face of each battery

c)

It is not possible to check the aircraft battery voltage

d)

Electrical Maintenance Control Panel

19.

What is the continuous power capacity of each VFG (Variable Frequency Generator)?

a)

90 KVA

b)

115 KVA

c)

75 KVA

d)

210 KVA

20.

In the Variable Frequency Generators (VFGs), what is used to regulate the supply of oil to the rotor?

a)

The bearing temperature sensor

b)

A bypass valve.

c)

A differential pressure switch

d)

A pressure relief valve

21.

To which electrical distribution center are the feeders from the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) generator connected?

a)

SEPDC (Secondary Electrical Power Distribution Center) 1

b)

EEPDC (Emergency Electrical Power Distribution Center)

c)

PEPDC (Primary Electrical Power Distribution Center) 1

d)

PEPDC (Primary Electrical Power Distribution Center) 2

22.

Which Generator and Ground Power Control Unit (GGPCU) controls the External Power?

a)

GGPCU 1

b)

GGPCU 3

c)

GGPCU 5

d)

GGPCU 4

23.

What are the two battery charging laws provided by the Battery Charger Rectifier Units (BCRUs)?

a)

Full charging and trickle charging

b)

High and low mode

c)

Topping mode and floating mode

d)

BCRU mode and Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU) mode

24.

What are the 3 light indications located on the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) stow panel?

a)

RAT FAULT, RAT DEPLOYED, STOW

b)

STOW ON, STOW OFF, TURBINE LOCKED

c)

RESET, FAULT, SYSTEM OK

d)

INTERLOCK WARNING, RAT STOWED, ACTUATOR PRESSURE

25.

Which electrical distribution center are the feeders from the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) connected to?

a)

PEPDC 1

b)

PEPDC 2

c)

EEPDC

d)

SEPDC 1

26.

Which Generator and Ground Power Control Unit (GGPCU) controls the variable Frequency Generator 3 (VFG3)?

a)

GGPCU 1

b)

GGPCU 3

c)

GGPCU 2

d)

GGPCU 4

27.

How is the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) generator cooled?

a)

Through oil ports on the generator that interface with the APU oil system for cooling.

b)

An independent oil cooling system in the generator is used which exchanges heat with the atmosphere.

c)

The generator oil does not need to be cooled.

d)

The APU generator does use any oil for cooling, only for lubrication.

28.

Where are the controls for the AC Domestic Converters located?

a)

Cockpit's Main Electrical Panel.

b)

In the Cockpit and on the LMWS panel.

c)

On the LMWS and LMCP.

d)

In the lower-deck avionics bay.

29.

How is the current position of an AFDX Switch defined?

a)

Software Pin Programming

b)

Pin Programming using the Shell C connector

c)

Configuration Table software

d)

The Keying Module

30.

For connection of additional peripherals to the Network Server System (NSS), where are the Network Plugs located?

a)

All Network Plugs are located in the cockpit

b)

All Network Plugs are located in the Cargo Hold

c)

They are only located in the cockpit and Load master Workstation

d)

The network plugs are located in the cockpit, Loadmaster Workstation and the Cargo hold

31.

How is the Printer turned off before carrying out a new printer roll installation?

a)

By selecting it off through a menu on the AMAT

b)

With the ON/OFF button located on the printer

c)

With the PRNTR pushbutton located on the printer

d)

NSS 2 RESET

32.

Regarding the Aircraft Integrated Monitoring and Diagnostic System (AIMDS), what is a function of the Central Maintenance Subsystem (CMS)?

a)

Maintenance Uploading

b)

Post Flight Report

c)

Software Pin Programming

d)

ACMS (Aircraft Condition and Monitoring System) Real Time Monitoring

33.

From which subsystem of the Aircraft Integrated Monitoring and Diagnostics System (AIMDS) are we able to use the Engineering Data function?

a)

Data Loading and Configuration Subsystem (DLCS)

b)

Aircraft Condition and Monitoring Subsystem (ACMS)

c)

Structural lifetime Monitoring Subsystem (LTMS)

d)

Central Maintenance Subsystem (CMS)

34.

The Post Flight Report (PFR) display on the Aircraft Multipurpose Access Terminal (AMAT) is split into tabs, which of the following is one of them?

a)

Fault details on ground.

b)

Aircraft Condition and Monitoring Subsystem (ACMS)

c)

Cockpit Effect.

d)

Date.

35.

The maintainer can gain access to the Central Maintenance System (CMS) functions through the:

a)

Multipurpose Access Terminals (MAT)

b)

Multifunction Displays (MDFs)

c)

Power Distribution Maintenance Terminals (PDMT)

d)

ACMS (Aircraft Condition and Monitoring System) Real Time Monitoring

36.

From where could you upload information to the aircraft system when using Data Loading and Configuration System (DLCS)?

a)

The PCMCIA only.

b)

PCMCIA and CD/DVDs.

c)

PCMCIA, CD/DVDs and PMAT's Hard Drive.

d)

The information is transferred wirelessly with the router in the CPIOM-D

37.

What is received by the Multi-Function displays (MFDs) through fiber optics?

a)

Digital video images

b)

Aircraft system data

c)

Critical data in case of ADCN (Avionics-Data Communication Network) loss

d)

Power supply

38.

Which of the following windows are displayed on the Engine Warning Display (EWD)?

a)

System Display (SD)

b)

Navigation and Tactical Display (NTD)

c)

Flight Control Display

d)

Primary Flight Display

39.

Where are the "De-clutter" controls for the Head Up Display (HUD) located? (MG310402020a)

a)

On each side-stick

b)

The HUD Control Panel

c)

The Keyboard and Cursor Control Unit (KCCU)

d)

ECAM (Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring) Control Panel (ECP)

40.

How many Video Distribution Units (VDUs) make up the Video Management System (ViMS)? (MG310502010b)

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

41.

Which of the following indicates a successful DMAP (Digital Map) upload?

a)

DMAP UPLOAD COMPLETE memo on the Engine and Warning Display (EWD)

b)

Green DMAP message on the relevant System Display (SD) page

c)

All lights extinguished on the Digital Map Generation Computer (DMGC)

d)

A steady green light on the front of the Digital Map Generation Computer (DMGC)

42.

Which electrical bus supplies CPIOM-Cl (Core Processing Input/Output Module-Cl) hosting the Flight Warning Application (FWA)? (MG310802010b)

a)

DC ESS BUS

b)

AC BUS 1

c)

DC BUS 2

d)

DC BUS 1

43.

How is it possible to start the Solid State Flight Data Recorder (SSFDR) when the aircraft is on ground (weight on wheels) and all engines stopped? (MG310802020a)

a)

By selecting the GND CTL pushbutton to AUTO

b)

By pushing the EVENT pushbutton

c)

By selecting the NON SENSITIVE ONLY pushbutton to ON

d)

By selecting the GND CTL pushbutton to ON

44.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Alerts Level Classification of the Flight Warning System (FWS)? (MG310802020b)

a)

Level 3 alerts are called Warnings, Level 0 alerts are called Memos

b)

Level 0 alerts are called Cautions, Level 1 alerts are called Warnings

c)

Level 3 alerts are called Cautions, Level 0 alerts are called Warnings

d)

Level 1 and Level 2 alerts are called Warnings, level 3 alerts are called Cautions

45.

Where are the Generator and Ground Power Control Units (GGPCUs) located? (MG240302030a)

a)

Nose fuselage, on the mezzanine only

b)

Nose fuselage, on the mezzanine and two in the nose fuselage, lower deck

c)

Nose fuselage, lower deck only

d)

One in each engine

46.

Regarding the Generator and Ground Power Control Units (GGPCUs), what is included in the "generator control" function? (MG240302040b)

a)

Voltage regulation, contactors management, Oil monitoring

b)

Electrical Load Management Function (ELMF), protection, oil monitoring

c)

Mechanical disconnection: mechanical reconnection

d)

Battery management, oil temperature control

47.

Which Generator and Ground Power Control Unit (GGPCU) controls the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) Generator?

a)

GGPCU 1

b)

GGPCU 3

c)

GGPCU 5

d)

GGPCU 4

48.

Where is the Generator and Ground Power Control Unit 5 (GGPCUS) located?

a)

Centre, fuselage close to the APU

b)

Nose fuselage lower deck

c)

Primary Electrical Power Distribution Center 2 (PEPDC2)

d)

Nose fuselage on the mezzanine

49.

Where is the Essential Battery Charger Rectifier Unit (BCRU ESS) installed?

a)

Upper deck of the forward fuselage, on top of the distribution centers

b)

Upper deck of the forward fuselage, next to the right-hand distribution centers

c)

Forward right-hand side of the cargo hold

d)

Lower deck of the forward fuselage

50.

In the case that the Battery Charger Rectifier Unit 2 (BCRU 2) is lost, which component takes over the management of Battery 2 (BAT 2)?

a)

BCRU 1

b)

Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU)

c)

BCRU ESS

d)

No other component is capable of taking over the management functions of BAT 2

51.

Where on the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) module can a safety pin be inserted to prevent an accidental deployment of the RAT?

a)

The Uplock Unit

b)

The Gearbox

c)

The Turbine Assembly

d)

The Sponson Door

52.

What is the purpose of the Static Inverter?

a)

To transform 28VDC from the Essential Battery into single-phase 115VAC electrical power

b)

To transform 28VDC from Battery 1 into three-phase 115VAC electrical power

c)

To transform 115VAC from the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) into 28VDC electrical power

d)

To transform 28VDC from the Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU) into single-phase 115VAC electrical power

53.

How can the operator carry out a check of the Power Distribution Maintenance Terminal (PDMT) screen pixels?

a)

By pushing the TEST key on the PDMT

b)

PDMT System Test through the AMAT (Aircraft Multipurpose Access Terminal)

c)

Control and Display System Test through the AMAT (Aircraft Multipurpose Access Terminal)

d)

TEST switch on the Electrical Maintenance Panel located in the cockpit

54.

Where are the AC Domestic Converters located?

a)

Nose mezzanine only.

b)

Cargo hold.

c)

Inside the Primary Electrical Power Distribution Centers (PEPDCs)

d)

In the lower-deck avionics bay.

55.

How many Power Distribution Maintenance Terminals (PDMTs) does the A400M have?

a)

Only one.

b)

Two.

c)

Three, two on the mezzanine and an extra one in the lower avionics bay.

d)

Two, one in the cockpit and one in the mezzanine.

56.

How many VFGs (Variable Frequency Generators) are needed to supply all the electrical circuits in the A400M?

a)

One is enough.

b)

At least two.

c)

Two but if at least one on each wing is energized.

d)

All of them are needed for some circuits will not be energized

57.

What is the purpose of the Utility Lights?

a)

They supply the lighting that is necessary on ground for the crew and maintenance personnel.

b)

They supply the lighting that is necessary for the crew members to move in the cockpit.

c)

They supply the lighting that is necessary for the crew members to read and write.

d)

They supply the lighting that is necessary for the crew members to move and work safely in the cockpit area.

58.

With the NVG (Night Vision Googles) mode activated, the annunciators test function from the switch to the cockpit is?

a)

Active for a limited time.

b)

Unaltered.

c)

Inhibited.

d)

Dimmed.

59.

What is the LMWS (Loadmaster Workstation) General Illumination system made up of?

a)

Flood lights, Table light and Wall lights.

b)

Flood lights and Floor lights.

c)

Flood lights, Table light and Floor lights.

d)

Hoer Lights, Table lights and Wall lights.

60.

From where and what type of power supplies the Stair Area Light?

a)

From the SEPDC (Secondary Electrical Power Distribution Center) 2 and HOT BUS 1 in both cases with 28 VDC.

b)

From the SEPDC (Secondary Electrical Power Distribution Center) 1 and SEPDC 2 in both cases with 28 VDC.

c)

From the SEPDC (Secondary Electrical Power Distribution Center) 1 with 115 VAC and from the HOT BUS 1 in both cases with 28 VDC.

d)

From the SEPDC (Secondary Electrical Power Distribution Center) 2 with 115 VAC and DC BUS ESS with 28 VDC.

61.

When does the Fasten Seat Belt and Return to Seat signs controlled by the SEAT BELTS toggle switch trigger a green MEMO message on the EWD (Engine and Warning Display)?

a)

When the switch is in AUTO position.

b)

When the switch is in OFF position.

c)

When the switch is in ON position only.

d)

When the switch is in AUTO position only during cruise phase.

62.

Under which conditions is the Toilet Occupied sign illuminated?

a)

Only when both lavatory door locks are engaged.

b)

When any of the two lavatory locks are engaged.

c)

As soon as both lavatory doors are closed.

d)

When both lavatory locks are engaged and Covert mode activated.

63.

One Wheel Well light is located in the nose landing gear (NLG) bay. Where is the switch for the control of this light?

a)

The switch is next to the light on the same support structure.

b)

There is a dedicated switch located close to entrance of the bay.

c)

This light has a dedicated switch on the Ground Power Control Panel (GPCP).

d)

The light automatically turns ON with the aircraft on ground and when the nose landing gear (NLG) bay doors are open.

64.

How many Emergency Power Supply Units (EPSU) are there in the A400M?

a)

Six units that convert the 115 VAC power into a suitable voltage to supply the emergency lights.

b)

Four units that convert the 28 VDC power into a suitable voltage to supply the emergency lights.

c)

Four units that convert the 115 VAC power into 28 VDC to supply the battery packs and the emergency lights.

d)

Four units that convert the 115 VAC power into a suitable voltage to supply the emergency lights.

65.

Which GADIRUs are connected to the Controlled Reception Pattern Antennas (CRPA), when installed?

a)

To all GADIRUs 1, 2 and 3.

b)

Only to GADIRU 1 and GADIRU 2.

c)

Only to GADIRU 3.

d)

Only to GADIRU 1 and GADIRU 3.

66.

What is the purpose and subsystems of the Multimode Receiver (MMR) system?

a)

Localizer (LOC) and Glide Slope (G/S) signals for landing, corrected by the Satellite Based Augmentation System.

b)

Landing aids, by means of the Landing System (LS) and Aircraft position determining, by means of the military.

c)

Instrument Landing System (ILS) as a landing aid and position determining by use of the Global Positioning.

d)

Landing aids, by means of the Landing System (LS) and Aircraft position determining, by means of the civil Global Positioning System.

67.

What is the Radio Altimeter (RA) system made up of?

a)

2 RA Transceivers and 1 Antenna for each transceiver.

b)

2 RA Transceivers and 4 Antennas.

c)

2 RA Transceivers per side and 4 Antennas per side.

d)

1 RA Transceiver and 4 Antennas, two on the top and two on the bottom.

68.

To assist with Flight Planning, where do the Flight Management Computers (FMCs) receive military data from?

a)

Military Mission Management System (MMMS)

b)

Navigation System

c)

It is directly uploaded to the FMCs via a maintenance access terminal.

d)

CPIOM (Core Processing Input/Output Module)

69.

Through which Audio Management Unit (AMU) is the interface for the Wireless Intercom System (WIS)?

a)

AMU 1 only

b)

AMU 1 and AMU 2

c)

AMU 2 only

d)

There is no interface between the WIS and AMUs

70.

In emergency conditions in case of a power failure, how is the Passenger Address (PA) Amplifier supplied to enable announcements using the PA, Handmics?

a)

With use of a dedicated Internal power supply.

b)

The PA cannot be used in the case of a power failure.

c)

By means of logic enabling a supply from the DC Essential Hot Bus.

d)

Battery 2 will supply the PA Amplifier.

71.

When Audio BACK UP (Emergency) Mode is selected on the Audio Mode Switch, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

The Passenger Address (PA) is available only by using the handmics.

b)

The HF Radios are still available for communication.

c)

Communication can be carried out using SATCOM.

d)

Audio signals from the Direction Finder (DF) are still received.

72.

What is the Internal Communication (INTERCOM) network that allows communication between the flight crew and ground crew connected to a jack box outside the aircraft?

a)

Private (PRIV)

b)

General (GENERAL)

c)

Private (PRIV) and General (GENERAL)

d)

Passenger Address (PA)

73.

What type of connection exchanges data between the Communication & Identification Management System (CIMS) and the V/UHF (Very/Ultra High Frequency), HF (High Frequency), IFF (Identification Friend or Foe) systems?

a)

ARINC 429 bus

b)

Mil-1553 bus

c)

AFDX bus

d)

RS485 bus

74.

In normal operations, how is it possible to modify a V/UHF (Very/Ultra High Frequency) radio frequency?

a)

Only on the RMP (Radio Management Panel) using the VUHF Radio Advanced Page

b)

Through the RMP (Radio Management Panel) using the VUHF Radio Advanced Page or the COM BASIC page and Advance Page

c)

Using the Audio Control Panel (ACP)

d)

Only through the Control Display System (CDS) in the V/U page of the COM Format and the RMP (Radio Management Panel) VUHF Radio Advance Page.

75.

What are the main components of the Direction Finder (DF)?

a)

2 antennas and 1 transceiver

b)

1 antenna and 1 Receiver Processor Unit (RPU)

c)

2 antennas and 2 Receiver Processor Units (RPUs)

d)

1 antenna, 1 antenna control unit and the DF Computer

76.

What are the positions of the Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) Operating Mode Switch?

a)

1/2/3/4/5

b)

A I C/S

c)

CIVIL/MIL

d)

OFF/STBY/AUTO/ON/EMERGENCY

77.

For Sensitive Data Keeping in the event of total loss of aircraft power, what is the correct statement regarding the Military Mission Management System (M-MMS)?

a)

M-MMS 1 and M-MMC 2 receive battery power from their dedicated HOT BUS.

b)

The M-MMC's have internal batteries to store the sensitive data

c)

It is not possible to hold the Sensitive Data Array in this event

d)

M-MMC (Military Mission Management Computer) 1 receives battery power from HOT BUS 1

78.

Where is the Tactical Data Erasure Switch located?

a)

On the pedestal

b)

On the glareshield

c)

On the Crypto Key Loading Panel (CKLP)

d)

On the overhead panel

79.

Where does the crew select the function of the Minimum Height Alert (MHA) application?

a)

On the Surveillance Control Panel located on the pedestal

b)

On the Flight Control Unit (FCU)

c)

On the Head Up Display (HUD) Control Panel

d)

On the Loadmaster Workstation

80.

In which application will you find the Emission Control (EMCON) function?

a)

Display Capability

b)

Tactical Situation Management (TSM)

c)

Cargo Load Management (CLM)

d)

Communication, Navigation and Identification (CNI) Management

81.

What lights in the Flight Compartment Lights Cockpit General Illumination Subsystem are Night Vision Goggles (NVG) compatible?

a)

Utility Lights, Ambient Lights, Accessory Light and Flood Lights are NVG compatible.

b)

All the lights are NVG compatible.

c)

Only the Utility Lights and the Flood Lights are NVG compatible.

d)

None of the lights are NVG compatible.

82.

On what architecture is based the Cockpit Integral Lighting system?

a)

The architecture is based on a full-LED design and it is managed by a single Dimming Control Unit.

b)

The architecture is based on a full-LED design and it is managed by four Dimming Control units.

c)

The architecture is based on a mixed LED and halogen design and it is managed by a single Dimming Control.

d)

The architecture is based on a full-LED design and it is managed by the displays, the Integrated Control Panels (ICPs) and the VU panels.

83.

How many VU panels containing one or more annunciators are there in the cockpit?

a)

One VU panel with multiple annunciators, connected to four Lighting Modules.

b)

Four VU panels, each one connected to one of the four Lighting Modules.

c)

Ten VU panels, all of them connected to a dedicated Lighting Module.

d)

Four VU panels, all of them connected to a single Lighting Module.

84.

Where can the Stair Area Light be controlled from?

a)

From the Stair LT button located on the cockpit overhead panel only.

b)

From the Stair LT button located on the cockpit overhead panel and the switch Entrance Area lighting Panel.

c)

From the Stair LT button located on the cockpit overhead panel, from the switch on the LMWS and from the

d)

From the Stair LT button located on cockpit overhead panel and the switch located on the forward LHS sponson.

85.

What conditions trigger the Fasten Seat Belt and Return to Seat signs automatically?

a)

When the SEAT BELTS toggle switch is in AUTO and the landing gear is extended or excessive cabin.

b)

When the SEAT BELTS toggle switch is in AUTO and the landing gear is extended.

c)

When the SEAT BELTS toggle switch is in AUTO or ON and the landing gear is extended or excessive cabin.

d)

When the SEAT BELTS toggle switch is in AUTO and the landing gear is extended or excessive cabin depressurization is detected.

86.

How many configurations do the Low Brightness Lights have?

a)

Configuration 1 with 18 LED lights and configuration 2 with 28 LED lights.

b)

Configuration 1 with 28 halogen lights and configuration 2 with 18 LED lights.

c)

Configuration 1 with 48 halogen lights and configuration 2 with 28 LED lights.

d)

Configuration 1 with 18 halogen lights and configuration 2 with 28 LED lights.

87.

One of the Service Area and Wheel Well Lighting modules is NVG compatible, which one?

a)

The nose landing gear area light has a NVG compatible LED module.

b)

The fuel service area light has a NVG compatible LED module.

c)

The statement is wrong, none of the modules are NVG compatibles

d)

All the Service Area and Wheel Well Lighting modules are NVG compatible.

88.

What kind of lamp does the APU service area light have?

a)

There is no need for a lamp in the APU compartment.

b)

It has a HID (High Intensity Discharge) lamp.

c)

It has an LED (Light Emitting Diode) lamp module.

d)

It has a halogen lamp.

89.

How are all radio navigation transceivers normally tuned?

a)

By the FMS (Flight Management System), either automatically or manually by the flight crew via the Navigation

b)

The radio navigation systems can be tuned by using the Radio Management Panel (RMP) 1 or 2 in normal

c)

In normal operation by using the Radio Management Panel (RMP) 1 or 2 and the Navigation Aids (NAVAIDS)

d)

By the FMS, automatically only from the flight plan via the Navigation Aids (NAVAIDS) page of the FM (Flight Management) format.

90.

What is the true statement regarding the two DME independent systems the A400M has?

a)

Each system has one DME interrogator and one DME antenna which transmits the interrogation signal and one

b)

Each system has two DME interrogators and one DME antenna which transmits the interrogation signal and

c)

Each system has one DME interrogator and two DME antennas which both transmit the interrogation signal and

d)

Each system has one DME interrogator one DME antenna which transmits the interrogation signal and receives the station reply.

91.

How does the Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) identify and classify the possible threats of other aircrafts who penetrate on a volume around the TCAS aircraft?

a)

Proximate, Traffic Advisory, Resolution Advisory and Traffic Resolution.

b)

Proximate, Traffic Advisory and Resolution Advisory.

c)

Other, Proximate, Traffic Advisory and Resolution Advisory.

d)

Other, Proximate, Resolution Advisory and Traffic Resolution.

92.

With respect to Flight Guidance functions, how do the flight crew provide the selected Targets?

a)

With Inputs to the Flight Management Computers. (FMCs)

b)

Via the Sidesticks

c)

They are sent from the Multilmode Receivers (MMR)

d)

Via the Flight Control Unit (FCU)

93.

What component provides the interface between the Audio Management System (AMS) and each V/UHF Radio?

a)

Audio Electronic Unit Radio (AEU Radio)

b)

Audio Electronic Jack Box (JB)

c)

Wireless Audio Management Unit

d)

Antenna Control Unit (ACU)

94.

Other than the Audio Control Panel (ACP) Push To Talk (PTT), how else can a crewmember transmit on a radio?

a)

PTT switches located on the Side Sticks and Steering Hand Wheels.

b)

PTT switches located on the Side Sticks and Engine Throttle Levers

c)

PTT switches located on the Engine Throttle Levers and Steering Hand Wheels.

d)

PTT switches located on the Radio Management Panels (RMPs)

95.

How many Audio Control Panels (ACPs) are located in the cockpit?

a)

5

b)

2

c)

4

d)

3

96.

How are the Wireless Portable Units (WPUs) powered?

a)

They power on automatically when removed from their stowage

b)

Push and hold the PTT pushbutton on the WPU

c)

Press and hold the up and down pushbuttons on the WPU

d)

By selection using a dedicated switch on the Loadmaster Workstation

97.

When the Military Mission Management Systems 1 and 2 (MMMS 1+2) and the Communication Control Switch (COM CTRL) set to the BACK UP position, how is the communication means control carried out?

a)

Using the Radio Management Panels. (RMPs) and the Control Display System (CDS)

b)

Only by using the Control Display System (CDS)

c)

Only by using the Radio Management Panels (RMPs)

d)

The radios tune to 121.5 MHz automatically and there is no option to control the communications

98.

Regarding the Direction Finding subsystem (DF), where is the audio selection and volume control carried out?

a)

On the COM DF format page of the Control Display System (CDS)

b)

On the Radio Management Panels (RMPs)

c)

There is no audio associated to the DF subsystem.

d)

On the Audio Control Panels.(ACPs)

99.

Which is the correct statement regarding the equipment of the Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) components?

a)

Each system has one IFF Transponder connected to one top antenna and one bottom antenna.

b)

Each system has one IFF Transponder. IFF Transponder 1 is connected to only one top antenna.

c)

Each system has one IFF Transponder. IFF Transponder 1 is connected to only one bottom antenna.

d)

Each system has one IFF Transponder. IFF Transponder 1 is connected to two top antennas. IFF Transponder 2 is connected to only two bottom antennas.

100.

In case the aircraft is grounded for a long period of time, what we must ensure to accidental activation of the Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) and to maintain the charge of the G switch battery?

a)

The ELT G switch should be moved to OFF

b)

The ELT G switch should be in the ARM position

c)

The ELT XMTR sliding switch is in the TEST position

d)

The ELT RESET is pulled

101.

What is the power supply for Military Mission Management Computer (M-MMC1)?

a)

28VDC from SEPDC 1 (Secondary Electrical Power Distribution Center 1)

b)

115VAC from PEPDC 1 (Primary Electrical Power Distribution Center 1)

c)

28VDC from EEPDC (Emergency Electrical Power Distribution Center)

d)

115VAC from SEPDC 2 (Secondary Electrical Power Distribution Center 2)

102.

From where do we control the communication means when the Communication Control Switch is set to the BACK UP position?

a)

Through the Control DIsplay System (CDS)

b)

From the Audio Control Panels (ACPs)

c)

From the Loadmaster Workstation (LMWS)

d)

From the Radio Management Panel (RMP)

103.

Which system provide the Military Mission Management System (MMM-S) with wind speeds to perform the calculation for the Computed Aerial Release Point (CARP)?

a)

GADIRS (GPS Air Data Inertia Reference System)

b)

Multimode Receiver (MMR)

c)

Integrated Surveillance System (ISS)

d)

Flight Management System (FMS)

104.

Where is the Terrain Awarness and Warning System (TAWS) NORM/TACT toggle switch located?

a)

Surveillance Control Panel

b)

Flight Control Unit (FCU)

c)

DASS Control Panel

d)

Head-Up Display (HUD) Control Panel