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Obstetrics and Gynecology Multiple Choice Worksheet

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

R.L. reports regular 28-day menstrual cycles. Which hormone causes her slight increase in basal body temperature after ovulation?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Luteinizing hormone

d)

Follicle-stimulating hormone

2.

C.T. notes clear, stretchy cervical mucus on day 14 of her cycle. This finding suggests:

a)

Implantation

b)

Ovulation

c)

Menstrual phase

d)

Secretory phase

3.

Fertilization usually occurs in which structure of the reproductive tract?

a)

Uterine fundus

b)

Cervical canal

c)

Ampulla of the fallopian tube

d)

Ovarian cortex

4.

Six days after fertilization, the zygote attaches to the endometrium. This process is called:

a)

A. Implantation

b)

B. Differentiation

c)

C. Involution

d)

D. Mitosis

5.

The nurse explains that the placenta becomes fully functional by:

a)

6th week

b)

8th week

c)

10–12 weeks gestation

d)

16th week

6.

J.G., 18 weeks pregnant, first feels her baby move. This is known as:

a)

Quickening

b)

Lightening

c)

Engagement

d)

Effacement

7.

S.S. asks what protects the fetus from trauma in the uterus. The nurse explains it is the:

a)

Placenta

b)

Amniotic fluid

c)

Uterine wall

d)

Chorion

8.

The umbilical cord normally contains:

a)

One artery and two veins

b)

Two arteries and two veins

c)

One artery and one vein

d)

Two arteries and one vein

9.

A patient’s history shows G3P1011. How should this be interpreted?

a)

3 pregnancies, 1 term birth, 0 preterm, 1 abortion, 1 living

b)

3 pregnancies, 1 term, 1 preterm, 0 abortions, 1 living

c)

1 pregnancy, 0 term, 1 abortion, 1 living

d)

3 pregnancies, 2 term, 0 abortions, 1 living

10.

During a prenatal visit, bluish discoloration of the cervix is observed. The nurse documents this as:

a)

Goodell’s sign

b)

Chadwick’s sign

11.

A 34-week client reports blurred vision and facial swelling. The nurse suspects:

a)

Normal edema

b)

Preeclampsia

c)

Placenta previa

d)

Threatened abortion

12.

A pregnant woman complains of dizziness when lying flat. The nurse’s best advice is to:

a)

Sit upright

b)

Lie supine

c)

Lie on her right side

d)

Lie on her left side

13.

A client says she urinates frequently during early pregnancy. The nurse explains this is due to:

a)

Hormonal imbalance

b)

Increased cardiac output

c)

Pressure of the enlarging uterus on the bladder

d)

Increased fluid intake

14.

A woman in labor experiences regular contractions that increase in intensity and cause cervical change. This indicates:

a)

True labor

b)

False labor

c)

Premature labor

d)

Braxton Hicks contractions

15.

In the first stage of labor, cervical dilation progresses from:

a)

0–3 cm

b)

4–7 cm

c)

8–10 cm

d)

0–10 cm

16.

At 8 cm dilation, the woman begins to feel an urge to push. The nurse explains she is in which phase?

a)

Latent phase

b)

Active phase

c)

Transition phase

d)

Expulsion phase

17.

When the fetal head reaches the ischial spines, the nurse documents:

a)

Descent

b)

Engagement

c)

Flexion

d)

Extension

18.

The fetal position is ROA. This means:

a)

Occiput toward mother’s left posterior

b)

Occiput toward mother’s right anterior

c)

Face presentation

d)

Breech presentation

19.

Fetal heart tones are best heard through the mother’s abdomen over the:

a)

Fetal chest

b)

Fetal head

c)

Fetal back

d)

Maternal flank

20.

The series of movements the fetus performs during birth are called:

a)

Fetal lie

b)

Cardinal movements

c)

Station changes

d)

Cephalic variations

21.

A nurse monitors labor progress using a partograph. The plotting crosses the alert line. The next action is to:

a)

Continue routine monitoring

b)

Reassess and consider referral

c)

Wait until the action line is reached

d)

Discontinue plotting

22.

When the plotting crosses the action line, the nurse must:

a)

Encourage ambulation

b)

Delay further examinations

c)

Wait 4 more hours

d)

Facilitate medical decision for intervention

23.

During labor, contractions lasting 40–60 seconds and occurring every 2–3 minutes indicate:

a)

Early labor

b)

Active labor

c)

Uterine hyperstimulation

d)

False labor

24.

In the second stage of labor, the nurse’s priority is to:

a)

Assist with pushing efforts

b)

Monitor fetal heart rate every 30 minutes

c)

Encourage fluid intake

d)

Administer oxytocin

25.

The placenta is delivered during which stage of labor?

a)

First stage

b)

Second stage

c)

Third stage

d)

Fourth stage

26.

After delivery, uterine involution is best evaluated by:

a)

Checking lochia color

b)

Measuring fundal height

c)

Monitoring blood pressure

d)

Inspecting perineum

27.

M.L. is 1 day postpartum. The nurse finds the fundus firm and 1 cm below the umbilicus. This finding is:

a)

Normal

b)

Abnormal

c)

Indicates infection

d)

Suggests retained placenta

28.

Three days postpartum, the mother’s lochia is pink with no foul odor. This is:

a)

Lochia rubra

b)

Lochia serosa

c)

Lochia alba

d)

Lochia normalia

29.

Four hours postpartum, F.C. is focused on herself and resting. The nurse identifies this as:

a)

Taking-hold phase

b)

Letting-go phase

c)

Taking-in phase

d)

Regression

30.

On the third postpartum day, the mother begins learning infant care. This indicates which phase?

a)

A. Taking-hold

b)

B. Taking-in

c)

C. Letting-go

d)

D. Dependent

31.

A mother expresses sadness about losing her pre-pregnancy independence. This is part of which phase?

a)

Taking-in

b)

Letting-go

c)

Taking-hold

d)

Acceptance

32.

A postpartum woman asks when her menstruation will return. The best response is:

a)

2 weeks after delivery

b)

3–4 weeks if breastfeeding

c)

6–10 weeks if not breastfeeding

d)

12 weeks for all mothers

33.

Breastfeeding mothers experience stronger uterine contractions because of:

a)

Estrogen release

b)

Progesterone decrease

c)

Oxytocin release

d)

Prolactin surge

34.

The nurse advises a postpartum mother to void every 2–4 hours. The purpose is to:

a)

Reduce fatigue

b)

Prevent bladder distention and uterine displacement

c)

Increase urine output

d)

Improve lochia flow

35.

A postpartum mother complains of fever and foul-smelling lochia. The nurse suspects:

a)

Normal changes

b)

Dehydration

c)

Uterine subinvolution

d)

Infection

36.

During early pregnancy, the corpus luteum’s primary role is to:

a)

Secrete progesterone

b)

Produce estrogen

c)

Form the placenta

d)

Stimulate uterine contractions

37.

By 12 weeks of gestation, the nurse expects to find the uterus:

a)

Non-palpable

b)

At the umbilicus

c)

Just above the symphysis pubis

d)

At the xiphoid process

38.

The fetal heart can first be detected by Doppler around:

a)

6 weeks

b)

10–12 weeks

c)

16 weeks

d)

20 weeks

39.

A 36-week fetus is noted to have surfactant production. The significance of this is:

a)

Helps growth

b)

Prevents infection

c)

Promotes circulation

d)

Prevents alveolar collapse

40.

A nurse documents that the fetal head is “well flexed.” This means:

a)

Breech position

b)

Fetal attitude is normal

c)

Fetal lie is transverse

d)

Cephalic extension

41.

During a vaginal exam, the nurse notes “I” for membranes. This indicates:

a)

Intact membranes

b)

Ruptured membranes

c)

Partially ruptured membranes

d)

Unknown status of membranes

42.

If the amniotic fluid is meconium-stained, the nurse should:

a)

Document as normal

b)

Encourage pushing

c)

Delay delivery

d)

Prepare for possible neonatal respiratory distress

43.

The nurse explains that normal labor progress is shown on the partograph when plotting is:

a)

To the right of the alert line

b)

On or to the left of the alert line

c)

Above the action line

d)

Below the baseline

44.

A nurse plots cervical dilation from 4 cm at 4 p.m. to 10 cm at 10 p.m. The interpretation is:

a)

Normal progress

b)

Slow progress

c)

Arrested labor

d)

Uterine inertia

45.

The nurse notes the mother’s contractions are irregular and weak, and cervical dilation has not progressed. This indicates:

a)

Normal labor

b)

Hypertonic contractions

c)

Hypotonic uterine contractions

d)

Impending delivery

46.

A pregnant client asks what the mucus plug is for. The nurse replies:

a)

Lubricates the cervix

b)

Seals the cervical canal to prevent infection

c)

Triggers uterine contractions

d)

Nourishes the embryo

47.

A woman in early labor states, “I’m scared I won’t handle this pain.” The best nursing diagnosis is:

a)

Ineffective coping

b)

Risk for injury

c)

Anxiety related to fear of the unknown

d)

Powerlessness

48.

The nurse identifies the following as presumptive signs of pregnancy:

a)

Amenorrhea and breast tenderness

b)

Uterine enlargement and Hegar’s sign

c)

Positive pregnancy test and Chadwick’s sign

d)

Fetal movement felt by examiner

49.

Probable signs of pregnancy include:

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

Fetal movement felt by mother

c)

Fatigue

d)

Positive pregnancy test and Hegar’s sign

50.

Positive confirmation of pregnancy is established by:

a)

Breast changes

b)

Detection of fetal heartbeat or ultrasound visualization

c)

Amenorrhea

d)

Positive urine test

51.

M.C. reports that her last menstrual period (LMP) started on March 12, 2025. Using Naegele’s Rule, her estimated date of delivery (EDD) is:

a)

December 12, 2025

b)

December 19, 2025

c)

January 5, 2026

d)

January 19, 2026

52.

K.L. states her LMP began on August 5, 2025. Using Naegele’s Rule, her expected date of delivery is:

a)

April 5, 2026

b)

April 12, 2026

c)

May 5, 2026

d)

May 12, 2026

53.

During a prenatal visit on October 15, a mother’s LMP was June 8. Using the rule that pregnancy lasts approximately 40 weeks (280 days), her gestational age is about:

a)

12 weeks

b)

16 weeks

c)

18 weeks

d)

20 weeks

54.

At 20 weeks’ gestation, where should the nurse expect to palpate the uterine fundus?

a)

Just above the symphysis pubis

b)

At the level of the umbilicus

c)

Two fingers below the xiphoid process

d)

Halfway between the symphysis and umbilicus

55.

A nurse plots cervical dilation on a partograph and notices the line moving to the right of the alert line but not yet reaching the action line. The best nursing action is to:

a)

Encourage ambulation and reassess in 2 hours

b)

Prepare for immediate cesarean delivery

c)

Stop contractions using tocolytics

d)

Transfer the client immediately