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Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 52hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In Vietnam, the Constitution is issued by?

a)

National Assembly

b)

President

c)

Government

d)

Prime Minister

2.

Which type of legal instrument is the President allowed to issue?

a)

Resolution

b)

Constitution

c)

Order

3.

In Vietnam, a Decree is issued by?

a)

Standing Committee of the National Assembly

b)

President

c)

Government

d)

Prime Minister

4.

Which type of legal instrument is the Prime Minister allowed to issue?

a)

Law

b)

Constitution

c)

Order

d)

Decision

5.

What is the Definition of the term “Law”?

a)

Law is a set of guidelines created by the community, recognized by the state, reflecting the interests of individuals, and designed to regulate public conduct.

b)

Law is a system of rules issued or recognized by the State, reflecting the will of the ruling class (the people), and guaranteed by the State to regulate and maintain social order.

c)

Law is a system of regulations established by organisations that acknowledge human rights, aim to protect individual freedom, and regulate the relations between citizens and institutions.

d)

Law is a body of rules developed by the state, grounded in moral principles, governing private and public behavior, and enforced through legal institutions.

6.

What are the Characteristics of Law?

a)

Normative and universal; Exists in strict forms; and Enforced by the State.

b)

Flexible and subjective; Applied only in certain regions; and Dependent on public opinion.

c)

Created solely by individuals; Not applied equally to everyone; and Enforced by private entities.

d)

Optional in nature; Existing in informal settings; And guided by personal beliefs rather than the state.

7.

What does substantive law primarily define?

a)

The rules governing the process of legal action

b)

The rights and obligations of individuals and the state

c)

The penalties for breaking the law

d)

The procedures for enacting new laws

8.

What does procedural law primarily regulate?

a)

The rights of individuals in criminal cases

b)

The rules for enforcing legal rights and obligations

c)

The steps and methods used to carry out legal processes

d)

The punishment for civil infractions

9.

Which of the following is a subcategory of public law?

a)

Contract law

b)

Property law

c)

Criminal law

d)

Tort law

10.

Which of the following is a subcategory of private law?

a)

Administrative law

b)

Constitutional law

c)

Taxation law

d)

Contract law

11.

What defines a legislative document?

a)

A document created by any government agency without legal norms

b)

A document containing legal norms issued in accordance with prescribed authority, form, and procedures

c)

A document that applies only to individuals within a certain region

d)

A document that lacks mandatory applicability

12.

What are precedents?

a)

Written laws that are created by legislative bodies

b)

Documents issued by the government to regulate specific sectors

c)

Customary rules of conduct followed by individuals in society

d)

Decisions and arguments within judgments that have become legally effective, guiding future legal cases

13.

Who announces precedents in the judicial system?

a)

The President of the Supreme People's Court

b)

The Chief Justice of the Supreme People's Court

c)

The Parliament

d)

The Council of Ministers

14.

What defines customary law?

a)

A rule of conduct with mandatory applicability formed by legislative documents

b)

A rule of conduct that is formed, repeated over time, and widely applied in a specific region or community

c)

A rule of conduct that is only applicable to government officials

d)

A rule of conduct that is only written in legal codes

15.

Where is customary law typically applied?

a)

Nationwide, in all regions of the country

b)

Only in specific administrative regions or ethnic groups

c)

Only in large corporations or commercial entities

d)

Exclusively in all nations

16.

Which court has the highest authority?

a)

The High People's Court

b)

The Supreme People's Court

c)

The People's Court of District

d)

The People's Court of Province

17.

What is the role of the Constitution in the Socialist Republic of Vietnam?

a)

It is a set of guidelines for governmental procedures.

b)

It is a document outlining the rights of individuals only.

c)

It is the fundamental law with the highest legal effect.

d)

It is a guideline for international relations.

18.

What is the right to business in Vietnam?

a)

Only legal entities are allowed to engage in business.

b)

Business activities are only permitted for foreign nationals.

c)

Only individuals with a license are allowed to engage in business.

d)

Everyone has the right to engage in business in professions not prohibited by law.

19.

Which of the following is not a prohibited sector for business in Vietnam?

a)

Trade in narcotics

b)

Business activities related to human cloning

c)

Trade in firecrackers

d)

Trade in electronics

20.

What is the meaning of 'prohibited sectors' in the context of business law?

a)

Business areas that are not allowed by law

b)

Sectors that are restricted to foreign businesses only

c)

Sectors that require government approval before starting

d)

Sectors that are only allowed to registered companies

21.

Which of the following is an example of 'trafficking' as used in the legal text?

a)

Importing and exporting goods legally

b)

The illegal trade of humans, human tissues, or organs

c)

Selling products at a market

d)

Offering services for debt management

22.

What does the term "promulgated" mean in the context of law?

a)

Issued or made official

b)

Written in a specific format

c)

Enforced through punishments

d)

Discussed publicly in a legislative body

23.

What does the "right to business" imply?

a)

The right to engage in any business, regardless of the law

b)

The right to engage in business only in certain industries

c)

The right to engage in business in professions not prohibited by law

d)

The right to engage in government-controlled businesses

24.

What is "statutory law"?

a)

Law based on court decisions and precedents

b)

Law that is not enforced by any government

c)

Law based on traditional customs

d)

Law created by legislation or statutory bodies

25.

What does "appeal" mean in legal terms?

a)

A request for a new trial

b)

A complaint filed against a ruling

c)

A legal term for seeking compensation

d)

A decision made by the judge

26.

What is the definition of a contract under Vietnamese Civil Law?

a)

A promise to exchange gifts between friends

b)

An agreement between parties for criminal liability

c)

An agreement between parties regarding the creation, modification, or termination of civil rights and obligations

d)

A document issued by the court

27.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a contract?

a)

It must be formed voluntarily and equally by the parties

b)

It arises from a criminal act

c)

It creates, modifies, or terminates legal rights and obligations

d)

It is primarily concerned with the material interests of the parties

28.

When does a legally concluded contract become effective?

a)

From the time of its conclusion, unless otherwise agreed or prescribed by law

b)

When the government approves

c)

Immediately after payment

d)

Only after one party withdraws

29.

Which statement is true about written contracts?

a)

They include traditional and electronic forms, and are easier to enforce

b)

They are only valid if notarized

c)

They are informal and not legally binding

d)

They are only valid for employment agreements

30.

An oral or verbal contract means:

a)

The contract is only valid if recorded

b)

The agreement is made through spoken communication

c)

It must be written and signed by both parties

d)

The contract is based only on body language

31.

When is the form of a civil transaction considered a condition for its effectiveness?

a)

When required by law

b)

When there is a thought involved

c)

When the transaction is written

d)

When the parties are from different provinces

32.

What best defines an offer in contract law (according to Article 386 of the Civil Code 2015)?

a)

A final contract between two parties

b)

An advertisement to the public

c)

A clear expression of the offeror’s intention to enter into a contract with a specific party or the public

d)

A discussion about contract terms

33.

Which of the following does NOT lead to the termination of an offer?

a)

Rejection by the offeree

b)

Acceptance by the offeree

c)

None of the answers are correct

d)

The offeree’s silence

34.

Which of the following best describes an invitation to treat?

a)

A binding legal commitment

b)

A formal proposal that must be accepted

c)

An informal invitation for customers to make an offer

d)

A final contract signed by both parties

35.

(According to Article 393.2), the silence of the offeree is considered acceptance:

a)

If agreed by parties or based on established practice

b)

If the offeror says so

c)

Always

d)

Only in written contracts

36.

Which of the following best defines “consideration” under common law?

a)

The act of giving a gift

b)

A written agreement

c)

A benefit to one party or a detriment to the other

d)

A mutual intention to marry

37.

Acting in good faith and honesty means:

a)

Each party prioritizes their own gain only

b)

Each party fulfills obligations truthfully and fairly

c)

Parties may break the contract if necessary

d)

Parties should renegotiate contracts often

38.

What is modification or amendment of a contract?

a)

Ending the contract

b)

Signing a completely new and unrelated contract

c)

Replacing one party with another without consent of all parties

d)

Changing one or more provisions in an existing contract

39.

Termination of a contract means:

a)

Adding new rights and duties

b)

Ending the legal effect of the contract

c)

Rewriting the contract

d)

Starting arbitration

40.

Which of the following is a correct example of completion of contractual obligations?

a)

A contract is signed but not yet performed

b)

A graphic designer delivers a logo and gets paid

c)

One party agrees to terminate the contract early

d)

A contract is modified to add new terms

41.

According to the Civil Code, what is a pledge of property?

a)

Handing over property to another party to secure an obligation

b)

Transferring ownership to another party permanently

c)

Borrowing money using a credit agreement

d)

Leasing property for commercial use

42.

In a pledge, who is the person handing over the property?

a)

Pledgor

b)

Mortgagor

c)

Obligor

d)

Pledgee

43.

What distinguishes a mortgage from a pledge?

a)

The property is handed over to the other party

b)

The property is sold to pay off the debt

c)

The property remains with the owner but is used as security

d)

The property is leased to the creditor

44.

In a mortgage, what is the party called who provides their property as security?

a)

Mortgagee

b)

Mortgagor

c)

Pledgee

d)

Creditor

45.

(According to Article 351 of the 2015 Civil Code), a breach of obligation includes:

a)

Performing more than required

b)

Negotiating a new contract

c)

Delayed or improper performance of an obligation

d)

None of the answers are correct

46.

Which of the following is considered Economic damages/physical damage?

a)

Loss of dignity

b)

Mental stress

c)

Lost property and actual income reduction

d)

Emotional suffering

47.

Mental damage/Non-Economic damages includes violations against:

a)

Life, dignity, pride, and other personal interests

b)

Legal capacity and business rights

c)

Debtors and creditors only

d)

Property and income

48.

(Under Article 301 of the 2005 Commercial Law), what is the maximum penalty for a single breach unless otherwise provided by law?

a)

5% of total contract value

b)

8% of the value of the breached obligation

c)

8% of profit

d)

15% of the contract value

49.

The amount of penalty in civil contracts is:

a)

Set only by the court

b)

Equal to the damages incurred

c)

Determined by mutual agreement unless otherwise required by law

d)

Always 8%

50.

The term "obligation" in a legal context refers to:

a)

A legally binding duty

b)

A desire to do something

c)

A written agreement only

d)

A type of property

51.

The word "liability" most nearly means:

a)

Legal responsibility for one’s actions

b)

The right to own property

c)

The ability to make decisions

d)

Permission to leave a contract

52.

To "enforce a contract" means to:

a)

Cancel a legal agreement

b)

Translate the contract

c)

Explain a contract to someone

d)

Make sure the contract is followed

53.

The word "damages" in legal language refers to:

a)

Injuries to reputation only

b)

Physical injuries only

c)

Destruction of legal evidence

d)

Money paid as compensation for harm or loss

54.

Non-contractual compensation liability arises when:

a)

Damage is caused without a contractual relationship

b)

A law is violated regardless of damage

c)

A contract is breached

d)

Parties agree to share losses

55.

Which of the following is NOT a condition for liability in non-contractual compensation?

a)

Unlawful act

b)

Fault

c)

Compensation agreement

d)

Causation

56.

The phrase "mutual agreement of the parties" most closely means:

a)

A mistake made by both parties

b)

A shared decision by all parties

c)

An argument between parties

d)

An automatic contract extension

57.

A "breach of contract" occurs when a party:

a)

Agrees to new contract terms

b)

Completes their obligations

c)

Fails to properly fulfill their duties

d)

Changes their contact information

58.

A "remedy" for breach of contract refers to:

a)

Medical support for injured parties

b)

Penalties imposed by the police

c)

Legal solutions to restore fairness

d)

Forgiveness by the other party

59.

What does Employment Law primarily govern?

a)

The process of starting a business

b)

The rights of consumers

c)

Relations between employees and employers

d)

Criminal behavior at work

60.

Which of the following is not a governing method of Employment Law?

a)

Equal agreement method

b)

Order method

c)

Criminal procedure method

d)

Impacts through trade unions

61.

One of the fundamental principles of Employment Law is:

a)

Maximizing employer profit

b)

Avoiding tax liabilities

c)

Protecting only state employees

d)

Strict compliance with the law

62.

Which of the following is a characteristic of employment relations?

a)

Employee can freely hire others to do the job

b)

Employer has no right to monitor employees

c)

Employment relations are based on freedom and voluntariness

d)

Employer must work under the direction of employees

63.

What must both the employer and employee do during the performance of the employment contract?

a)

Renegotiate monthly

b)

Ignore minor obligations

c)

Renew the contract every 3 months

d)

Comply with all the commitments in the contract

64.

What is a workplace under the law?

a)

Any location where the employee performs assigned work

b)

The registered home address of the employee

c)

Only the office of the employer

d)

Online video calls only

65.

Which of the following is not a case of employment contract suspension?

a)

Employee participates in the militia

b)

Employee is on annual leave

c)

Employee is detained under criminal procedure

d)

Employee is called for military service

66.

Which of the following situations terminates the employment contract by law?

a)

The employee goes on vacation

b)

The employee completes the assigned job

c)

The employee changes departments

d)

The employee applies for promotion

67.

The employment contract is terminated if:

a)

The employee is declared by the court as missing or dead

b)

The employee changes job title

c)

The employee requests a transfer

d)

The employee goes on a business trip

68.

Which of the following is a disciplinary form that can lead to an employment contract termination?

a)

Salary reduction

b)

Reassignment

c)

Dismissal

d)

Warning

69.

An employee can lawfully terminate the employment contract without notice if:

a)

They are not given the agreed job or workplace

b)

They want to study abroad

c)

They feel tired of the job

d)

They prefer another offer

70.

Which of the following requires no advance notice for unilateral termination by the employee?

a)

The employment contract is indefinite

b)

The employee finds the job too difficult

c)

The employee is sexually harassed at work

d)

The employee disagrees with a supervisor

71.

What is the notice period if the employee wants to terminate an indefinite-term contract?

a)

15 days

b)

30 days

c)

3 working days

d)

45 days

72.

What is the notice period if the employee wants to terminate an employment contract of 12–36 months?

a)

7 days

b)

30 days

c)

45 days

d)

No notice required

73.

What is the notice period for termination of an employment contract under 12 months?

a)

45 days

b)

30 days

c)

3 working days

d)

No notice required

74.

Which of the following allows termination without prior notice?

a)

Employee is verbally insulted by the employer

b)

Employer does not approve annual leave

c)

Employee is late once

d)

Employer offers extra tasks

75.

An employer may unilaterally terminate an employment contract if the employee:

a)

Wants to change departments

b)

Takes parental leave

c)

Often fails to perform the job

d)

Requests a raise

76.

Which of the following does not require notice by the employer before a unilateral termination?

a)

Employee fails to perform duties

b)

Employee takes sick leave

c)

Employee is absent for 5+ days without any valid reason

d)

Business is downsized

77.

What does 'sexual harassment in the workplace' legally mean?

a)

Friendly comments about appearance

b)

Any act of affection

c)

A sexual act against a person’s will at work

d)

Any joke made in the office

78.

Which of the following is NOT a lawful disciplinary sanction under the Labour Code?

a)

Reprimand

b)

Suspension without pay for 12 months

c)

Demotion

d)

Dismissal

79.

Which of the following best describes a sole proprietorship?

a)

A company owned by two or more members contributing capital

b)

An enterprise owned by a single individual who is responsible with all of their assets

c)

A legal entity separate from its owner

d)

An enterprise established by issuing shares to the public

80.

Who has the right to make business decisions in a sole proprietorship?

a)

The Board of Directors

b)

The Members’ Council

c)

The individual owner

d)

The General Meeting of Shareholders

81.

Regarding liability, the owner of a sole proprietorship:

a)

Is liable only within the amount of capital contributed

b)

Has unlimited liability with their entire property

c)

Shares liability equally with employees

d)

Is not personally liable for debts of the enterprise

82.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a sole proprietorship?

a)

It cannot issue shares to raise capital

b)

It is owned by one individual only

c)

It can be converted into a limited liability company if conditions are met

d)

It has the right to contribute capitals to other companies

83.

Mr. Nam owns a sole proprietorship. His business took out a loan of 2 billion VND but later went bankrupt. The creditors are demanding repayment. Who is responsible for paying the debt?

a)

Mr. Nam, with all of his personal property if necessary

b)

Only from the capital that Mr. Nam initially contributed

c)

Only the enterprise itself

d)

Creditors cannot collect because the business failed

84.

A partnership must have at least:

a)

1 partner

b)

2 general partners

c)

3 limited partners

d)

2 shareholders

85.

In a partnership, who has unlimited liability?

a)

Only general partners

b)

Only limited partners

c)

Both general and limited partners

d)

None, because the partnership itself is a legal entity

86.

Can a partnership issue shares to raise capital?

a)

Yes, like a joint stock company

b)

Yes, but only to existing partners

c)

Yes, if approved by the Business Registration Office

d)

No, because it is not a shareholding entity

87.

Which of the following is true about limited partners in a partnership?

a)

They can manage the company like general partners

b)

They are liable for the company’s debts with all of their assets

c)

They contribute capital but are liable only to the extent of their contribution

d)

They must be natural persons only

88.

Which of the following activities cannot be performed by limited partners?

a)

Contributing capital

b)

Managing day-to-day business

c)

Receiving profits

d)

Inspecting the company’s financial statements

89.

How many members can a multi-member LLC have?

a)

From 2 to 50 members

b)

From 2 to unlimited members

c)

Exactly 2 members

d)

Minimum 3 members, maximum 100

90.

What is the liability of members in a multi-member LLC?

a)

Unlimited liability for company debts

b)

Limited liability up to the amount of capital contributed

c)

Liability limited to 50% of their assets

d)

No liability at all

91.

Which governing body is compulsory in a multi-member LLC?

a)

Board of Directors

b)

Members’ Council

c)

General Meeting of Shareholders

d)

Audit Committee

92.

Can members of a multi-member LLC freely transfer their capital contributions to outsiders?

a)

Yes, without restriction

b)

Yes, but must follow the legal procedure

c)

No, transfer is forbidden

d)

Only if the Prime Minister approves

93.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

A multi-member LLC can issue shares to raise capital.

b)

A multi-member LLC cannot issue shares.

c)

Only general partners can issue shares in this type of company.

d)

Members can convert their shares into stocks.

94.

Who is the owner of a one-member LLC?

a)

Only an individual

b)

Only an organization

c)

Either an individual or an organization

d)

A minimum of two individuals jointly

95.

What is the liability of the owner in a one-member LLC?

a)

Liability limited to the amount of charter capital contributed

b)

Unlimited liability for all debts

c)

Liability limited to 50% of personal assets

d)

No liability at all

96.

Which body manages a one-member LLC owned by an individual?

a)

Board of Directors

b)

Owner directly

c)

Audit Committee

d)

Supervisory Board

97.

Which management structure applies to a one-member LLC owned by an organization?

a)

Director or General Director only

b)

A Members’ Council and a Board of Directors

c)

Either a Members’ Council + Director/General Director OR a President + Board of Directors

d)

Either a Members’ Council + Director/General Director OR a President + Director/General Director

98.

Can a one-member LLC issue shares to raise capital?

a)

Yes, freely like a Joint Stock Company

b)

Yes, but only to existing creditors

c)

No, it cannot issue shares

d)

Only with permission from the Prime Minister

99.

What is the minimum number of shareholders required to establish a JSC?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

100.

What is the liability of shareholders in a JSC?

a)

Unlimited liability for debts of the company

b)

Liability limited to the amount of capital contributed

c)

Liability limited to 50% of personal assets

d)

No liability at all

101.
Which body manages a one-member LLC owned by an individual?
a)
A) Board of Directors
b)
B) Owner directly
c)
C) Audit Committee
d)
D) Supervisory Board
102.
Which management structure applies to a one-member LLC owned by an organization?
a)
A) Director or General Director only
b)
B) A Members’ Council and a Board of Directors
c)
C) Either a Members’ Council + Director/General Director OR a President + Board of Directors
d)
D) Either a Members’ Council + Director/General Director OR a President + Director/General Director
103.
Can a one-member LLC issue shares to raise capital?
a)
A) Yes, freely like a Joint Stock Company
b)
B) Yes, but only to existing creditors
c)
C) No, it cannot issue shares
d)
D) Only with permission from the Prime Minister
104.
What is the minimum number of shareholders required to establish a JSC?
a)
A) 1
b)
B) 2
c)
C) 3
d)
D) 5
105.
What is the liability of shareholders in a JSC?
a)
A) Unlimited liability for debts of the company
b)
B) Liability limited to the amount of capital contributed
c)
C) Liability limited to 50% of personal assets
d)
D) No liability at all
106.
Which type of capital instrument can a JSC issue?
a)
A) Only bonds
b)
B) Only ordinary shares
c)
C) Only promissory notes
d)
D) Shares and bonds
107.
Which of the following is a required organ of a JSC with more than 11 shareholders or an institutional shareholder holding more than 50%?
a)
A) Supervisory Board
b)
B) None of the answers are correct
c)
C) Members’ Council
d)
D) Board of Trustees
108.
Which body is the highest decision-making authority in a JSC?
a)
A) General Meeting of Shareholders
b)
B) Board of Directors
c)
C) Supervisory Board
d)
D) General Director