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Bracket III: Earth Science

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main agent of erosion on Earth’s surface?

a)

Wind

b)

Waves

c)

Running water

d)

Gravity

2.

Age of Earth

a)

7.6 billion years

b)

4.6 billion years

c)

6.6 billion years

d)

6.5 billion years

3.

Which is the correct order of geologic time? largest - smallest

a)

eras, epochs, eons, periods

b)

eons, eras, periods, epochs

c)

epochs, eons, periods, eras

4.

The age of marine life.

a)

paleozoic

b)

mesozoic

c)

cenozoic

5.

The Age of Mammals

a)

Cenozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Paleozoic

6.
The Triassic Period, the Jurassic Period, and the Cretaceous Period occurred in what era?
a)
Cenozoic
b)
Mesozoic
7.
Eras are subdivided into units of geologic time called periods.
a)
True
b)
False
8.

In which time period are we currently living?

a)

Precambrian Time

b)

Paleozoic Era

c)

Mesozoic Era

d)

Cenozoic Era

9.

In what time period did Pangaea, the super continent, appear?

a)

Precambrian

b)

Paleozoic

c)

Mesozoic

d)

Cenozoic

10.

Dinosaurs, small mammals, and birds are found in this time period.

a)

Precambrian

b)

Paleozoic

c)

Mesozoic

d)

Cenozoic

11.

The end of an era, and the end of life for groups of organisms, is called?

a)

Death

b)

Mass extinction

c)

Transition

d)

Turning point

12.

The Age of Fishes

a)

Devonian Period

b)

Cambrian Period

c)

Vendian Period

d)

Silurian Period

13.

Age of Soft Bodied Animals

a)

Vendian Period

b)

Ordovician Period

c)

Cambrian Period

d)

Silurian Period

14.

A scientist who studies fossil remains in order to study primitive life forms.

a)

Ecologist

b)

Geologist

c)

Zoologist

d)

Palentologist

15.

During this period Earth was flowing with lava, the core was unstable, and was the first Era of the Precambrian Eon.

a)

Paleozoic

b)

Hadean

c)

Archean

d)

Cenozoic

16.
Which era is the longest?
a)
Cenozoic
b)
Cambrian
c)
Precambrian
d)
Phanerozoic
17.

Which era began with the early invertebrates, such as trilobites and brachiopods.

a)

Paleozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Cenozoic

18.

Mountains are created at this type of  boundary.

a)

Divergent 

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform 

19.

Which of these explains that Earth's outer layer is broken into large slowly moving pieces? 

a)

Plate Tectonic Theory

b)

Continental Drift 

20.

How do scientists determine the absolute ages of rocks using radioactive isotopes?

a)

By analyzing the percentages of radioactive isotopes and daughter isotopes

b)

By measuring the thickness of the rock layers

c)

By studying the color of the rock

d)

By counting the number of fossils in the rock

21.

What are the two techniques used to determine the age of Earth and the rocks on its surface?

a)

Fossil dating and tree ring dating

b)

Luminescence dating and thermoluminescence dating

c)

Carbon dating and potassium-argon dating

d)

Absolute and relative dating

22.

What principle allows scientists to compare the age of one rock or fossil to another?

a)

Principle of superposition

b)

Principle of inclusions

c)

Principle of original horizontality

d)

Principle of cross-cutting relationships

23.

What method of dating rock is used to determine the age of Earth?

a)

Carbon dating

b)

Potassium-argon dating

c)

Radiometric dating

d)

Luminescence dating

24.

What type of rock provides evidence of the environment that it once formed in?

a)

Igneous rock

b)

Metamorphic rock

c)

Volcanic rock

d)

Sedimentary rock

25.

What do ice cores give a history of?

a)

History of tectonic plate movement

b)

History of volcanic eruptions

c)

History of meteorite impacts

d)

History of Earth's climate over time

26.

Which process is responsible for the formation of the Himalayan mountain range?

a)

Divergent boundary movement

b)

Convergent boundary movement

c)

Transform boundary movement

d)

Volcanic activity

27.

What is the primary method used to determine the age of fossils?

a)

Carbon dating

b)

Potassium-argon dating

c)

Radiometric dating

d)

Thermoluminescence dating

28.

What do mud cracks and ripple marks in sedimentary rock provide evidence of?

a)

Evidence of ancient climate and environment

b)

Evidence of glacial movement

c)

Evidence of volcanic activity

d)

Evidence of meteorite impacts

29.

What do regular layers in ice cores, called bands, show?

a)

Band size shows the amount of precipitation over time

b)

Band size shows the amount of volcanic ash in the atmosphere

c)

Band size shows the amount of tectonic plate movement over time

d)

Band size shows the amount of meteorite impacts over time

30.

If no elevation values are given on a map, which general rule could be used to establish that a river flows into a nearby body of water?

a)

rivers always flow toward large bodies of water

b)

a large body of water is generally the source of water for a river

c)

rivers shown on maps generally flow southward

d)

contour lines bend upstream when crossing a river

31.

What is the contour interval on this map?

a)

10

b)

50

c)

100

d)

500

32.

If sea level always equals (0), and the contour interval is 10 feet how tall is this mountain?

a)

30 ft

b)

40 ft

c)

50 ft

d)

60 ft

33.

Which side of the hill is steepest?

ASSUME: North is top, South is bottom, West is left, & East is right

a)

North side

b)

South side

c)

West side

d)

East side

34.

Match the topographic map to its topographic profile picture.

a)
b)
c)
d)
35.

How many individual peaks are seen on the map? (hill tops)

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

36.

What are the darker lines on the topographic map called?

a)

roads

b)

index contours

c)

contour intervals

d)

isotherms

37.

If we were in a plane above this map, we can see that Path B --> C is about the same distance as path E --> N. But, which path is the easier walk?

a)

B --> C is the easier walk

b)

E --> N is the easier walk

c)

B --> C and E --> N are the same walking distance

d)

the are of equal difficulty

38.

The height above sea level is called . . .

a)

topographic

b)

contour

c)

elevation

d)

depth

39.
In which direction is Bird Creek flowing?
a)
West
b)
North
c)
South
d)
East
40.

Which rule could be used to determine the direction of river flow on a map?

a)

The river flows into the V shape.

b)

A large body of water is generally the source of water for a river

c)

Rivers shown on maps generally flow southward

d)

The river flows out of the V shape.

41.

What direction is Hammer Stream flowing?

a)

Northwest

b)

Southwest

c)

Northeast

d)

Southeast

42.

Which side of the hill is steepest?

a)

North

b)

South

c)

West

d)

East

43.

In which direction is Deer River flowing?

a)
West
b)
North
c)
South
d)
East
44.

Which part of the map has the highest elevation?

a)

Northwest

b)

Northeast

c)

Southwest

d)

Southeast

45.

What is the gradient between points B and D if the distance between those two points is 2 km?

a)

25 m/km

b)

50 m/km

c)

75 m/km

d)

100 m/km

46.

Match the topographic map to its profile.

a)
b)
c)
d)
47.

How can we tell the northeast corner of the map is relatively flat?

a)

There are many contour lines in this area

b)

There is a river in this area

c)

The contour line labeled 300 m

d)

There are very few contour lines

48.

What is the highest possible elevation of Rock Mountain?

a)

1599 ft

b)

1600 ft

c)

1601 ft

d)

1699 ft

49.

What is the gradient if the stream begins at an elevation of 2000 m and ends at 1000 km over a distance of 50 km?

a)

5 m/km

b)

10 m/km

c)

15 m/km

d)

20 m/km

50.

A small elevated landform that rises from the great depths of the ocean

a)

Seamount

b)

Ocean Floor

c)

Abyssal Hill

d)

Guyot

51.

A large submerged volcanic mountain rising from the ocean floor

a)

Seamount

b)

Ocean Floor

c)

Abyssal Hill

d)

Guyot

52.

A submerged volcanic mountain with a flat top

a)

Seamount

b)

Ocean Floor

c)

Abyssal Hill

d)

Guyot

53.

Long narrow, steep-sided depressions found on the ocean floor

a)

Ocean floor

b)

Ocean trench

c)

Continental rise

d)

Continental slope

54.

A shallow, gently sloping part of the continental crust

a)

Seamount

b)

Continental rise

c)

Continental shelf

d)

Continental slope

55.

A seafloor mountain system formed by plate tectonics.

a)

Ocean trenches

b)

Continental rise

c)

Continental Shelf

d)

Mid-ocean ridges

56.

Formed by emerging accumulated deposits at the mounts of many submarine canyons

a)

Ocean trenches

b)

Continental rise

c)

Continental Shelf

d)

Mid-ocean ridges

57.

Sonar is the most accurate way used to map

a)

the ocean floor

b)

sea level

c)

the moons of Jupiter

d)

the Grand Canyon

58.

This sediment consists of shells and skeletons of marine organisms.

a)

biogenous

b)

hydrogenous

c)

lithogenous

d)

terrigenous

59.

Moving crustal plates plunging back into Earth's mantle causes this feature

a)

deep-ocean trench

b)

turbidity currents

c)

continental rise

d)

submarine canyon

60.

A characteristic of hydrothermal vents is that

a)

there isn't any sunlight there

b)

no life exists there

c)

it is made up of only salt water

d)

it is hydrogenous

61.

Large reservoirs of petroleum and natural gas can be found here

a)

continental shelves

b)

mid-ocean trenches

c)

abyssal plains

d)

coastal plains

62.

These plains are the most level places on Earth.

a)

abyssal plains

b)

coastal plains

c)

continental plains

d)

ocean plains

63.

What is the downslope movements of dense, sediment-laden water

a)

turbidity currents

b)

shelf currents

c)

mid-ocean ridges

d)

atolls

64.

Which condition is NOT needed for growth of coral

a)

cold water

b)

clear water

c)

warm water

d)

sunlight

65.
the ratio of the mass of a substance to the volume of the substance
a)
salinity
b)
profit
c)
density
d)
weight
66.

What factors influence a region's photosynthetic productivity?

I. availability of nutrients

II. amount of solar radiation

III. distance from the shore

a)

I &II

b)

I & III

c)

II & III

d)

I, II, & III

67.

What do you call each of the feeding stages in a food chain?

a)

trophic level

b)

morphic level

c)

transverse level

d)

converse level

68.

What classification of the marine organism is capable of moving independently of the ocean currents?

I. Plankton

II. Nekton

III. Benthos

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

I, II & III

69.

Decreasing ocean temperature causes the density of the water to __.

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

c)

Stay the same

d)

Not affected at all

70.

What do you call the proportion of dissolved salts to pure water?

a)

Salinity

b)

Temperature

c)

Density

d)

Viscosity

71.
a layer in a body of water in which water temperature drops with increased depth faster than it does in other areas
a)
thermocline
b)
incline
c)
saline
d)
decline
72.
In the benthic zone of the ocean, you would most likely find   
a)
dolphins
b)
whales
c)
swordfish
d)
starfish
73.
Which of the following sea life is an example of nekton?
a)
oysters
b)
cod
c)
plankton
d)
sea stars
74.
Which of the following sea life is an example of benthos?
a)
plankton
b)
dolphins
c)
squid
d)
crabs
75.
The sunlight zone is also known as the __________________________ zone.
a)
hot
b)
bright
c)
happy
d)
euphotic
76.
Sunlight allows ________________ to occur in the sunlight zone.
a)
bioluminesence
b)
transpiration
c)
photosynthesis
d)
voting
77.
What are the two zones that distinguish between photosynthesis and chemo-synthesis? 
a)
aphotic and photic
b)
neritic and oceanic
c)
abyssal and midnight
d)
sunlight and twilight 
78.
This is the zone where the water is constantly changing. 
a)
Neritic 
b)
Intertidal
c)
Oceanic
d)
Abyssal
79.
This is the zone between the tides and the deepest part of the ocean. Where the continental shelf begins. 
a)
Neritic
b)
Oceanic
c)
Sunlight
d)
Intertidal
80.

MOST sealife lives in the:

a)

Photic zone

b)

Twilight zone

c)

Midnight zone

d)

Deep zone

81.

If there is an increase in precipitation over an ocean, how is the salinity of the seawater affected?

a)

It stays the same.

b)

It increases.

c)

It decreases.

d)

There is no relationship between salinity and precipitation.

82.

An excess of_____________ makes water ______________with a pH greater than 7.

a)

-OH, basic

b)

basic, -OH

c)

H+, acidic

d)

acidic, H+

83.

As water goes from 4°C toward its freezing point (cooling down), the molecules of water____________energy

a)

gain

b)

lose

84.

As water goes from 4°C toward its freezing point, the molecules of water lose energy, but, rather than

_______________ , they actually start to

_______________

.

a)

contract, expand

b)

gain, expand

c)

contract, gain

85.

In a water molecule, the hydrogen atoms are slightly

a)

positive

b)

negative

86.

In a water molecule,oxygen atom is slightly _________ charged

a)

positive

b)

negative

87.

Water has a high heat capacity. What does this mean?

a)

It means that, with the addition of heat energy, water will boil once it reaches a temperature of 100°C

b)

It means that water will freeze, changing phase from a liquid to a solid, upon reaching a temperature of 0°C.

c)

It means that water is able to absorb a significant amount of heat without a drastic increase in temperature

d)

It means that water will rapidly increase in temperature with the addition of heat energy

88.

The ability of water molecules to "stick” together is known as

a)

cohesion

b)

adhesion

c)

capillary action

89.

while the ability of water to "stick" to everything else is known as

a)

cohesion

b)

adhesion

90.

Which of the following is the CORRECT list of water's properties?

Read Carefully!

a)

adhesion, cohesion, high specific heat, universal solvent

b)

adhesion, cohesion, low specific heat, universal solvent

c)

adhesion, no cohesion, low specific heat, universal solute

d)

no adhesion, cohesion, high specific heat, universal solute

91.

What is a structure built parallel to the shore that shields the coast from breaking waves?

a)

rio

b)

tombolo

c)

seawall

d)

groin

92.

What causes density currents to form in the Mediterranean Sea?

a)

upwelling

b)

evaporation

c)

condensation

d)

transpiration

93.

Longshore currents move the sediment as they

a)

run along the ocean bottom

b)

move parallel to the shore

c)

flow in circular patterns in ocean basins

d)

pound against coastal headlands

94.

Which of the following is NOT a depositional shoreline feature?

a)

wave-cut platform

b)

tombolo

c)

barrier island

d)

spit

95.

Barrier islands form as the direct result of

a)

abrasion

b)

deposition

c)

precipitation

d)

erosion

96.

How does refraction cause wave crests to move when the waves approach the shore?

a)

about 80 degrees in relation to the shore

b)

nearly parallel to the shore

c)

about 45 degrees in relation to the shore

d)

towards El Monte, California

97.

The rising of the cold water from deep layers of the ocean to replace warmer surface water is

a)

welling

b)

downwelling

c)

side welling

d)

upwelling

98.

The Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Current bring _________________ water north from the tropics and help moderate the climate of Great Britain and northwestern ___________________.

a)

cold, California

b)

horchata, Sinaloa

c)

hot, Asia

d)

warm, Europe

99.

The tops of waves are their __________________, which are separated by low areas called _____________________.

a)

wavelengths, gyres

b)

toughs, roughs

c)

crests, troughs

d)

Crest, Colgate

100.

The tidal ______ is the difference in height between successive high and low tides

a)

range

b)

height

c)

wave

d)

shore

101.

A(n) _________ is a ridge of sand that connects an island to the mainland or another island

a)

tombolo

b)

groin

c)

neap

d)

crests

102.

Beach _______ is the addition of large amounts of sand to a beach system to stabilize shoreline sands without building protective structures.

a)

atmosphere

b)

upwelling

c)

nourishment

d)

turbulence

103.

A(n) _______ is a structure built at right angles to the shore to trap sand moving parallel to the shore to maintain beaches

a)

current

b)

neap

c)

crest

d)

groin

104.

As a wave nears the shore, its characteristics begin to change when the water depth is half of its ______

a)

current

b)

wavelength

c)

shore

d)

wave