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Stars, Fusion, Spectroscopy, Electromagnetic Spectrum Review

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 3585secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which observation most directly supports that the universe is expanding?

a)

Changing phases of Venus

b)

Parallax of nearby stars

c)

Redshift of distant galaxy spectra

d)

Seasonal constellations

2.

The Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) is best described as:

a)

Radio noise from the Sun

b)

Leftover radiation from the hot early universe

c)

Light from star-forming nebulae

d)

X-rays from supernova remnants

3.

According to Hubble’s Law, galaxies that are farther away from Earth:

a)

Move toward us faster

b)

Move away faster

c)

Do not move at all

d)

Move randomly

4.

Which instrument is used to measure redshift in galaxy light?

a)

Seismograph

b)

Spectrometer

c)

Barometer

d)

Calorimeter

5.

A blueshift in a star’s spectral lines indicates the star is:

a)

Rotating rapidly

b)

Moving away from Earth

c)

Approaching Earth

d)

Not emitting visible light

6.

Which combination of evidence supports the Big Bang Theory?

a)

Plate tectonics + tides

b)

Sunspots + auroras

c)

Redshift + CMB + Hubble’s Law

d)

Parallax + eclipses

7.

On the H–R diagram, main sequence stars show that as temperature increases, luminosity:

a)

Decreases

b)

Stays the same

c)

Increases

d)

Becomes unpredictable

8.

A star’s color indicates its:

a)

Density

b)

Surface temperature

c)

Distance from Earth

d)

Rotation rate

9.

Which statement about blue main sequence stars is accurate?

a)

They are cool and long-lived

b)

They are hot, very luminous, and short-lived

c)

They are cool and dim

d)

They always become white dwarfs

10.

Red giants are typically:

a)

Hot and dim

b)

Cool but very luminous

c)

Hot and very dim

d)

The smallest stars

11.

Which property most strongly determines a star’s lifespan?

a)

Apparent magnitude

b)

Mass

c)

Distance

d)

Shape

12.

The Sun’s most likely life cycle is:

a)

Main sequence → red giant → white dwarf

b)

Main sequence → supernova → neutron star

c)

Protostar → black hole

d)

White dwarf → red giant

13.

In stellar cores, nuclear fusion primarily:

a)

Splits heavy nuclei apart

b)

Converts hydrogen into helium

c)

Converts iron into nickel

d)

Produces electricity directly

14.

Why does fusion stop at iron in massive stars?

a)

Iron is too cold to fuse

b)

Iron fusion requires more energy than it releases

c)

Iron is not found in stars

d)

Iron is repelled by gravity

15.

Elements heavier than iron (e.g., gold, uranium) are mostly formed during:

a)

Planetary nebula ejections

b)

Supernova explosions

c)

Main sequence hydrogen burning

d)

Comet impacts

16.

What is the best evidence that stars contain specific elements?

a)

Planetary alignment

b)

Unique absorption/emission spectral lines

c)

Star color alone

d)

Star count in a cluster

17.

The Doppler effect applied to starlight allows astronomers to determine a star’s:

a)

Radius exactly

b)

Rotation axis direction

c)

Motion toward or away from Earth

d)

Absolute age

18.

Which statement about absorption spectra is correct?

a)

They show bright lines from hot, thin gas

b)

They show dark lines where specific wavelengths are removed

c)

They contain no information about composition

d)

They only occur in X-rays

19.

An emission spectrum is produced when:

a)

A solid emits all wavelengths

b)

Hot, thin gas emits light at specific wavelengths

c)

A cooler gas sits in front of a star

d)

Light is completely blocked

20.

Which wavelength band is mostly blocked by Earth’s atmosphere and requires space telescopes?

a)

Visible

b)

Radio

c)

Ultraviolet

d)

Some microwaves

21.

X-ray astronomy is usually conducted from space because:

a)

X-rays are too dim at night

b)

X-rays are absorbed by the atmosphere

c)

X-rays damage ground mirrors

d)

X-rays come only from the Moon

22.

A star shows hydrogen and calcium absorption lines shifted to longer wavelengths. What can be concluded?

a)

The star is approaching Earth

b)

The star is moving away from Earth

c)

The star is stationary

d)

The star’s elements are unknown

23.

Which tool directly separates starlight into its component wavelengths?

a)

Photometer

b)

Spectroscope

c)

Hygrometer

d)

Magnetometer

24.

A larger redshift in a galaxy’s spectrum generally implies:

a)

Smaller distance

b)

Greater recessional velocity

c)

Lower mass

d)

Older stars

25.

Which observation best indicates a galaxy is twice as far as another (Hubble’s Law)?

a)

Half the redshift

b)

Twice the redshift

c)

Twice the angular size

d)

Same radial velocity

26.

Energy from the Sun reaches Earth primarily as:

a)

Sound waves

b)

Electromagnetic radiation

c)

Seismic waves

d)

Neutrino beams only

27.

Which statement about spectral “fingerprints” is true?

a)

Different elements can share all the same lines

b)

Each element has a unique set of lines

c)

Lines appear only in visible light

d)

Lines cannot reveal temperature

28.

Which process explains energy release during hydrogen fusion?

a)

Mass converts to energy via E=mc²

b)

Electrons combine with photons

c)

Atoms gain mass from heat

d)

Gravity creates electricity

29.

Which sequence correctly shows nucleosynthesis in massive stars before core collapse?

a)

He → H → C/O → Fe

b)

H → He → C/O → Fe

c)

H → Fe → He → C

d)

Fe → Ni → H → He

30.

After a supernova, the compact remnant could be:

a)

White dwarf only

b)

Neutron star or black hole

c)

Protostar

d)

Blue supergiant

31.

Why are heavy elements found in rocky planets like Earth?

a)

Made in Earth’s mantle

b)

Created in solar flares

c)

Synthesized in supernovae and recycled into forming systems

d)

Condensed directly from hydrogen gas

32.

Which statement about the EM spectrum is correct?

a)

All wavelengths penetrate the atmosphere equally

b)

Visible and some radio penetrate well; many IR/UV/X-ray do not

c)

Only infrared reaches the ground

d)

Only gamma rays reach the ground

33.

A star’s peak emission shifts toward shorter wavelengths. What does this indicate?

a)

The star cooled

b)

The star heated up

c)

The star moved farther away

d)

The star changed composition

34.

Compared to the Sun, Barnard’s Star most likely has:

a)

Lower mass and longer lifespan

b)

Higher mass and shorter lifespan

c)

Same mass, hotter temperature

d)

Same luminosity

35.

During the red giant phase of a Sun-like star, luminosity increases mainly because:

a)

Core temperature falls

b)

Radius increases greatly

c)

Mass increases

d)

Rotation stops

36.

Which H–R placement is most accurate for a white dwarf?

a)

Upper left

b)

Lower left

c)

Upper right

d)

Mid main sequence

37.

Which observation confirms a star’s chemical composition?

a)

Its apparent magnitude

b)

Its unique spectral line pattern

c)

Its proper motion

d)

Its parallax angle

38.

Two stars have identical temperatures, but Star X is 16× more luminous. What can you infer?

a)

Star X is 4× the radius of the other star

b)

Star X is 1/4 the radius

c)

Star X is cooler

d)

Star X is closer to Earth

39.

What type of electromagnetic wave has a higher frequency than visible light and a larger wavelength than x-rays

a)

Infrared

b)

Gamma

c)

visible

d)

Ultraviolet

40.

Indicate the electromagnetic waves that are longer than Visible light.

a)

Ultraviolet

b)

Infrared

c)

X ray

d)

Microwaves

41.

Electromagnetic waves can travel through the vacuum of (a)   .

42.

What type of wave has the largest wavelength and the lowest frequency on the electromagnetic spectrum?

a)

Radio

b)

Micro

c)

Gamma

d)

X ray

43.

In the visible light waves what color has the highest frequency electromagnetic waves?

a)

Red

b)

Violet

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

44.

As the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave gets LONGER, the frequency gets ____________.

a)

Lower

b)

Higher

c)

does not change

d)

doubles

45.

Which wavelengths of the EM spectrum are dangerous to life?

a)

radio, micro and gamma

b)

gamma, infrared, and UV

c)

Infrared, UV and X Rays

d)

UV, X rays and Gamma

46.

A scientist has a sample of an unknown gas. In order to identify it, they shine a continuous spectrum of white light through the gas and observes which wavelengths of light are absorbed by it. This is shown in the figure, as well as the absorption spectra of five pure, gaseous elements. Which of the five elements is the unknown gas?

a)

xenon

b)

oxygen

c)

helium

d)

neon

e)

argon

47.

A scientist has a sample of an unknown gas. In order to identify the gas, they look at the spectrum of visible light emitted from it when it is heated. This is shown in the figure. Also shown in the figure are the emission spectra of five pure, gaseous elements. Which of the five elements is the unknown gas?

a)

helium

b)

neon

c)

xenon

d)

oxygen

e)

argon

48.

A scientist has a sample of an unknown gas. In order to identify the gas, they look at the spectrum of visible light emitted from it when it is heated. This is shown in the figure. Also shown in the figure are the emission spectra of three pure, gaseous elements. Which of the three elements is the unknown gas?

a)

helium

b)

hydrogen

c)

oxygen

49.

An astronomer looks at the spectrum of light from a distant star. Between Earth and the star is a large cloud of dust and gas. The star emits continuous-spectrum white light, but some of the light is absorbed by the cloud. The figure shows the spectrum of light that the astronomer observes as well as the absorption spectra of several pure elements. Which of the five elements shown does the interstellar cloud contain?

a)

hydrogen and helium

b)

hydrogen and oxygen

c)

hydrogen, helium, and nitrogen

d)

oxygen and nitrogen

50.

An astronomer looks at the spectrum of light from a distant star. The spectrum they see is shown in the figure. They compare the emission lines within the spectrum to the emission lines in the spectra of pure elements, which are also shown in the figure, in order to identify which elements are present in the outer layers of the star. State all of the elements that are present in the outer layers of the star.

a)

hydrogen, helium, and carbon

b)

hydrogen, helium, and boron

c)

helium, oxygen , and carbon

d)

hydrogen, helium, boron, and carbon

51.

Which class of star has the highest temperature?

a)

O

b)

M

c)

A

d)

G

52.

The absorption lines in the spectrum for Galaxy A are shifted toward the _____ end of the spectrum when compared to the lines for the Milky Way.

a)

red

b)

blue

53.

The absorption lines in the spectrum for Galaxy B are shifted toward the _____ end of the spectrum when compared to the lines for the Milky Way.

a)

red

b)

blue

54.

The absorption spectrum of a star is shown at the top of the image. When compared with the spectra of the pure gases below, which elements are present in the star?

a)

hydrogen

b)

helium

c)

sodium

d)

lithium

55.
In nuclear fusion, smaller atoms are forced together to create larger atoms. Does this process release, absorb or maintain energy?
a)
Absorb energy
b)
Maintain energy
c)
Release energy
56.
the smallest particles of matter that still retain the characteristics of that element are called
a)
atoms
b)
nuclei
c)
dust 
d)
molecule
57.

Define nuclear fusion.

a)

Nuclear fusion – combining lighter atoms to make heavier ones – is what makes it possible.

b)

Nuclear fusion – splitting lighter atoms to make heavier ones – is what makes it possible.

c)

Nuclear fusion – combining heavier atoms to make lighter ones – is what makes it possible.

d)

Nuclear fusion – splitting heavier atoms to make lighter ones – is what makes it possible.

58.

When hydrogen is "fused" together on the Sun, what new element is created?

a)

Helium

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Light

59.

Nuclear fusion is the reaction that generates energy in stars.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Why does nuclear fusion require high pressures and temperatures?

a)

To provide enough energy to split the nucleus.

b)

The two nuclei are both negatively charged and repel each other.

c)

To lower the cost.

d)

To overcome the electrostatic repulsion of the nuclei.

61.

Which element is used as the fuel in nuclear fusion reactions?

(a)  

62.
The particles of the corona extends into space for millions of kilometers and spreads into streams of electrically charged particles called:
a)
coronal discharge
b)
solar flares
c)
coronal ejection
d)
solar winds
63.
Areas of gas on the sun's surface that are cooler than gases around them are called:
a)
corona
b)
prominences
c)
sunspots
d)
solarspots
64.
The number of sunspots on the sun varies in a cycle that is about how long?
a)
6-8 years
b)
10-11 years
c)
12-15 years
d)
365 days
65.
When prominences erupt into space releasing gas and energy we call this: 
a)
solar winds
b)
coronal outburst
c)
solar flares
d)
auroras
66.
These colored bands of light in the sky are called ___.
a)
auroras
b)
solar flares
c)
solar prominences
d)
sun spots
67.

Solar flares

a)

cause Earth's auroras at the poles.

b)

can cause damage to the ISS and satellites.

c)

increase charged particles in gases creating magnetic storms in Earth's atmosphere.

d)

can disrupt radio, telephone and television signals.

68.
The solar wind can interact with Earth’s magnetic field to create powerful electric currents that cause        near the poles
a)
auroras 
b)
nuclear fusion 
c)
sun flares
d)
sunspots
69.
On which date would you expect the most disruptions of radio and electrical transmissions on Earth?
a)
1955
b)
2010
c)
1730
d)
2000
70.

What protects Earth from solar winds?

a)

The poles

b)

The moon's gravity

c)

The magnetic field and the atmosphere

d)

The tidal range