wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Biology Intermediate Final Competition Quiz

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which type of cells do all sense organs contain?

a)

ciliated

b)

effectors

c)

mesophylls

d)

receptors

2.

The diagram shows a cell.

What type of cell is shown?

a)

ciliated cell

b)

motor neurone

c)

relay neurone

d)

sensory neurone

3.

A bright light suddenly shines into a person’s eyes.

What happens?

a)

The lenses become more concave.

b)

The lenses become more convex.

c)

The pupils become larger.

d)

The pupils become smaller.

4.

The diagram shows the human nervous system.

Which letter indicates a part of the central nervous system?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

5.

Which list describes the correct sequence of a simple reflex arc?

a)

A receptor, relay neurone, motor neurone, sensory neurone, effector

b)

B receptor, relay neurone, sensory neurone, motor neurone, effector

c)

C receptor, sensory neurone, motor neurone, relay neurone, effector

d)

D receptor, sensory neurone, relay neurone, motor neurone, effector

6.

The diagram shows a simple reflex arc.

Which labelled part is the sensory neurone?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

7.

How can we best describe a nerve impulse?

a)

An electrical signal that passes along nerve cells called neurones

b)

A chemical signal that is transferred to an electrical signal

c)

An electrical charge that travels in nerve endings

d)

Brain's response to an unfavourable change

8.

Which of the following are involuntary actions?


I Riding a bicycle

II Heart beat

III Blinking eye

IV Peristalsis

a)

I and II

b)

I and III

c)

II and IV

d)

III and IV

9.

Which statement about light receptors in the retina of a normal human eye is correct?

a)

The cones only work in dim light

b)

The rods are found in the fovea.

c)

There are three types of cones.

d)

There are three types of rod.

10.

What is the job of the optic nerve?

a)

To carry nerve impulses to the brain

b)

To convert light to electrical signal

c)

To react to too much light

d)

To help bending light

11.

What is the chemical used by a neuron to transmit an impulse across a synapse to another nerve cell?

a)

Neurotransmitters

b)

Synapse

c)

Threshold

d)

Impulse

12.

Which of the following are the external stimuli?

a)

Sugar level

b)

Light intensity

c)

Osmotic pressure of blood

d)

Cholesterol level

13.

Responses are carried out by organs or tissues known as

a)

Stimulus

b)

Responses

c)

Effectors

d)

Receptor

14.

What does the peripheral nervous system consist of?

a)

the brain and spinal cord

b)

the brain and nerves

c)

the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord

d)

the spinal cord only

15.

Letter B is the:

a)

Glomerulus

b)

nephron

c)

renal artery

d)

ureter

16.

In what region of the kidney does filtration take place?

a)

Medulla

b)

Cortex

c)

Pelvis

d)

Ureter

17.

What part of the urinary system is indicated by the arrow?

a)

ureter

b)

urethra

c)

bladder

d)

kidney

18.

Which artery supplies the kidney with oxygenated blood?

a)

Hepatic

b)

Coronary

c)

Renal

d)

Carotid

19.

Letter B is the:

a)

Glomerulus

b)

nephron

c)

renal artery

d)

ureter

20.

Urine flows down the ureters and into the (a)   , where it is stored.

21.

(a)   is removed from the blood by the kidneys. The kidneys also remove excess water and excess ions from the blood, and produce urine.

22.

The part containing the energy is kept, turned into carbohydrate and stored. The rest, which is the part that contains nitrogen, is turned into urea. This process is called _______.

a)

deamination

b)

homeostasis

c)

filtration

d)

excretion

23.

This figure shows part of the human excretory system. What is the structure numbered 6?

a)

bladder

b)

kidney

c)

urethra

d)

ureter

24.

This figure shows part of the human excretory system. What is the structure numbered 7?

a)

bladder

b)

kidney

c)

adrenal gland

d)

renal artery

25.

Which is a definition of homeostasis?

a)

the excretion of urea by the kidneys

b)

the maintenance of a constant internal environment

c)

the reduction of blood glucose concentration by insulin

d)

the removal of carbon dioxide from the lungs

26.

When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the secretion of ______ triggers the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration.

a)

insulin

b)

adrenalin

c)

glucagon

d)

oestrogen

27.

When bees fly from flower to flower what are they doing for the plant?

a)

Asexual reproduction

b)

Pollination

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Vasculation

28.

Bees help pollinate plants by picking up pollen. From Which part of the plant does the bee pick up pollen?

a)

stamen

b)

carpel

c)

petal

d)

sepal

29.

What is the main function, or job of the flower?

a)

to make seeds for new plants (reproduction)

b)

to help in the process of photosynthesis

c)

to make chlorophyll

30.

What is the the female reproductive part of a flower

a)

carpel

b)

stamen

c)

sepal

d)

petal

31.

The combining of egg and sperm in animals and plants is a type of asexual reproduction.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

A type of reproduction that only involves only one parent:

a)

Asexual Reproduction

b)

Sexual Reproduction

c)

Diverse

d)

Uniform

33.

When gametes are being made, cells divide in a different way, called _____.

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

pollination

d)

germination

34.

A cell or a nucleus that has two complete sets of chromosomes is said to be _____.

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

c)

gamete

d)

nucleus

35.

This is the structure of a simple (a)   .

36.

In some plants, it is the ___ which carries the pollen between flowers. This is a grass flower, which is an example of a ____-pollinated 风媒传粉 flower.

(a)  

37.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

A

1.

Stigma

b)

B

2.

Anther

c)

C

3.

petal

d)

D

4.

sepal

e)

E

5.

ovary

38.

Reorder the following for plant sexual reproduction:

a)

Pollen is dropped on the stigma

b)

pollen tubes begin to grow into the style

c)

male gamete fuses with the female gamete

d)

a zygote is formed

e)

The fruit and/or seed begins to grow

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
39.

Where do eggs form, this starts before a girl is born and when born a girl will have thousands of eggs that are partly developed?

a)

ovaries

b)

testes

c)

uterus

d)

fallopian tube

40.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

amniotic sac

1.

is a strong membrane that surrounds the fetus

b)

umbilical cord

2.

transports blood to and from the fetus and the placenta

c)

fetus

3.

when an embryo has developed most of its organs.

d)

placenta

4.

where substances are exchanged between the mother's blood and the embryo's blood.

e)

implantation

5.

when the embryo sinks into the thick spongy lining of the uterus

41.

What area of the testis are sperm made?

a)

ovaries

b)

tubules

c)

epididymus

d)

fallopian tubes

42.

Place these in the proper order:

a)

ovulation

b)

egg meets sperm in the oviduct

c)

slowly zygote travels towards the uterus

d)

implantation occurs

e)

embryo and placenta grow

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
43.

Choose the proper definition of zygote:

a)

When the sperm and the egg nucleus have fused together.

b)

when the egg leaves the ovary

c)

when the sperm leaves the testis

d)

when the embryo starts forming the placenta

44.

Place in the proper order of the fertilisation process:

a)

sperm cell contacts jelly coat surrounding the egg cell

b)

acrosome is activated

c)

digestive enzymes released and jelly coat is digested.

d)

Head of sperm pushes through to cytoplasm of egg

e)

nucleus of sperm fuses with nucleus of egg.

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
45.

How long does the multi-step process of fetilization take to complete:

a)

about 1 hour

b)

about 7 days

c)

about 24 hours

d)

about 9 months

46.

The liquid that surrounds the growing fetus is called:

a)

amniotic fluid

b)

semen

c)

umbilical cord

d)

morula

47.

The gland that produces a fluid called semen:

a)

prostate gland

b)

cervix

c)

bladder

d)

testis

48.

Eggs can move using the flagellum an adaptation to help them swim.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

A ​ (a)   is a thread-like structure made up of ​ (b)   . ​ (c)   are found in the ​ (d)   of each cell.

Choose from the below words

chromosome

DNA

Chromosomes

nucleus

50.

A part of a DNA molecule with the instructions for making one kind of protein is called a (a)   .

51.

Match the following

a)

A complex molecule containing the genetic information that makes up the chromosomes.

1.

DNA

b)

A single-stranded nucleic acid that contains the sugar ribose

2.

RNA

c)

In (genetics) an organism or cell having two sets of chromosomes or twice the haploid number

3.

Diploid

d)

In (genetics) an organism or cell having only one complete set of chromosomes

4.

Haploid

e)

two identical chromosomes that split and contain the same genetic material

5.

Chromatids

52.

​ (a)   produces new ​ (b)   to make the body grow ​ (c)   , or to ​ (d)   damaged cells.

Choose from the below words

Mitosis

cells

larger

replace

53.

Which sex chromosomes are found in the gametes of a man?

a)

X or Y

b)

X only

c)

Y only

d)

none

54.

Click on the area where you are expected to find DNA.

55.

What do you inherit genes from?

a)

Your parents

b)

The food you eat

c)

Your brothers and sisters

d)

The activities you do

56.

A part of a ​ (a)   molecule with the ​ (b)   for making one kind of ​ (c)   is called a ​ (d)  

Choose from the below words

DNA

instructions

protein

gene

57.

What are the different forms of a gene called?

a)

chromatid

b)

centromere

c)

allele

d)

diploid

58.
Question Image

Please match the nembers in the picture to the phases of mitosis.

a)

1

1.

interphase

b)

2

2.

prophase

c)

3

3.

metaphase

d)

4

4.

anaphase

e)

5

5.

telophase & cytokenisis

59.

Human ​ (a)   are formed by the ​ (b)   of cells in the ovaries and ​ (c)   . The cells divide by a special type of cell division called ​ (d)   (reduction division)

Choose from the below words
gametes
division
testes
meiosis
60.

If a person has 2 different alleles for a gene, they are ​ ​ (a)   , but if they have 2 of the same alleles, they are ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
heterozygous
homozygous
61.

T - tall and t = short

In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square

a)

tt

b)

Tt

c)

Bb

d)

TT

62.

The physical appearance of a trait is known as the-

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

Homozygous

d)

intelligence

63.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
64.
What is a recessive allele?
a)
A trait that is always shown (capital letter)
b)
A trait that can be hidden (lower case letter)
c)
Alleles that are the same
d)
Alleles that are different
65.
What is a dominant allele?
a)
A trait that is always shown (capital letter)
b)
A trait that can be hidden (lower case letter)
c)
Alleles that are the same
d)
Alleles that are different
66.
Which combination is Homozygous Dominant
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
hH
67.
Meiosis produces cells with a haploid or diploid number of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
68.

Match the following nucleotide bases the way they form base pairs:

a)

Adenine

1.

Thymine

b)

Cytosine

2.

Guanine

c)

Thymine

3.

Adenine

d)

Guanine

4.

Cytosine

69.

A segment of DNA that codes for a protein is a _______________________.

a)

Genes

b)

Alleles

c)

Traits

d)

Chromosomes

70.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
71.

What is translation?

a)

the process in which DNA is copied to make another molecule of DNA

b)

the process in which DNA is coded into mRNA

c)

the process in which mRNA is decoded into a protein

d)

the process in which enzymes break down mRNA

72.

Organisms with traits that are best suited for their environments are likely to have a greater chance for survival. These helpful traits, which arise due to genetic mutations, are known as _____________________.

a)

Mutation

b)

Adaptations

c)

Natural Selection

d)

Evolution

73.

In 1859, Charles Darwin proposed a theory based on the concept of natural selection. His theory explains the evidence of the gradual changes of all organisms over millions of years. This theory is known as the Theory of __________________.

a)

Mutation

b)

Adaptations

c)

Natural Selection

d)

Evolution

74.

Any change in the sequence of DNA is a

a)

recombination

b)

mutation

c)

chromatin

d)

independent assortment

75.
Which of the following is an example of a physical trait , or structural adaptation?
a)

a long neck of a giraffe

b)

building a nest

c)

regulation of body functions

d)

production of a toxic substance

76.
Most adaptations that help an organism survive are passed on from parent to child as ___traits?
a)

adaptable

b)

physical

c)

more

d)

inherited

77.
Almost all populations have some variation.
a)

true

b)

false

78.

__________________ is when human breed plants or animals to get specific traits. ex. Dogs

a)

artificial selection

b)

natural selection

c)

biological selection

79.

Process of humans breeding animals or plants with desired traits

a)

Environmental Variation

b)

Selective Breeding

c)

Adaptive Feature

d)

Genetic Engineering

80.

Natural selection is known as "​ (a)   " is a popular term that refers to the process of natural selection, a mechanism that drives evolutionary ​ (b)   . Natural selection works by giving individuals who are better ​ (c)   to a given set of ​ (d)   an advantage over those that are not as well adapted.

Choose from the below words
Survival of the fittest
change
adapted
environmental conditions
81.

The following image are examples of ________________.

a)

Mutagens

b)

Mutaitons

c)

Chromosomes

d)

Germ Cells

82.

​ (a)   is an example of ​ (b)   while ​ (c)   is an example of ​ (d)   variation. Discontinuous variation is almost always caused only by ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
Height
continuous variation
tongue rolling
discontinuous
genes
83.

Which statement best describes the comparison of lake and ocean environments?

a)

The lake and ocean environments support the same organisms because they are both water and are made up of the same elements.

b)

The lake and ocean environments support different organisms because most freshwater organisms cannot live in saltwater.

c)

The lake and ocean environments support the same organisms, but they will look different because of the type of water.

d)

The lake and ocean environments support different organisms because ocean organisms are blocked by land from getting into lakes.

84.

Which is a biotic component of environment?

a)

Plants

b)

Animals

c)

Microorganisms

d)

All of these

85.

Soil, water and air are ……………… components of a habitat.

a)

Biotic

b)

Solid

c)

Abiotic

d)

Liquid

86.
Which organisms in a prairie ecosystem are producers?
a)
prairie dogs, rabbits, and mice
b)
hawks, owls, and snakes
c)
grass and bushes
d)
All of the organisms are producers.
87.

All strategies and adaptations a species uses for survival?

a)

mutualism

b)

biotic factors

c)

habitat

d)

niche

e)

parasitism

88.

Grizzly Bears that live in the same forest at the same time form a(n) ___________.

a)

Population

b)

Ecosystem

c)

Community

d)

Habitat

89.

A flood destroys almost all of the animals' homes in a nearby forest, forcing many animals to live in a smaller area or to move somewhere else entirely. Since the flood, which basic need is probably NOT being met by the forest habitat?

a)

The need for air.

b)

The need to reproduce.

c)

The need for water.

d)

The need for shelter.

90.

A network or web of feeding interactions, through which both energy and matter move is known as

a)

a biomass pyramid

b)

a food chain

c)

a food web

d)

a numbers pyramid

91.

Examples of decomposers and diritivores are (more than one answer)

a)

earthworms

b)

dung beetles

c)

fungi

d)

bacteria

92.

Each step in a food chain or food web is called

a)

a trophic level

b)

an upper level

c)

a lower level

d)

the green level

93.

In a pyramid of energy each trophic level gains only about ___________ of the energy from the source that it consumes.

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

94.

At what population was carrying capacity met?

a)

250

b)

1000

c)

400

d)

720

95.

Factors that affect population size:

INCREASE: Number of ___________ & ____________


(Choose 2 answers)

a)

Birth

b)

Death

c)

Immigration

d)

Emigration

96.

Nitrogen fixation...

a)

animals eat the plants and other animals that contain nitrogen and release it through their waste

b)

Bacteria in the soil and lightning in the atmosphere “fix” the nitrogen

c)

Once in the ground, bacteria in the soil also nitrify the nitrogen

d)

plants absorb nitrogen through their roots and return it back to the atmosphere

97.
Which of the following add carbon dioxide to the atmosphere?
a)

volcanoes

b)

combustion of fossil fuels

c)

animal and plant respiration

d)

all of these

98.

The number of different species in an area is referred to as its

a)

niche diversity

b)

climate

c)

habitat fragmentation

d)

biodiversity

99.

If all members of a species disappear from Earth, the species is said to be

a)

extinct

b)

endangered

c)

threatened

d)

keystone

100.

What is the name for the trapping of heat by gases in the atmosphere.

a)

gas shield

b)

ecological footprints

c)

carbon footprint

d)

greenhouse effect

101.

Eutrophication is

a)

too few nutrients in a body of water.

b)

too many nutrients in a body of water.

c)

high acid levels in a body of water.

d)

high alkalinity levels in a body of water.

102.

This is the practice of choosing individuals of a species to mate based on their desirable characteristics

a)

Bacterial recombination

b)

Natural selection

c)

Genetic modification

d)

Selective breeding

103.

Which of these is the correct definition of genetic modification/genetic engineering?

a)

Choosing individuals to mate based on desired characteristics

b)

Observing genetic changes in populations over time based on adaptive traits

c)

Extracting stem cells to differentiate into specialized tissues

d)

Altering the DNA of an organism at the molecular level

104.
The process of changing the genetic material of a living organism 
a)
Genetic Modification
b)
Taxonomy
c)
Adapting
d)
Bioremediation
105.

What is a monoculture?

a)

a section of land where one species grows

b)

a section of land where two species grow

c)

a section of land where 6 species grow

d)

a section of land where 15 species grow

106.

A fuel formed from living organisms such as plants & animals.

a)

Fossil Fuel

b)

Bio Fuel

c)

Eco Fuel

d)

Plant Fuel

107.

What is an institutions that preserve seed types as a kind of living museum of genetic diversity?

a)

seed bank

b)

genetic storehouse

c)

captive breeding

d)

Botanical Garden

108.

Which are most closely related to biotechnology?

a)

medicine and agriculture

b)

construction and engineering

c)

electricity generation

d)

communication and information technology

109.

Which best describes a controversial issue associated with the use of genetically modified crops?

a)

the use of genetically modified crops to increase potential yield

b)

the short term use of genetically modified crops in helping people in developing countries

c)

the development of genetically modified crops which are resistant to herbicides

d)

the long term effects which may arise from the use of genetically modified crops

110.

Which of the following is the process of using technology to create or change the DNA of living things?

a)

Genetic modification

b)

Machinery

c)

Pest resistant crops

d)

Transpiration

111.

Which of these is not a way in which biotechnology can benefit agriculture?

a)

increase crop population

b)

reducing the loss of crops due to insects

c)

producing better-tasting food

d)

improving farm machinery

112.

Which of these is a type of genetic modification?

a)

Pure breeding

b)

Kidney Surgery

c)

Gene inserting

d)

Use of herbicides

113.

Step 1: The process begins by identifying the part of ​ (a)   – the gene – that codes for the production of a desired ​ (b)   . Enzymes called ​ (c)   are used to cut the DNA on either side of the ​ (d)   . These enzymes cut DNA molecules at particular points. They leave short lengths of unpaired bases at either end of the cut DNA, called ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
DNA
protein
restriction enzymes
gene
sticky ends
114.

Step 2: Next, ​ (a)   are removed from ​ (b)   . The ring of DNA in the plasmid is cut, using the same ​ (c)   that were used for cutting the human DNA. The reason for using the same restriction enzyme is so that the ​ (d)   on the plasmid DNA are complementary to the sticky ends that were left on the ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
plasmids
bacteria
restriction enzymes
sticky ends
human DNA
115.

Step 3:

The human ​ (a)   and the cut plasmids are now mixed together. The sticky ends on the human DNA pair up with the complementary sticky ends on the plasmid DNA. Another ​ (b)   , called ​ (c)   DNA 连接酶, links the two strands firmly together, closing the ​ (d)   . Now we have bacterial plasmids that contain the human gene. They are called ​ (e)   重组质粒.


Choose from the below words
DNA
enzyme
DNA ligase
plasmid loop
recombinant plasmids
116.

Step 4:

Next, these ​ (a)   are added back to the ​ (b)   . These are now genetically modified bacteria because they contain ​ (c)   as well as their own. The GM bacteria are put into ​ (d)   , where they reproduce asexually to form large populations. They express the gene for the human protein – that is, they use the code on the human DNA to make the ​ (e)   , which can be extracted from the fermenters and purified.


Choose from the below words
genetically modified plasmids
bacteria
human DNA
fermenters
human protein
117.

Which of the following is true for Golden rice?

a)

It has yellow grains, because it was soaked in yellow dye

b)

It is Vitamin A enriched, with can help prevent child blindness

c)

It is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis

d)

It is drought tolerant, developed using Agrobacterium vector