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Biology Quiz on Muscle Differentiation and More

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Sequential muscle differentiation steps are:

a)

Satellite cells; myoblasts; myotubes; mature fibers

b)

Satellite cells; myofibers

c)

Myotubes; satellite cells; myoblasts; mature fibers

d)

Myotubes; myofibrils; myoblasts; mature fibers

e)

Satellite cells; myofibrils; mature fibers

2.

NGF binds

a)

p75

b)

TrkD

c)

TrkC

d)

Trk and p75

e)

TrkB

3.

Atg1 mutants

a)

have reduced growth with N-starvation

b)

are not viable in all conditions

c)

are insensitive to N-starvation

d)

die upon N-starvation

e)

require atg2 to survive

4.

Dynamic light scattering:

a)

determines the size of particles in solution

b)

determines the mass of particles in solution

c)

determines the weight of particles in solution

d)

determines the size of the solvent

e)

determines the mass of the solvent

5.

Compensation in FACS analysis:

a)

It reduces mistakes in spectral misplacement

b)

It is dispensable with modern fluorochromes

c)

Increases sensitivity and specificity

d)

Increases specificity but may reduce sensitivity

e)

It is necessary to increase sensitivity by reducing bias

6.

Mouse model with larger muscles is:

a)

Myogenin mutant

b)

Pax3 mutant

c)

MyoD mutant

d)

Myostatin mutant

e)

Myosin mutant

7.

Primary cultures:

a)

Have limited lifespan but are the choice for some organs

b)

Are immortal and therefore primary in research

c)

Are the basis of cell culture works

d)

They precede secondary cultures

e)

Present the highest degree of consistency

8.

Phase separation:

a)

is not at play in stress granules

b)

contributes to the formation of liquid droplets that constitute cellular membraneless organelles

c)

is not at play in the nucleolus

d)

contributes to the formation of solid droplets that constitute cellular membraneless organelles

e)

contributes to the formation of solid droplets that constitute cellular membrane organelles

9.

T reg cells

a)

Suppress the immune response

b)

Regulate the immune response

c)

Define the balance of immunity

d)

Activate autoimmunity

e)

Control CD + response

10.

During apoptosis:

a)

Cells are swelling

b)

DNA is not fragmented

c)

membrane permeablity is lost

d)

membranes remain intact

e)

Lysosomes are released

11.

The trojan-GAL4 system exploits the viral TZA ribosomal skipping site that results in the translation of 2 proteins from the same mRNA. Where should a trojan-GAL4 cassette be inserted in the genome for this system to work without interfering with the endogenous gene?

a)

Exon

b)

Intron

c)

3'UTR

d)

Anywhere in the genome

e)

5'UTR

12.

Retroviral infection works better with:

a)

Differentiated cells

b)

Human cells

c)

Proliferating cells

d)

Mouse cells

e)

Neurons

13.

Patient derived xenografts

a)

Are important for cloning cells

b)

Will allow preclinical testing of drugs in personalized medicine

c)

Substitute classical oncology with modern

d)

Are currently used in personalized medicine

e)

Will be abendoned upon organoid culture

14.

Bel-2 is the homolog of:

a)

Ced-2

b)

Ced-9

c)

Ced-3

d)

Apa2

e)

Ced-14

15.

Phase contrast microscopy is used for

a)

Increasing resolution power of light specimens

b)

increasing the contrast of a transparent specimen

c)

Reduce light of highly fluorescent specimens

d)

For immunohistochemistry

e)

observing fine internal detail of living cells

16.

Which microscopy technique has been used to reconstruct the Drosophila connectome?

a)

Phase contrast Microscopy

b)

A full connectome has so far not been reconstructed

c)

Confocal Microscopy

d)

Electron Microscopy

e)

Superresolution Microscopy

17.

What is the feature of Ced-1 mutants?

a)

Apoptosis is stimulated

b)

Apoptotic bodies increase

c)

Apoptosis is inhibited

d)

None of the previous

e)

Apoptotic bodies are not eliminated

18.

The classical properties of tumor cells are:

a)

Loss of contact inhibition only, but always

b)

Loss of contact inhibition and growth in nude mice

c)

Capability to kill the host

d)

Loss of contact inhibition; growth in soft agar; growth in nude mice

e)

Angiogenesis and soft agar inhibition

19.

Advantages of microfluidics for in vitro models:

a)

no other answer is correct

b)

High number of cells for analyses, highly controllable conditions

c)

Highly controllable conditions, funtional microvascularization

d)

All answers are correct

e)

Easy to use, high resolution analyses

20.

An epithelial-to-mesenchimal transition:

a)

Involves the loss of mesenchimal architecture and the acquisition of a epithelial features

b)

Involves the loss of epithelial architecture and the acquisition of a mesenchimal features

c)

all answers are correct

d)

does not involve a change in cell identity

e)

no other answer are correct

21.

What is Myo-D?

a)

A muscle receptor

b)

Inhibitor of muscle growth

c)

Transcription factor for muscle cell proliferation

d)

Transcription factor for muscle differentiation

e)

A gene involved in myodistrophy

22.

Which gene is necessary for early commitment of muscle cells?

a)

Myol

b)

MyoD

c)

Myogenin

d)

Рахб

e)

Myosin

23.

Which of the following is a tool to match light-level imaged neurons to EM neurons?

a)

NBLAST

b)

cmtk

c)

fiji

d)

neuprint

e)

Neuronbridge

24.

Which protein contributes to generate adhesive forces between epithelial cells?

a)

Actin

b)

E-Cadherin

c)

Dynein

d)

Adhesin

e)

Myosin-ll

25.

Muscle differentiation can be increased by

a)

increasing methylation by 5-azacytidine

b)

reducing methylation by 5-azacytidine

c)

increasing muscle-related factors

d)

absorbing muscle inhibitory factors

e)

overcoming demethylation through alkylating agents

26.

Super Resolution Microscopy:

a)

Demonstrates that Abbe's limit is wrong

b)

It is dispensable with modern fluorochromes

c)

Relies on better lenses

d)

Exploits fluorescence properties to bypass Abbe resolution limit

e)

Exploits confocal light to increase specific excitation

27.

Xenograft growth requires:

a)

Growth

b)

Angiogenesis, lack of immune rejection, and migration capability

c)

The appropriate combination of a mouse and a cell line

d)

Angiogenesis

e)

Angiogenesis and lack of immune rejection

28.

Which of the following statements is correct:

a)

bridging single-cell transcriptomic atlases to the connectome allows the indentification of marker genes that can be exploited to gain genetic access to neuronal populations

b)

All answers are correct

c)

each neuronal population can be described by the expression of a single gene

d)

the definition of neuronal types in molecular atlases and anatomical atlases always agree

e)

neuronal types are identical in female and male Drosophila brains

29.

Nude mice:

a)

Are illegal

b)

Behave properly in cancer cell experiments

c)

Have no capability to reject foreign cells

d)

They reject foreign cells if challenged with T

e)

Do not have hair but reject foreign cells

30.

G1/S phase mutants by FACS

a)

Unaffected DNA percentages but reduced growth

b)

Have reduced DNA content between N and 2N

c)

Have increased DNA percentage at N (1)

d)

Have increased DNA percentage at both N(1) and 2N

e)

Have increased DNA percentage at 2 N (2)

31.

Senescence of cells is accelerated by

a)

ER stress

b)

Oncogenic RAS in the presence of tumor suppressors

c)

Tumor suppressor loss

d)

Lack of adhesion

e)

Ribosomal stress

32.

Dark field microscopy is used for

a)

1. observing fine internal detail of living cells

b)

2. For immunohistochemistry

c)

increasing the contrast of a transparent specimen

d)

Increasing resolution power of light specimens

e)

Reduce light of highly fluorescent specimens

33.

Human neural organoids are 3D models of the human brain that:

a)

recapitulate only the production (but not the compartment organization) of various populations of neural progenitors, neurons and astrocytes

b)

no other answer is correct

c)

recapitulate the production and compartment organization of all major cell types of the brain including all cells of the vasculature and the immune system

d)

recapitulate the production and compartment organization of various populations of neural progenitors, neurons and astrocytes

e)

recapitulate only the compartment organization (but not the production) of various populations of neural progenitors, neurons and astrocytes

34.

The market for monoclonal antibodies

a)

Is huge and still expanding

b)

Has reached a plateau

c)

Is restricted to tumors and expanding

d)

Has limits in the application to conventional diseases

e)

Is limited but expanding

35.

Forward scattering allows:

a)

Rapid resolution of cells

b)

Moving forward in FACS

c)

Microscopic analysis

d)

Granularity analysis

e)

Size detection

36.

P elements:

a)

resistant to mutagenesis

b)

are derived from transposable elements of yeast

c)

can be engineered to produce transgenic animals

d)

are not naturally occuring fly transposons

e)

larger that Q elements

37.

Right order of cell cycle for cycling cells is:

a)

G1-G2-S-M

b)

GO-G1-S-G2-M

c)

G1-S-G2-M

d)

GO-G1-G2-S-M

e)

G1-S-G2-M-GO

38.

Why are Drosophila mutants that affect the fly eye color and body color useful?

a)

because they do not allow to correlate a genotype to a phenotype

b)

because they can be used as markers to follow chromosome inheritance

c)

because they are fun to watch

d)

because they always improve understanding of eye and body development

e)

because the recessive ones are never visible

39.

Tyrosine kinase receptors

a)

A. Are pro-survival and can be pro-oncogenic

b)

B. Bind BDNF and are pro-survival

c)

C. Are pro-survival

d)

D. Are mainly oncogenic

e)

E. Are pro-survival and pro-oncogenic

40.

PD-1 knockout mice

a)

Develop autoimmune disease

b)

Develop both cancer and autoimmunity

c)

Develop sensitivity to anti-PD1

d)

Are lethal at birth if not treated with anti-PD1

e)

Develop melanoma

41.

The HeLa cell line was derived from:

a)

Cervix tumor

b)

Mouse Lax line

c)

Hepatocyte line

d)

Lung tumor

e)

Brain tumor

42.

Response rate in immunotherapy correlates with:

a)

Organ in which the tumor develops

b)

Mutation frequency

c)

Age of patients

d)

Local microenvironment

e)

Ras activation

43.

What is viral tropism?

a)

Ability of a virus to infect a particular host cells

b)

Movement of the virus through membranes

c)

Viral diffusion

d)

Viral capability to replicate

e)

Ability of a virus to move in cell culture

44.

Normal epithelial cells require for survival:

a)

Cell to cell contact

b)

Anchorage to extracellular matrix

c)

Anchorage to extracellular matrix and cell t cell contact

d)

Immortalization

e)

Just nutrients

45.

Human neural organoids infected with Zika virus:

a)

no other answer is correct

b)

show a growth defect that can be rescued by the application of Interferon-beta

c)

show a growth defect that cannot be rescued by the application of type I interferons

d)

grow normally as the uninfected counterparts

e)

show increased proliferation

46.

Activation of death receptor occurs by:

a)

Dimerization due to fluidity changes

b)

Crossdimerization

c)

Trimerization upon ligand binding

d)

Dimerization upon ligand binding

e)

Trimerization helped by intracellular signaling

47.

Basic elements in a tissue engineering approach are:

a)

cells, growth factors, polymers

b)

biomaterials, culture devices, growth factors

c)

cells, biomaterials, growth factors, perfusion bioreactor

d)

Cells, growth factors, biomaterials, culture devices

e)

no other answer is correct

48.

GFP fusions can be used for

a)

For detection of transcriptional activation

b)

For RNAseq based purification of GFP

c)

Following the intracellular localization of a protein

d)

For studying the protein decay

e)

Following the intracellular localization of a protein and its transcriptional activation

49.

Tyrosine kinase receptors

a)

Are pro-survival and can be pro-oncogenic

b)

Are pro-survival and pro-oncogenic

c)

Are pro-survival

d)

Are mainly oncogenic

e)

Bind BDNF and are pro-survival

50.

Spheroids are:

a)

growing by lack of cellular adhesion

b)

growing only in the absence of serum

c)

growing indefinitely

d)

growing through layers of addition which makes them perfect for plant biology

e)

growing on the surface with necrotic areas in the middle

51.

Muscle differentiation can be increased by

a)

overcoming demethylation through alkylating agents

b)

increasing methylation by 5-azacytidine

c)

absorbing muscle inhibitory factors

d)

reducing methylation by 5-azacytidine

e)

increasing muscle-related factors

52.

Death Receptors like Fas

a)

Dimerize by ligand induction

b)

Dimerize or trimerize depending on the ligand

c)

Trimerize

d)

Dimerize due to fluidity changes

e)

Trimerize in a ligand-dependent fashion

53.

Satellite cells are:

a)

Heart stem cells

b)

Skeletal Muscle stem cells

c)

Myotubes

d)

Muscle cell lines

e)

Muscle precursors

54.

If one wished to map the spatial distribution of low molecular weight molecules in subcellular structures, which MSI technology would be most appropriate?

a)

DESI-MSI

b)

all answers are correct

c)

MALDI-MSI

d)

no other answer is correct

e)

SIMS-MSI

55.

Senescence of cells is delayed by:

a)

Rich media

b)

Oncogenic stress .

c)

Cold temperature

d)

Activation of p53

e)

Loss of p53

56.

Side scattering measures:

a)

Cell viability

b)

Lateral dimensions

c)

Intensity of labelling

d)

Size of cells

e)

Granularity

57.

Which of the following outputs does MALDI-MSI analysis typically provide?

a)

spatial localisation of bioanalytes

b)

all answers are correct

c)

absolute quantitation of bioanalytes

d)

no other answer is correct

e)

structural information regarding bioanalytes

58.

Transfection preferentially leads to:

a)

Permanent expression

b)

Cell death

c)

Transient expression

d)

Stability

e)

Low amounts of protein expression

59.

The 3T3 cell line was derived from:

a)

Human tumors

b)

Mice embryos

c)

Mouse tumors

d)

Hamster brain

e)

Mouse kidney

60.

All cortical neurons:

a)

do not involve asymmetric cell division

b)

are generated from neural stem cells and progenitor cells during embryonic development

c)

are generated from neural stem cells during embryonic development

d)

are generated from neural stem cells and progenitor cells postnatally

e)

do not Involve a cell fate transition

61.

Gating in FACS analysis

a)

It is tricky

b)

Is irreversible and must be pondered before analysis

c)

It is automatically performed by the machine

d)

Must be changed when you analyze data

e)

Can be changed after you analyze data

62.

Collective cell migration and tissue fluidification:

a)

are alternative phenomena in cancer

b)

are relevant to steps of tumorigenesis

c)

all answers are correct

d)

none other answer is correct

e)

are independent of rearrangement of cell-cell interactions

63.

Trk receptors:

a)

Increase apoptosis

b)

Increase proliferation

c)

Block apoptosis

d)

Bind neurotrophins

e)

Reduce cell migration

64.

Which pathologies are best modeled with brain organoids?

a)

Brain tumors

b)

Neurodevelopmental disorder

c)

Neurodegenerative disease

d)

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

e)

Teratomas

65.

CLA-4 mutants

a)

Lose weight due to autoimmunity

b)

Lose weight for feeding abnormalities

c)

Lose weight

d)

Are susceptible to cancer

e)

Are normal if CD28 is expressed

66.

An organoid is:

a)

Microorgan explant

b)

Induced cell line

c)

Small xenograft

d)

Self-assembled cells in culture

e)

Type of cell line

67.

EMT:

a)

occurs during embryonic development

b)

all answers are correct

c)

is at the base of fibrosis

d)

contributes to tissue homeostasis in adults

e)

can be observed in cancer cells

68.

The most successful virus for DNA transfer is:

a)

Calcium phosphate

b)

Retroviruses

c)

Lentiviruses

d)

it depends from the application, but lentiviruses are the most used

e)

A combination of different viruses in the same experiment

69.

fly-2 reduces:

a)

Necrosis

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Growth

d)

Migration

e)

Proliferation

70.

Superresolution microscopy bc resolution is around

a)

less than 1 nM

b)

5-10 nM

c)

30-70 M

d)

10 nM

e)

180 пМ

71.

CRISPR-Cas is:

a)

A. a versatile genome editing tool derived form bacterial immune systems

b)

B. a restriction system that is programmable to unfold the DNA at will

c)

C. always causing mutations

d)

D. a versatile genome editing tool derived form phagic immune systems

e)

E. independent of a PAM sequence

72.

Clonal analysis:

a)

A. is the study of twins

b)

B. results in generation of two identical organisms

c)

C. permits to analyze heterozygous mutant cells in an otherwise homozygous animal

d)

D. does not involve generation of twin clones called twin spots

e)

E. permits to analyze homozygous mutant cells in an otherwise heterozygous animal

73.

A rescue experiment:

a)

A. needs to be done before all other experiments

b)

B. rescues flies that would otherwise die

c)

C. is performed to prove that a certain gene caused a certain phenotye when mutated

d)

D. involves exogenous expression of a mutant gene

e)

E. require endogenous expression of a mutant gene

74.

LacZ:

a)

A. is encoded by beta-galactosidase

b)

B. encodes beta-galactosidase that can be used as a reporter

c)

C. is not a gene

d)

D. is homologous to yeast lacW

e)

E. is part of a fly operon

75.

Cas9 is:

a)

A. producing effects essentially identical to that of morpholino in Zebrafish

b)

B. different from TALEN except for the DNA-recognition part

c)

C. responsible of transcriptional downregulation

d)

D. a DNA-directed endonuclease

e)

E. a RNA-directed nuclease

76.

Cuticle preparations:

a)

A. are used to follow fly embryo segmentation

b)

B. are used to follow fish embryo segmentation

c)

C. are used to follow yeast embryo segmentation

d)

D. allow the recovery of live embryos

e)

E. are part of the manicure required to work in a lab

77.

RNAi:

a)

A. can be used as a tool to silence gene expression at wills

b)

B. results in total loss of gene function

c)

C. can be used as a tool to block completely gene expression at will

d)

D. can be used as a tool to increase gene expression at will

e)

E. is equivalent to a knock-out

78.

Site specific integration in flies:

a)

A. prevents integration of a transgene at a specific chromosomal location

b)

B. was developed before site aspecific integration

c)

C. can occur at any site in the genome

d)

D. allows to express different transgenes similarly

e)

E. results in intergration of transgenes at random chromosomal sites

79.

ESCRT proteins:

a)

A. are all forming polymers

b)

B. all include ubiquitin binding domains

c)

C. do not take part in membrane repair processes

d)

D. are organized in complexes that ensure budding of vesicles away from the cytoplasm

e)

E. are required for chromosome segregation

80.

Why the organization of a scientific paper can be represented by an hourglass?

a)

A. Because obtaining the data for a study takes a lot of time

b)

B. because one has to find the rigth moment to publish her/his research

c)

C. beacuse the central part of the manuscript deals with the topic narrowly

d)

D. because timely writing is the prerequisity for fast publication

e)

E. in part because one starts by introducing the topic in broad terms and finishes by discussing the general implications of the findings

81.

What are the drawbacks of using the yeast S. cerevisie as a moldel system?

a)

A. it is not a good system for genetics because it genome is distributed across too many chromosomes

b)

B. It cannot model the behavior of a tissue

c)

C. It cannot be cultured in large quantities

d)

D. It is not a valid system to study DNA replication and repair. These proteins differs radically between human and yeast.

e)

E. It is not a valid system to study DNA replication and repair. These proteins differs radically between human and yeast.

82.

An experiment:

a)

A. can be done before and then control are added to validate

b)

B. is preceded by interpretation and followed by planning

c)

C. should never be repeated more than twice

d)

D. when repeated twice it could be statisitically significant

e)

E. always includes controls, usually a positive and a negative

83.

A correlation:

a)

A. could imply causation if validated by an ad hoc experiment

b)

B. is the opposite of causation

c)

C. equals causation

d)

D. is st

84.

A correlation:

a)

could imply causation if validated by an ad hoc experiment

b)

is the opposite of causation

c)

equals causation

d)

is stronger than causation

e)

never implies causation

85.

Ehnancer suppressor screens in Drosophila:

a)

enhance or suppress a screen, when generated

b)

have successfully isolated mutants in genes encoding for signaling transduction components

c)

cannot profit from visible phenotypes

86.

Notch:

a)

is one of the classical Drosophila receptors and a conserved mutants

b)

is a type of wild-type fly with notched wings

c)

is one of the classical Drosophila mutants and a conserved receptor

d)

is named after the discoverer, Thomas Hunt Notch

e)

is a receptor without known ligands

87.

Notch signaling:

a)

results in repression of target gene expression

b)

involves proteolytic cleavage of the Notch receptor for activation

c)

involves proteolytic cleavage of the Notch receptor for deactivation

d)

involves proteolytic cleavage of the Delta receptor for deactivation

e)

results in repression of target protein expression

88.

The reason Zebrafish is a good model for organogenesis is:

a)

all the answers are correct

b)

the animal is transparent during early development

c)

there is plenty of GFP markers to label developing structures

d)

some organs like the circulatory system are similar to those of other vertebrates

e)

gene activity can be inactivated by morpholinos

89.

Figures in a scientific paper:

a)

are not always described by a legend

b)

cannot include schematic models

c)

never include more that one panel

d)

should present the experimental evidence in the most clear and concise way

e)

should always precede mentions in the text

90.

Trypan Blue measures:

a)

Cell viability

b)

Cell number

c)

Microscopic granules

d)

Cell proliferation

e)

Cell nuclei

91.

Which developmental genes have been identified first in D. melanogaster?

a)

Those involved in gametogenesis and embryogenesis

b)

Flies develop without using genes

c)

Those involved in regulation of the cell cycle

d)

The genes contributing to aging

e)

Those involved in regulation of the cell cycle

92.

How many types of clones are produced in mosaic animals?

a)

none

b)

in most applications 2, the experimental one and one defined as the twin spot

c)

it depends on the expression of the Flippase

93.

Which neurotrophin keeps alive neurons of the sensory ganglia?

a)

Either NGF or BDNF

b)

NGF

c)

Depends from the neuronal type

d)

BDNF

e)

NGF, BDNF and NT-3

94.

eIF6

a)

Binds 80S subunits

b)

Binds ribosomes

c)

Binds free 60S subunits

d)

Binds free 80S subunits

e)

Binds 40S subunits

95.

Which are the main animal models for experimental research?

a)

S. cerevisiae, D. melanogaster, D. rerio, C. elegans, H. sapiens, M. musculus

b)

A. salina, D. melanogaster, D. rerio, C. elegans, X. laevis, M. musculus

c)

S. cerevisiae, D. melanogaster, D. rerio, C. elegans, H. sapiens, M. musculus

d)

S. cerevisiae, D. melanogaster, D. rerio, C. elegans, X. laevis, M. musculus

e)

S. cerevisiae, D. melanogaster, D. rerio, C. elegans, X. laevis, M. musculus, S. curry

96.

Biotechnological optimization and fundamental research on bacterial genomes have recently been recognized as:

a)

new areas of research worthy of the Nobel prize

b)

the topics of a recent worldwide symposium

c)

Two completely unrelated fields of research

d)

Two fields of science that lead to the discovery of molecular biology

e)

Two fields of science that lead to the discovery of the CRISPR-Cas9 system

97.

What is a correct definition of the imaginal discs?

a)

the disc-like tissue that will produce adult wings

b)

the developing organs of the larvae that will give rise to adult body parts

c)

the imago of a organ called disc

d)

the precursor of the part of the fly eyes that will focus images

e)

the organs of the larvae that will be substituted by adult structures

98.

Zebrafish is:

a)

not the main fish model used in research

b)

a vertebrate model frequently used to study organ development and its aberrations

c)

never used to xenografting human tumor cells

d)

a fish studied because of it its fast aging

e)

a cartilaginous fish with a zoologic interest

99.

What is the goal of a rescue experiment?

a)

to generate a mutated allele

b)

to demonstrate that a particular phenotype is caused by a alteration of a certain gene

c)

to recover the wild type allele

d)

to search for the position of the mutation in the genome

e)

to identify a mutated gene

100.

The first use of D. melanogaster in research has been:

a)

The study of flying mechanics by the Wright brothers

b)

The isolation of mutants by geneticist T.H. Morgan

c)

The generation of mutations by X-ray

d)

The identification of the Notch mutant that affects wing margin integrity

e)

The study of trait inheritance by Mendel

101.

iPS cells can be obtained from fibroblasts by:

a)

Delivery of at least one oncogene and growth factors

b)

By transduction with Myc and Op2

c)

By transduction with Myc, Mac, Oct2 and FGF

d)

Nuclear transfer coupled with retroviral assisted delivery

e)

Delivery of 4 specific genes that reposition chromatin and induce cell cycle progression

102.

Why is it useful to perform experiments based on the GAL4/UAS system?

a)

Because it allows to misexpress genes at the experimenter's will

b)

Because the operon containing GAL4 is active in D. melanogaster

c)

All the answers are correct

d)

Because GAL4 is temperature sensitive

e)

Because in this way the scientist can produce mosaic tissues

103.

An autosomal recessive disease is evident in newborns:

a)

if two identical alleles are transmitted to the progeny

b)

if one allele is dominant over the other

c)

if two not necessarily identical mutant alleles are transmitted to the progeny

d)

if the recessive allele is combined with the unmutated counterpart

e)

never

104.

Which are the genes necessary for Yamanaka experiment?

a)

Sox2, Klf4, Oct3/4

b)

Myc, Sox2, Klf4, Oct3/4

c)

Sox2, Ltr3, Oct3/4, Myc

d)

Sox2, Myc, Oct3/4

105.

CyO:

a)

is a third chromosome balancer

b)

is the marker that gives Curly wings

c)

is the same as TM6

d)

is a X chromosome balancer

e)

is a second chromosome balancer

106.

The MARCM system:

a)

cannot be used to generate homozygous mutant cells

b)

cannot be used to generate cells marked with GFP

c)

stands for 'mosaic analysis with repressible color markers'

d)

is a system to mark chromosomes

e)

couples the FLP/FRT and GAL4/UAS systems and have been developed to to mark or mutate single fly neurons

107.

Studies in C. elegans have:

a)

all answers are correct

b)

greatly advanced our understanding of the development of the nervous system and apoptosis

c)

greatly advanced the study of RNAi and of GFP

d)

been surpassed by the use of more useful model systems

e)

been limited by the fixed number of cells

108.

The heidelberg screen:

a)

allowed discovery of most fly embryo segmentation genes

b)

won the nobel prize in 1980

c)

allowed discovery of most fly adult segmentation genes

d)

allowed discovery of most fly embryo circadian genes

e)

allowed discovery of most worm embryo segmentation genes

109.

Notch signaling:

a)

in flies is uniquely required to form wings

b)

regulates multiple steps of fly development including blood vessel formation

c)

involves proteolytic cleavage of the Notch receptor for deactivation

d)

regulates multiple steps of fly development including neurogenesis

e)

uses an amplification cascade depending on protein kinase

110.

P elements:

a)

are derived from transposable elements of yeast

b)

cannot be used as mutagenesis tools

c)

can be used as genesis tools

d)

can be used as mutagenesis tools

e)

are not naturally occurring fly transposons

111.

Bcl-2 reduces:

a)

Growth

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Migration

d)

Proliferation

e)

Necrosis

112.

RNAi:

a)

is a natural process occurring during protein synthesis

b)

stands for 'RNA integration'

c)

is a natural process used during DNA replication

d)

requires the DNA processing

e)

can lead to mRNA cleavage or degradation

113.

In research:

a)

medical applications are independent from basic science

b)

technology does not support big advances

c)

approaches with insect model systems should be avoided because they are not relevant to human disease

d)

often discoveries lead unintended applications

e)

it is easy to predict what will lead to transformative breakthrough

114.

The molecular biology and applications of CRISPR-Cas9:

a)

have been pioneered by research groups at Berkeley and MIT

b)

are mainly applied to generation of new genetically modified plants

c)

have no relations to genome editing efforts

d)

are not patentable

e)

are not clear at the present time

115.

A transgenic fly containing a P-element carrying an engineered miRNA under control of UAS:

a)

can be used as a tool to increase gene expression at will

b)

is a GAL4 independent part of a binary expression system

c)

is used to increase expression of its target gene

d)

could be used to generate a mutant phenotype in vivo in a certain tissue when crossed to a specific GAL4 driver

e)

could be used to prevent a mutant phenotype in vivo in a certain tissue when crossed to a ubiquitous GAL4 driver

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